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Practice Test 4 — CompTIA A+ (Core 1)

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A laptop shows a clear image on an external monitor but a black internal screen even with a flashlight. Most likely cause?

a)

Faulty GPU

b)

Failed LCD panel or display cable

c)

Dead CMOS battery

d)

Missing video driver

2.

Which mobile wireless feature enables tap-to-pair headphones and quick file transfer prompts at very close range?

a)

Bluetooth BR/EDR

b)

NFC

c)

Wi-Fi Direct

d)

Zigbee

3.

A user wants the longest battery life on a business trip without losing email notifications. Best setting?

a)

Airplane Mode

b)

Battery Saver with background data allowed for email

c)

Disable cellular and rely on Wi‑Fi calls

d)

Force 120 Hz display refresh

4.

Which tablet screen technology provides true blacks and high contrast by turning pixels off?

a)

IPS LCD

b)

TN LCD

c)

OLED

d)

VA LCD

5.

A laptop with a smartcard and PIN is an example of what authentication factors?

a)

Something you are + something you know

b)

Something you have + something you know

c)

Something you know only

d)

Something you have + somewhere you are

6.

A phone’s GPS is inaccurate inside a mall. What built-in helper improves indoor location for some apps?

a)

Assisted GPS (A‑GPS) with Wi‑Fi/cell triangulation

b)

GLONASS only

c)

Bluetooth LE beacons only

d)

Magnetometer only

7.

A user needs to display a laptop screen to a projector that only has HDMI. The laptop has USB‑C with DP Alt Mode. What single accessory solves this?

a)

USB‑C to VGA cable

b)

USB‑C to HDMI adapter/dongle

c)

USB‑C to RJ‑45 adapter

d)

USB‑C OTG adapter

8.

A smartphone’s storage is nearly full. Which action frees space while retaining photos in the cloud?

a)

Factory reset

b)

Enable cloud photo optimization/offload originals locally

c)

Disable iCloud/Drive

d)

Turn off camera location tags

9.

A 2‑in‑1 converts to tablet mode and the keyboard keeps typing when held. Likely cause?

a)

CPU throttling

b)

Failed hall/gyro sensor or mode switch driver

c)

BIOS password

d)

Disk encryption

10.

Which slot is commonly used for cellular modems in laptops?

a)

PCIe x16

b)

M.2 B‑key

c)

DIMM

d)

SATA Express

11.

Which accessory lets a phone act as a wired USB host for flash drives?

a)

USB‑C PD charger

b)

USB‑C OTG adapter

c)

Lightning to 3.5 mm dongle

d)

Micro‑USB charge‑only cable

12.

A user wants wireless screen mirroring from Android to a recent TV without a network. Best option?

a)

Miracast (Wi‑Fi Direct)

b)

RDP

c)

Telnet

d)

SMB share

13.

Why do many ultrabooks use LPDDR instead of SO‑DIMMs?

a)

Higher voltage

b)

Lower power and thinner designs (soldered)

c)

Easier user upgrades

d)

Requires ECC

14.

Which iOS feature separates corporate apps/data from personal content on BYOD?

a)

Jailbreak

b)

User Enrollment / Managed Apple ID

c)

AirDrop

d)

Find My

15.

When replacing a phone battery, the first safety step is to:

a)

Puncture to vent it

b)

Heat it with a heat gun at high temp

c)

Power down and remove external power, then follow ESD and manufacturer guidance

d)

Freeze it before removal

16.

A laptop supports Thunderbolt 4. Which capability is guaranteed vs. generic USB‑C?

a)

100 Gbps Ethernet

b)

40 Gbps throughput with PCIe tunneling and dual 4K video support

c)

Built‑in cellular modem

d)

Infinite daisy‑chain of any devices

17.

Which Google/Android feature lets admins centrally push Wi‑Fi/VPN profiles to BYOD work containers?

a)

Google Play Games

b)

Android Enterprise Work Profile (via MDM)

c)

Google Home

d)

Nearby Share

18.

A phone repeatedly fails Face ID/biometric after a screen replacement at a non‑authorized shop. Likely reason?

a)

Wrong APN settings

b)

Secure biometric sensor not paired/calibrated to device

c)

Weak Wi‑Fi signal

d)

Outdated ringtone

19.

Which device reduces broadcast traffic between subnets?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Repeater

20.

Which wireless standard introduced MU-MIMO and beamforming as headline features on 5 GHz?

a)

802.11g

b)

802.11n

c)

802.11ac (Wi‑Fi 5)

d)

802.11b

21.

Which addressing indicates an IPv6 global unicast?

a)

fe80::1

b)

ff02::1

c)

2001:db8::1

d)

::1

22.

What does SSID isolation on a guest WLAN do?

a)

Disables DHCP

b)

Prevents wireless clients from talking to each other on the same SSID

c)

Forces WPA3

d)

Prioritizes voice packets

23.

Which copper category is generally recommended for 2.5/5GBASE‑T and 10GBASE‑T up to 100 m (in newer installs)?

a)

Cat 5e everywhere

b)

Cat 6a

c)

Cat 3

d)

RG‑59

24.

Which DNS record stores text used for SPF/DMARC/verification?

a)

A

b)

TXT

c)

CNAME

d)

MX

25.

You can ping 8.8.8.8 but not example.com. Which command directly tests DNS resolution on Windows?

a)

tracert example.com

b)

ipconfig /all

c)

nslookup example.com

d)

route print

26.

Which Wi‑Fi security is strongest for SOHO if available?

a)

WPA3‑Personal (SAE)

b)

WPA2‑TKIP

c)

WEP

d)

Open with captive portal

27.

What does NAT/PAT accomplish at a SOHO router?

a)

Converts IPv6 to IPv4

b)

Translates many private IP/ports to one public IP

c)

Enforces QoS

d)

Assigns DHCP leases

28.

A user needs to access home devices from the internet securely. Best approach?

a)

Expose RDP to the internet

b)

Create a VPN on the router and connect remotely

c)

Use WEP and port forward 3389

d)

Turn off the firewall

29.

Which record directs email delivery to the correct servers?

a)

MX

b)

AAAA

c)

SRV

d)

PTR

30.

A switch port should instantly come up for a user device without STP delay. Use:

a)

PortFast / Edge port

b)

LACP

c)

802.1X

d)

Port mirroring

31.

Which 2.4 GHz channel plan avoids overlap (20 MHz)?

a)

2, 7, 10

b)

1, 6, 11

c)

3, 6, 9

d)

Any—all are non‑overlapping

32.

Which topology provides redundant paths at Layer 3 between sites?

a)

Star with a hub

b)

Full mesh VPNs

c)

Bus

d)

Ring only

33.

Which tool verifies Ethernet pair mapping and split pairs?

a)

Loopback plug

b)

Cable certifier/mapper

c)

OTDR (fiber)

d)

Tone generator only

34.

What is the default HTTPS port?

a)

80

b)

110

c)

143

d)

443

35.

A user on Wi‑Fi sees excellent RSSI but very low throughput in a crowded office. Likely cause?

a)

High airtime contention and CCI/ACI

b)

Bad DNS

c)

Damaged antenna

d)

Duplex mismatch

36.

Which IPv4 address is non‑routable on the public internet?

a)

100.64.1.1

b)

203.0.113.10

c)

172.20.5.5

d)

8.8.4.4

37.

Which component regulates CPU core voltage on a motherboard?

a)

Southbridge

b)

VRM (voltage regulator module)

c)

PCH fan

d)

CMOS

38.

Which slot is used by most modern GPUs?

a)

AGP

b)

PCIe x16

c)

PCI

d)

CNR

39.

Which storage provides the highest IOPS for small random reads/writes?

a)

5400 RPM HDD

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe SSD (PCIe)

d)

Tape library

40.

Which RAID provides striping with no redundancy?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

41.

In a laser printer, which component holds the electrostatic image?

a)

Fuser

b)

Drum/OPC

c)

Transfer belt

d)

Pickup roller

42.

Which connector provides SATA power?

a)

7-pin L-shaped

b)

15-pin flat

c)

Molex 4-pin

d)

8-pin EPS

43.

A workstation needs ECC memory. Which scenario fits?

a)

Gaming PC

b)

Mission-critical server or workstation platform that supports ECC

c)

Low-end Chromebook

d)

Raspberry Pi

44.

Which monitor connector can carry high-refresh video and supports daisy-chaining on many models?

a)

VGA

b)

DVI-D single-link

c)

DisplayPort

d)

S-Video

45.

A user wants the quietest small office PC. Which combo helps most?

a)

Many 15k RPM HDDs

b)

Large slow fans + NVMe SSD + good airflow

c)

Tiny high-RPM fans + HDD

d)

No fans whatsoever

46.

Which battery type is standard in laptops and requires careful handling if swollen?

a)

NiCd

b)

NiMH

c)

Li-ion

d)

Lead-acid

47.

A cable must be run in an air-handling plenum. Use:

a)

Riser (CMR)

b)

PVC (CM)

c)

Plenum-rated (CMP)

d)

Outdoor direct-bury

48.

Which port is typically used for audio + video from PC to monitor with HDCP?

a)

HDMI

b)

PS/2

c)

RS-232

d)

eSATA

49.

A NAS requires fast network links for large file transfers. Which is best?

a)

100BASE-TX

b)

1000BASE-T

c)

10GBASE-T

d)

802.11n

50.

A user needs to import footage quickly from a USB-C camera. Best port?

a)

USB 2.0

b)

USB 3.2 Gen 1 (5 Gbps)

c)

USB 3.2 Gen 2 (10 Gbps) or better

d)

PS/2

51.

Which setting must be enabled to boot from a disk larger than 2 TB using GPT?

a)

Legacy BIOS only

b)

UEFI mode

c)

CSM disabled and MBR

d)

Disable Secure Boot

52.

Which is not an input device?

a)

Barcode scanner

b)

Microphone

c)

Projector

d)

Game controller

53.

A user needs to connect a parallel printer to a modern laptop. Choose:

a)

HDMI to Parallel

b)

USB to Parallel adapter

c)

RJ-45 to Parallel

d)

VGA to Parallel

54.

A home user wants a color photo printer with low per-page costs. Best class?

a)

Monochrome laser

b)

Photo inkjet with individual color tanks

c)

Dot-matrix

d)

Dye-sublimation labeler only

55.

A Type 1 hypervisor is:

a)

Installed on bare metal

b)

An app inside Windows only

c)

A container runtime

d)

A BIOS feature only

56.

Which VM networking gives a VM an IP from the same subnet as the host using the same DHCP?

a)

Host-only

b)

NAT

c)

Bridged

d)

Loopback

57.

Which cloud model lets customers deploy apps without managing OS or servers?

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

DRaaS

58.

The ability to scale resources up/down automatically is:

a)

Rapid elasticity

b)

Metered billing

c)

Vertical vendor lock

d)

Thick provisioning

59.

Spinning up many test VMs without ownership or cleanup is called:

a)

Cloud bursting

b)

VM sprawl

c)

Blue/green

d)

Canary release

60.

Before patching a VM, what provides the fastest rollback if something breaks?

a)

Export VM as OVF then patch

b)

Snapshot the VM and verify space

c)

Clone to new hardware only

d)

Turn off swap

61.

Which client type is typical for VDI?

a)

Thin client

b)

Gaming desktop

c)

Raspberry Pi only

62.

In IaaS, who patches the guest OS?

a)

Cloud provider

b)

ISP

c)

Customer

d)

End users only

63.

Containers differ from VMs because containers:

a)

Include a full guest kernel always

b)

Share the host kernel and package app + deps

c)

Require Type 1 hypervisors

d)

Can’t be orchestrated

64.

A company uses public cloud for web tiers and on‑prem databases linked by a private tunnel. This is:

a)

Private cloud

b)

Hybrid cloud

c)

Community cloud

d)

Multi‑tenant private

65.

Which storage feature enables instant clones and thin provisioning?

a)

JBOD

b)

Copy‑on‑write snapshots

c)

Tape

d)

Optical media

66.

For lab hosts running multiple VMs, which resource usually hits the limit first?

a)

RAM

b)

Optical drive

c)

Parallel ports

d)

PS/2 ports

67.

Which cloud pricing model offers deep discounts for interruptible workloads?

a)

Reserved instances only

b)

Spot/preemptible instances

c)

Dedicated hosts

d)

Standard on‑demand only

68.

To run nested virtualization, you must enable:

a)

VT‑x/AMD‑V and nested virt support in the hypervisor

b)

Only more RAM

c)

GPU passthrough

d)

MAC filtering

69.

Which VM disk type grows with use instead of allocating full capacity up front?

a)

Thick eager‑zeroed

b)

Thick lazy‑zeroed

c)

Thin‑provisioned

d)

RDM

70.

A cloud app fails over to another region automatically. This is:

a)

Local HA only

b)

Multi‑region redundancy

c)

VLAN pooling

d)

NAT traversal

71.

A small business wants email, chat, storage with minimal admin. Best fit:

a)

Self‑hosted email on IaaS

b)

SaaS collaboration suite

c)

On‑prem Exchange

d)

Bare‑metal colo

72.

Which desktop approach streams apps from the data center to endpoints?

a)

FAT client

b)

VDI

c)

Bare‑metal restore

d)

Container on laptop

73.

A desktop powers on; no video; a single long repeating beep code is heard. First action?

a)

Replace OS

b)

Reseat/replace RAM per motherboard guide

c)

Replace PSU immediately

d)

Reimage the drive

74.

A PC shows “CPU fan error” at boot. Best fix?

a)

Plug the fan into any chassis header

b)

Ensure the cooler is seated and connected to CPU_FAN header

c)

Disable monitoring

d)

Lower screen brightness

75.

After moving desks, Ethernet shows no link lights. First check:

a)

Reinstall NIC driver

b)

Use a known‑good patch cable/port and verify jack is live

c)

Change DNS

d)

Replace switch core

76.

Laser printer outputs gray background on pages. Likely fix?

a)

Clean/replace the drum or check charge corona

b)

Replace ink cartridges

c)

Clean thermal head

d)

Replace duplexer

77.

A workstation randomly reboots under load; temps are normal. Next check?

a)

PSU wattage/rails and PCIe power connectors

b)

DHCP scope

c)

DNS suffix

d)

Keyboard layout

78.

A laptop overheats and throttles. Simple effective steps?

a)

Disable fans in BIOS

b)

Clean vents, verify fans, repaste heatsink if needed

c)

Switch to 2.4 GHz Wi‑Fi

d)

Lower resolution

79.

Users on a new floor get 169.254.x.x addresses. Switch/gateway are up. What’s missing?

a)

DNS records

b)

DHCP relay (IP helper) for that VLAN

c)

VLAN pruning on trunks

d)

Proxy PAC file

80.

A user can access a server by IP but not by name. ping name returns another host’s IP. Fix?

a)

Replace router

b)

Correct DNS entry and flush client DNS cache

c)

Disable IPv6 globally

d)

Increase MTU

81.

A monitor says “Out of Range” after setting 144 Hz on an older HDMI cable. Quick recovery:

a)

Boot to Safe Mode/low‑res and select supported refresh

b)

Replace CPU

c)

Clear CMOS only

d)

Reinstall printer

82.

Fiber link alarms after a rack move report high attenuation. What is the most common cause?

a)

Dirty connectors or tight bend radius

b)

Wrong SSID

c)

Full DHCP scope

d)

ARP poisoning

83.

A user complains of ghosting or smearing on a 60 Hz monitor while gaming. What is the best fix?

a)

Increase refresh rate if supported or enable overdrive

b)

Enable WEP

c)

Lower DHCP lease time

d)

Replace PSU

84.

A network printer is pingable but shows Offline in Windows. What is the first step?

a)

Restart the Print Spooler and verify the TCP/IP port or hostname mapping

b)

Replace the fuser

c)

Change the VLAN

d)

Disable SNMP globally

85.

A PC reports No boot device after adding a new HDD. What is the likely cause?

a)

GPU driver updated

b)

Boot order changed in UEFI; set NVMe/OS drive first

c)

DHCP option wrong

d)

DNS cache stale

86.

You must identify which wall jack maps to a patch panel port. Which tool should you use?

a)

Loopback plug only

b)

Tone generator and probe

c)

OTDR exclusively

d)

Optical power meter

87.

Users near the break room microwave lose Wi‑Fi connectivity. What is the best mitigation?

a)

Move clients or APs to 5/6 GHz bands and adjust channels

b)

Use 40 MHz channels on 2.4 GHz

c)

Enable WEP for speed

d)

Disable RTS/CTS

88.

A PoE camera won’t power on from one switch port but works on another. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

VLAN trunking issue

b)

PoE disabled or a non‑PoE port—enable 802.3af/at on that interface

c)

DNS misconfiguration

d)

Wrong default gateway

89.

After a brief outage, domain logons fail citing time differences. What is the quickest fix?

a)

Disable DNS on clients

b)

Restore the NTP/time service and resync clocks (Kerberos tolerance)

c)

Change to static IPs

d)

Update GPU BIOS

90.

A laptop shows a clear image on an external monitor but the internal screen stays black even when illuminated with a flashlight. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Backlight failure only

b)

Failed LCD panel or internal display cable

c)

GPU/driver failure

d)

Battery not charged

91.

Which mobile wireless feature enables tap‑to‑pair accessories and very short‑range data prompts?

a)

NFC

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Wi‑Fi Direct

d)

Infrared (IR)

92.

A user wants the longest battery life on a business trip without losing email notifications. Which setting is best?

a)

Enable Battery Saver but allow background data for email

b)

Turn on Airplane mode

c)

Use High‑performance power plan

d)

Disable email sync entirely

93.

Which tablet screen technology provides true blacks and high contrast by turning pixels completely off for black?

a)

OLED

b)

IPS LCD

c)

TN LCD

d)

E‑ink

94.

A laptop with a smartcard plus a PIN is an example of which authentication factors?

a)

Something you have + something you know

b)

Something you know + something you are

c)

Something you are + something you do

d)

Something you have + something you are

95.

A phone’s GPS is inaccurate inside a mall. Which built‑in helper improves indoor location for some apps?

a)

Assisted GPS using Wi‑Fi/cellular triangulation

b)

GLONASS only with more satellites

c)

Turning off Location Services

d)

Compass calibration only

96.

You need to display a laptop screen to a projector that only has HDMI. The laptop’s USB‑C supports DisplayPort Alt Mode. Which single accessory solves this?

a)

USB‑C hub without video support

b)

USB‑C to HDMI adapter/dongle

c)

Legacy VGA cable

d)

Passive HDMI‑to‑DisplayPort cable

97.

A smartphone’s storage is nearly full. Which action frees space while retaining full‑resolution photos in the cloud?

a)

Enable cloud photo optimization/offload originals locally

b)

Delete all older photos

c)

Move photos to an SD card only

d)

Disable cloud photo syncing

98.

A 2‑in‑1 converts to tablet mode but the keyboard keeps typing when held. What is the likely cause?

a)

Failed hall/gyro sensor or mode‑switch driver

b)

A single stuck key

c)

Depleted battery

d)

BIOS password enabled

99.

Which slot is commonly used for cellular modems (WWAN) in laptops?

a)

M.2 B‑key

b)

M.2 M‑key

c)

Mini PCIe x1

d)

SIM card slot

100.

Which accessory lets a phone act as a wired USB host for flash drives?

a)

USB‑OTG adapter

b)

USB‑C charger

c)

Bluetooth USB dongle

d)

USB‑C to HDMI adapter

101.

A user wants wireless screen mirroring from Android to a recent TV without using a network. What is the best option?

a)

Miracast (Wi‑Fi Direct)

b)

Chromecast over Wi‑Fi

c)

Apple AirPlay

d)

DLNA media sharing

102.

Why do many ultrabooks use LPDDR instead of SO‑DIMMs?

a)

Lower power and thinner, soldered designs

b)

Cheaper and easier to upgrade

c)

Higher capacity with replaceable modules

d)

Better for overclocking

103.

Which iOS feature separates corporate apps and data from personal content on BYOD devices?

a)

Full device Supervision via MDM

b)

User Enrollment with a Managed Apple ID

c)

Screen Time restrictions

d)

Family Sharing

104.

When replacing a phone battery, what is the first safety step?

a)

Pry the battery out immediately

b)

Short the terminals to discharge

c)

Power down and remove external power, then follow ESD guidance

d)

Heat the battery to soften adhesive while powered

105.

A laptop supports Thunderbolt 4. Which capability is guaranteed compared to generic USB‑C?

a)

USB 2.0 data only

b)

40 Gbps throughput with PCIe tunneling and dual 4K video support.

c)

Charging only with up to 1515 W

d)

Maximum 10 Gbps data rate

106.

Which Google/Android feature lets administrators centrally push Wi‑Fi and VPN profiles to BYOD work containers?

a)

Personal hotspot settings

b)

Android Enterprise Work Profile via MDM

c)

Guest mode

d)

Developer options

107.

A phone repeatedly fails Face ID/biometric after a screen replacement at a non‑authorized shop. What is the likely reason?

a)

Incorrect passcode entered

b)

Battery level is low

c)

Secure biometric sensor not paired/calibrated to the device

d)

Operating system update required first

108.

Which device reduces broadcast traffic between different subnets?

a)

Switch

b)

Router

c)

Hub

d)

Repeater

109.

Which wireless standard introduced MU‑MIMO and beamforming as headline features on 55 GHz?

a)

802.11n

b)

802.11ac (Wi‑Fi 5)

c)

802.11ax (Wi‑Fi 6)

d)

802.11a

110.

Which address indicates an IPv6 global unicast?

a)

fe80::1

b)

2001:db8::1

c)

::1

d)

fc00::1

111.

What does SSID isolation on a guest WLAN do?

a)

Boosts overall throughput

b)

Prevents wireless clients on the same SSID from talking directly to each other

c)

Prioritizes voice traffic over data

d)

Enables seamless roaming between APs

112.

Which copper cable category is generally recommended for 2.5/5GBASE‑T and 10GBASE‑T up to 100 meters in newer installs?

a)

Cat 5e

b)

Cat 6a

c)

Cat 7 proprietary

d)

Coax RG‑6

113.

Which DNS record stores text used for SPF/DMARC/verification?

a)

A

b)

TXT

c)

CNAME

d)

MX

114.

You can ping 8.8.8.8 but not example.com. Which command directly tests DNS name resolution on Windows?

a)

ping -t example.com

b)

ipconfig /flushdns

c)

nslookup example.com

d)

tracert example.com

115.

Which Wi‑Fi security is strongest for SOHO if available?

a)

WPA3‑Personal (SAE)

b)

WEP

c)

Open network

d)

WPA2‑PSK with TKIP

116.

What does NAT/PAT accomplish at a SOHO router?

a)

Assigns public IPs to all devices

b)

Translates many private IP/ports to a single public IP

c)

Blocks all inbound traffic by default

d)

Provides DHCP service only

117.

A user needs to access home devices from the internet securely. What is the best approach?

a)

Port‑forward all services to internal hosts

b)

Create a VPN on the router and connect remotely

c)

Enable UPnP for every device

d)

Disable the firewall to simplify access

118.

Which DNS record directs email delivery to the correct servers?

a)

MX

b)

SRV

c)

PTR

d)

AAAA

119.

A switch port should instantly come up for a user device without Spanning Tree delay. Which port feature should be used?

a)

Trunk mode

b)

PortFast/Edge port

c)

Port Security

d)

LACP

120.

Which 2.4 GHz channel plan avoids overlap for 20 MHz channels?

a)

1, 6, 11

b)

2, 7, 10

c)

3, 6, 9

d)

Auto channel selection

121.

Which topology provides redundant Layer 3 paths between sites?

a)

Bus topology

b)

Full‑mesh VPNs

c)

Hub‑and‑spoke without redundancy

d)

Power‑line communication ring

122.

Which tool verifies Ethernet pair mapping and detects split pairs?

a)

Digital multimeter

b)

Cable certifier/mapper

c)

Loopback plug only

d)

Wi‑Fi analyzer

123.

What is the default HTTPS port?

a)

80

b)

21

c)

443

d)

53

124.

A user on Wi‑Fi sees excellent RSSI but very low throughput in a crowded office. What is the likely cause?

a)

Damaged antenna

b)

High airtime contention and CCI/ACI

c)

DHCP lease failure

d)

Wrong passphrase

125.

Which IPv4 address is non‑routable on the public internet?

a)

8.8.8.8

b)

172.20.5.5

c)

54.23.10.1

d)

1.1.1.1

126.

Which component regulates CPU core voltage on a motherboard?

a)

CMOS battery

b)

VRM (voltage regulator module)

c)

SATA controller

d)

Heat sink

127.

Which expansion slot is used by most modern GPUs?

a)

AGP

b)

PCIe x16

c)

Conventional PCI

d)

M.2

128.

Which storage option provides the highest IOPS for small random reads/writes?

a)

7200 RPM HDD

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe SSD (PCIe)

d)

USB flash drive

129.

Which RAID level provides striping with no redundancy?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 10

130.

In a laser printer, which component holds the electrostatic image?

a)

Fuser unit

b)

Drum/OPC

c)

Transfer roller

d)

Pickup roller

131.

Which connector provides SATA power?

a)

4‑pin Molex

b)

15‑pin flat SATA power connector

c)

7‑pin SATA data connector

d)

USB power

132.

A workstation requires ECC memory. Which scenario is appropriate?

a)

Gaming laptop

b)

Mission‑critical server or workstation platform that supports ECC

c)

Single‑board computer (e.g., small SBC)

d)

Consumer tablet

133.

Which monitor connector can carry high‑refresh video and supports daisy‑chaining on many models?

a)

HDMI

b)

DVI

c)

DisplayPort

d)

VGA

134.

A user wants the quietest small office PC. Which combination helps most?

a)

Small high‑RPM fans with HDD

b)

Large slow‑RPM fans plus NVMe SSD and good airflow

c)

No fans and fully sealed case

d)

Liquid cooling with a loud pump

135.

Which battery type is standard in laptops and requires careful handling if swollen?

a)

NiCd

b)

Li‑ion

c)

Lead‑acid

d)

Alkaline

136.

A cable must be run through an air‑handling plenum. Which cable type should be used?

a)

Standard PVC‑jacketed cable

b)

Plenum‑rated (CMP) cable

c)

Direct‑burial outdoor cable

d)

Armored fiber only

137.

Which port is typically used for digital audio and video from a PC to a monitor with HDCP support?

a)

VGA

b)

HDMI

c)

RS‑232

d)

USB‑A

138.

A NAS requires very fast network links for large file transfers. Which is the best choice?

a)

100BASE‑TX

b)

1000BASE‑T

c)

10GBASE‑T

d)

10BASE‑T

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