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Worksheets

MOD 9 Exodus review

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

 _____ Antenna that offers conveying of signals to-and-from the dish, often attached to waveguides.

a)

Coaxial Cable

b)

Reflector

c)

Feed Horn

d)

Whip Antenna

2.

What does MODEM stand for?

a)

Multiplexing-Demultiplexing

b)

Multiplex-Demultiplex

c)

Modulate-Demultiplex

d)

Modulate-Demodulate

3.

Does a Modem use a transponder?

a)

YES

b)

NO

4.

Circular polarization allows adjustments to which two forms?

a)

Left-hand and right-hand

b)

Narrowband and wideband 

c)

Horizontal and diagonal

d)

Co-polarized and cross polarized

5.

When receiving a signal from a satellite, what happens first?

a)

Modem demodulates signal

b)

Amplifier increases downlink power

c)

Signal reflects off the parabolic dish into feed horn

d)

Block up converter increases frequency

6.

The FEC “rate” 1/2, 2/3 ,3/4 indicates what? 

a)

The frequency deviation of the modem

b)

How many copies of the message are transmitted 

c)

The number of feed horns required 

d)

Which encryption key is in use 

7.

 capable of adjusting for different types of polarization.

a)

Reflector

b)

ICBM with a B83 Warhead

c)

Feed Horn

d)

North and South

8.

MODEMs can house different connections such as RS-232, RS-422, HSSI, and Ethernet

a)

True

b)

False

9.

What is the primary purpose of coaxial cables in satellite communication terminals?

a)

To store power for the antenna

b)

To align the satellite dish

c)

 To cool the RF equipment

d)

To pass signals throughout the terminal

10.

What is the inner conductor of a coaxial cable also known as?

a)

Center conductor

b)

Dielectric core

c)

 Braided shield

d)

 Outer jacket

11.

What is one modern alternative to coaxial cables for sending RF signals?

a)

Fiber

b)

HDMI cables

c)

Ethernet

d)

Twisted pair copper

12.

Older modems typically used how many access methods? 

a)

3

b)

2

c)

4

d)

1

13.

How many transit cases for the GMT fit on one 463L pallet?

a)

29

b)

19

c)

25

d)

24

14.

TRUE or false,  Hub 1 and 2 are identical and interchangeable?

a)

False

b)

True

15.

 Multiband Satellite Terminals have the capability to operate on _______.

a)

C, X, K and Ka-bands

b)

C, X, and all three K-bands

c)

C, X, Ku and Ka-bands

d)

X, Ku, K and Ka-bands

16.

What is the defining feature of GMT Hub1 and Hub 2

a)

Hub 1 and Hub 2 are identical and interchangeable

b)

Hub 2 has twice the bandwidth capacity of Hub 1

c)

Hub 1 can handle commercial satellites, Hub 2 only handles military satellites 

d)

Hub 2 is receive only while hub 1 is transmit only

17.

The GMT is capable of how many uplinks and downlinks per hub?

a)

1 uplink, 3 downlinks

b)

1 uplink, 6 downlinks

c)

2 uplinks, 12 downlinks

d)

4 uplinks, 8 downlinks

18.

The Remote PDP can be how many feet away from the generator?

a)

250 Feet

b)

300 Feet

c)

350 Feet

d)

50 Feet

19.

 PDPs used with the GMT require what type of input cable? 

a)

80 amp six wire braided cable

b)

120- amp dual-phase cable 

c)

60 amp five-wire power cable

d)

30 amp three wire copper cable 

20.

 Including both hubs, The GMT’s total capacity is__

a)

1 uplink, 6 downlinks 

b)

2 uplinks, 6 downlinks

c)

2 uplinks, 12 downlinks

d)

4 uplinks, 8 downlinks

21.

How many total GMT transit cases are required for deployment?

a)

14

b)

22

c)

25

d)

29

22.

How many antenna cases does the GMT use?

a)

19

b)

29

c)

25

d)

18

23.

The NSM is best described as what type of multiplexer ? 

a)

Synchronous time division digital multiplexer 

b)

Packet- switched router

c)

Analog signal multiplexer 

d)

Asynchronous frequency division multiplexer 

24.

What is the primary function of a Block Down Converter (BDC)?

a)

Convert IF to RF 

b)

Convert downlink frequency to IF

c)

 Extract data from the signal

d)

Amplify the uplink signal 

25.

After conversion by the BDC, where is the signal sent?

a)

Antenna 

b)

 Satellite 

c)

 Power amplifier

d)

Modem

26.

What capability does the NSM provide when interfacing modems with terminal radio equipment? 

a)

Half-duplex only 

b)

Full- duplex communication

c)

Simplex communication 

d)

One-way transmission

27.

What is the maximum data rate the NSM can operate at ? 

a)

26Mbps 

b)

100 Mbps 

c)

52Mbps 

d)

32Mbps 

28.

After receiving data from the DTE,  the modem modulates the information into what?

a)

Infra-red (IF)

b)

Intermediate Frequency (IF)

c)

Interdimensional Frequency (IF)

d)

Intertwined Frequency (IF)

29.

What does the port router in the NSM provide?

a)

Interconnectivity of data flow

b)

Frequency conversion

c)

Error correction

d)

RF amplification 

30.

Monitor and control of the NSM is accomplished through which connection? 

a)

USB

b)

RS-422

c)

RS-232

d)

Ethernet 

31.

TRUE or FALSE The block up converter’s primary responsibility is to translate the IF?

a)

False

b)

True

32.

From the modem, the IF is passed to what?

a)

Block Up Converter

b)

Feed Horn

c)

Block Down Converter

d)

NSM

33.

In the GMT, NSM monitoring and control is handled through which interface? 

a)

Command line Interface (GUI) 

b)

SNMP Manager 

c)

Local Terminal Display 

d)

Control, Monitor, and Alarm (CMA) GUI

34.

 Amplification in transmission uses an HPA

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Used in communications terminals to amplify the radio frequency to a level suitable to reach the satellite.

a)

receiver

b)

Amplifier

c)

Antenna

d)

 Modem

36.

Most commonly used Amplifier in satellite comms?

a)

Stationary Wave Tube Amplifier

b)

 Mobile Wave Tube Amplifier

c)

Traveling Wave Tube Amplifier

d)

Moving Wave Tube Amplifier

37.

What happens to the signal strength as the Vacuum tube heats up?

a)

Amplifies

b)

Modulates

c)

Moderates

d)

Weakens

38.

the block up converter conveys the _____ to the amplifier though a coax cable

a)

X-Band

b)

Demodulated Signal

c)

Receive signal

d)

Transmit signal

39.

The up Converter also provides a variable amount of attenuation to control

a)

The Sideband's

b)

Total Power

c)

The Down Converter

d)

The Carrier wave

40.

The NSM is a ____________ time division digital multiplexer

a)

Synchronous

b)

Asynchronous

c)

Wireless

d)

High power

41.

What is this?

a)

HPA

b)

LRO

c)

NSM

d)

BDC

42.

What is the correct receive signal path?

a)

Modem- HPA-BUC-LNA

b)

Feed Horn-BUC-BDC-Modem

c)

Feed Horn-TWTA-BDC-Modem

d)

Feed Horn-LNA-BDC-Modem

43.

What is the purpose of the block down converter? 

a)

Translate IF to RF

b)

Convert RF to IF

c)

Modulate Data 

d)

Amplify weak signals

44.

Ground terminals often receive a weak downlink signal from the satellite because?

a)

physical distance

b)

Intellectual distance

c)

Psychological distance

d)

Humidity

45.

What is the typical strength of a satellite downlink before LNA amplification?

a)

-20 to 0 dBm 

b)

-140 to -70 dBm

c)

-10 to +10 dBM

d)

+10 to +30 dBm

46.

Why is a low noise amplifier (LNA) used in the receive chain?

a)

To amplify without degrading Signal-to-noise ratio

b)

To increase frequency 

c)

To convert radio frequency to intermediate frequency

d)

To demodulate the signal 

47.

 In order to bring the signal to a usable level, it is passed through a

a)

Speaker

b)

High Noise Amp

c)

Low Noise Amp

d)

Coaxial Cable interface

48.

What is day is 167 on a Julian calendar?

a)

September 21

b)

JUN 16

c)

March 03

d)

August 08

49.

What frequency does the rubidium oscillator distribute to GMT equipment? 

a)

1MHz

b)

5 MHz

c)

6 GHz

d)

9 GHz

50.

What component supplies the GMT with a highly stable timing source? 

a)

Cesium Oscillator

b)

Data modem

c)

Stratum -10 timing source with cesium oscillator 

d)

Stratum-1 timing source with rubidium oscillator

51.

What is stored by the internal battery inside the TRAK 9000 expansion card? 

a)

User frequency presets 

b)

GPS Almanac Data

c)

Satellite beacon strength logs

d)

Modem configuration files 

52.

What is day is 232 on a Julian calendar?

a)

May 04

b)

November 15

c)

August 20

d)

July 11

53.

What information is shown on the Time of Year (TOY) display?

a)

Modem Configuration 

b)

Only Local Time

c)

Only GPS satellite count

d)

Day of the Year and UTC/local Time 

54.

What information does the Time of Year (TOY) display provide that is critical for timing verification?

a)

Julian date and ITC/local time 

b)

Satellite data 

c)

Antenna azimuth and elevation 

d)

Fault status indicators 

55.

What is the purpose of the ENT key?

a)

Scroll through modules

b)

Clear all data

c)

Enter selected Data

d)

Reset the timing unit 

56.

Which sequence correctly allows an operator to view the setup screen without modifying system parameters? 

a)

MENU -> ENT -> NEXT

b)

SEL -> NEXT -> ENT 

c)

NEXT -> PREV -> ENT

d)

STAT -> NEXT repeatedly

57.

What is the function of the SEL key in multi-option setup screens? 

a)

Scrolls through available choices 

b)

Saves configuration data 

c)

Navigates between screens

d)

Resets cursor position 

58.

Which rear panel port supports remote monitoring and asynchronous ASCII command communication?

a)

EXT STD 

b)

RS-232A

c)

STATUS 

d)

RS-232B

59.

Each hub in the GMT has a non-dedicated timing unit allowing both hubs to operate in tandem

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What is the diameter of the Small Aperture Antenna (SAA)

a)

1.2m

b)

 2.4m

c)

4.9m

d)

6.1 m

61.

What is the diameter of the Q-LAA antenna?

a)

4.9 m

b)

2.4m

c)

3.9m

d)

5.2 m

62.

The Quad- Band Large Aperture antenna (Q-LAA) is best described as

a)

A fixed-site antenna requiring external control systems 

b)

A trailer-mounted antenna with Ka-Band only capability 

c)

A self-contained transportable antenna subsystem 

d)

An offset-fed antenna requiring an external GMT kit 

63.

What is the Diameter of LAMDA

a)

4.9m (16ft)

b)

2.4 (8ft)

c)

3.9 (13ft)

d)

 6.1 (20ft)

64.

What is the diameter of the Q-LAA antenna?

a)

4.9m

b)

 6.1m

c)

3.9m

d)

2.4m

65.

What type of antenna is this?

a)

SAA

b)

QLAA

c)

LAMDA

d)

QRSA

66.

Optrack is the Secondary tracking mode used in the ACU

a)

True

b)

False

67.

What antenna is commonly referred to as the Trailer Mounted Antenna (TMA)

a)

LAMDA

b)

LHGXA

c)

OE-36 QRSA

d)

Q-LAA

68.

What is the primary tracking mode used in the ACU?

a)

Step Track

b)

Memory Track 

c)

Geo Track 

d)

OpTrack

69.

During Step Track, what happens if no signal meets the threshold?

a)

A box scan is performed 

b)

Tracking Steps 

c)

The HPA is disabled 

d)

Antenna shuts down

70.

Position Track requires the operator to enter:

a)

Latitude and Longitude 

b)

Initial azimuth, elevation, and polarization

c)

 Orbital slot and footprint 

d)

 Tracking gain levels 

71.

What antenna is this?

a)

SAA

b)

QLAA

c)

LAMDA

d)

QRSA

72.

Geo Track requires operator entry of 

a)

Azimuth and Polarization

b)

Antenna size and GPS time

c)

Satellite latitude and longitude

d)

Wavelength and Frequency 

73.

Optrack works by storing ________.

a)

Azimuth, Elevation, and Polarization

b)

Timing, Latitude, and Longitude

c)

Azimuth, Elevation and Synchronization

d)

Geolocation

74.

Step track works by searching for any signal that breaches the established signal threshold.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Which antenna requires the largest crew and longest setup time? 

a)

LHGXA

b)

Q-LAA

c)

OE-36 QRSA

d)

LAMDA

76.

What type of antenna is this?

a)

SAA

b)

QLAA

c)

LAMDA

d)

QRSA

77.

Why does memory track work effectively with geosynchronous satellites? 

a)

They do not require active tracking 

b)

They operate in multiple frequency bands

c)

They transmit higher power signals  

d)

They maintain consistent daily rotation

78.

 Which antenna is capable of worldwide operations with DSCS, NATO IV, and Skynet 

a)

Q-LAA

b)

LHGXA

c)

LAMDA

d)

OE-36 QRSA

79.

Position Track, Geo Track, Position Track are all enhanced versions of OpTrack

a)

False

b)

True

80.

What antenna is this?

a)

SAA

b)

QLAA

c)

LAMDA

d)

QRSA

81.

 If the step track finds no signal after a box scan, what message appears?

a)

NO SIGNAL FOUND 

b)

TRACKING FAILED 

c)

BEACON LOST 

d)

SAT NOT AVAILABLE 

82.

Memory track improves performance by 

a)

Replacing OpTrack 

b)

Storing satellite positions over time 

c)

Removing LNA noise

d)

Reducing antenna size requirements 

83.

Memory track works because geosynchronous satellites do what?

a)

Drift rapidly

b)

Change orbits daily

c)

Have predictable daily movement

d)

Require constant recalibration 

84.

Which Antenna System requires up to 1 to 2 hours to set up and requires 6-8 people?

a)

SAA

b)

QLAA

c)

LHGXA 

d)

QRSA