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PRACTICE TEST 2 CompTIA A+ (Core 1)

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A modern ultrabook’s display backlight fails, but the LCD still shows a faint image with a flashlight. Which component is most likely at fault?

a)

Inverter board

b)

LED backlight strip(s)

c)

GPU

d)

Display cable is always the cause

2.

A laptop lid switch/sensor is faulty. What symptom is most likely?

a)

Touchpad stops working

b)

Battery will not charge

c)

System sleeps or turns off the display unexpectedly

d)

Speakers produce static

3.

Which interface provides the highest throughput for an external SSD on a modern laptop?

a)

USB 2.0 Type-A

b)

USB 3.2 Gen 1 (5 Gbps)

c)

USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 (20 Gbps)

d)

Micro-USB

4.

Which mobile technology allows a phone to act as a proximity credential for door access with a tap?

a)

Bluetooth BR/EDR

b)

NFC

c)

Wi-Fi Direct

d)

Infrared

5.

A user wants email to stay synchronized across phone, laptop, and webmail with server-side folders. Which protocol suits best?

a)

POP3

b)

IMAP4

c)

SMTP

d)

SNMP

6.

A tablet supports DisplayPort Alternate Mode. What does this enable via a single USB-C cable?

a)

Charging only

b)

Video output to a monitor and possibly USB data

c)

Only Ethernet

d)

Only audio output

7.

You’re selecting storage for a budget Android tablet. Which option is soldered and not user-replaceable?

a)

NVMe M.2

b)

SATA SSD

c)

eMMC

d)

microSD card

8.

Which iOS/Android setting most directly reduces cellular data usage while traveling?

a)

Airplane mode on permanently

b)

Low power mode

c)

Disable background app refresh on cellular

d)

Increase screen brightness

9.

A laptop with a TPM 2.0 chip primarily benefits which security feature?

a)

Screen auto-rotation

b)

Full-disk encryption key protection

c)

Faster Wi-Fi roaming

d)

Better battery calibration

10.

Which item is commonly field-replaceable on many business laptops?

a)

Soldered CPU

b)

Soldered Wi-Fi module

c)

SO-DIMM memory (when socketed)

d)

Embedded eMMC

11.

A user wants to cast their phone screen wirelessly to a TV without using Wi-Fi network infrastructure. Which feature fits?

a)

Wi-Fi Direct / Miracast

b)

802.1X

c)

WPA3-Enterprise

d)

WPS

12.

Which wireless technology is ideal for wearables (heart-rate monitor) that need low power consumption?

a)

Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE)

b)

NFC

c)

Zigbee always

d)

802.11ac

13.

A mobile device in Airplane Mode still needs to use Bluetooth headphones. What should the user do?

a)

Nothing—Bluetooth cannot be used

b)

Turn on Wi-Fi instead

c)

Manually re-enable Bluetooth while Airplane Mode is on

d)

Enable GPS

14.

A 2-in-1 convertible’s keyboard and touchpad disable automatically when the screen flips to tablet mode. Which component manages this?

a)

GPU

b)

Hall/gyro sensors with OS mode switch

c)

TPM

d)

CMOS battery

15.

A user reports yellow tint on an OLED phone at low brightness. What is a likely explanation?

a)

Printer calibration issue

b)

Night Shift/Blue light filter enabled

c)

VPN misconfiguration

d)

Low battery health

16.

Which mobile device accessory provides wired video, USB, and power via a single connection?

a)

Port replicator with VGA only

b)

USB-C dock with Power Delivery

c)

3.5 mm audio splitter

d)

OTG cable only

17.

A laptop’s integrated webcam shows as “Unknown device” in Device Manager. First best step?

a)

Replace the motherboard

b)

Install or update chipset/camera drivers from OEM

c)

Clear the CMOS

d)

Replace the LCD panel

18.

A phone supports eSIM. Which is a practical benefit?

a)

Increased storage capacity

b)

Multiple carrier profiles without swapping physical cards

c)

Stronger Wi-Fi signal

d)

Longer battery life guaranteed

19.

Which device reduces collision domains and forwards frames based on MAC address?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Modem

20.

A SOHO cable modem typically uses which connector type?

a)

RJ-45

b)

RJ-11

c)

F-type coaxial

d)

LC

21.

Which 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi channel plan minimizes overlap (20 MHz channels)?

a)

1, 4, 7

b)

1, 6, 11

c)

2, 7, 10

d)

3, 6, 9

22.

In IPv4, which mask corresponds to a /26 network?

a)

255.255.255.128

b)

255.255.255.192

c)

255.255.255.224

d)

255.255.255.240

23.

A user can browse by IP but not by hostnames. Which tool directly tests name resolution?

a)

ping only

b)

ipconfig /all

c)

nslookup or dig

d)

tracert

24.

Which protocol secures remote command-line access by default?

a)

Telnet

b)

SSH

c)

TFTP

d)

FTP

25.

Which records map domain email routing to the correct mail servers?

a)

A

b)

AAAA

c)

MX

d)

CNAME

26.

Which cable type is most resistant to EMI in high-interference environments?

a)

UTP

b)

STP/FTP (shielded twisted pair)

c)

PVC riser

27.

Which standard provides up to 30 W per port over Ethernet?

a)

802.3af (PoE)

b)

802.3at (PoE+)

c)

802.3bt Type 4

d)

802.11ac

28.

Which best practice improves security on a home router’s guest SSID?

a)

Same VLAN as main LAN

b)

Disable DHCP on guest

c)

Client isolation and separate VLAN/subnet

d)

Use WEP for compatibility

29.

Which service automatically assigns IP addresses, mask, gateway, and DNS to clients?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

NTP

d)

RADIUS

30.

Which WAN technology most commonly provides high-speed internet over coax in homes?

a)

xDSL

b)

DOCSIS (cable)

c)

POTS

d)

T1

31.

An IPv6 address starting with fe80: is what type?

a)

Global unicast

b)

Unique local

c)

Link-local

d)

Multicast

32.

Which technology allows multiple VLANs over one physical trunk link?

a)

PoE

b)

802.1Q

c)

STP

d)

QoS

33.

Which fiber type and wavelength are commonly used for short-range (LAN) connections?

a)

Single-mode, 1310 nm

b)

Multimode, 850 nm

c)

Single-mode, 1550 nm

d)

Multimode, 1550 nm

34.

You can ping your default gateway but not internet hosts by name or IP. Most likely issue?

a)

Local DNS cache

b)

Upstream ISP outage or edge routing problem

c)

NIC driver

d)

Duplicate IP on LAN

35.

Which port is used for Secure IMAP (IMAPS) by default?

a)

143

b)

993

c)

110

d)

995

36.

A user claims Wi‑Fi drops when the microwave is on. Which band is likely affected?

a)

5 GHz

b)

6 GHz

c)

2.4 GHz

d)

Sub‑GHz 900 MHz

37.

Which connector powers a modern CPU on the motherboard?

a)

6‑pin PCIe

b)

8‑pin EPS12V (or 4+4)

c)

24‑pin ATX main

d)

Molex 4‑pin

38.

Which technology monitors drive health and can warn of imminent HDD failure?

a)

TRIM

b)

SMART

c)

RAID 0

d)

NTFS

39.

Which storage interface offers the lowest latency in desktops today?

a)

SATA HDD

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe (PCIe) SSD

d)

USB flash drive

40.

Which RAID level provides striping with parity and can survive a single disk failure?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 10 only

41.

During a laser printing cycle, which step bonds toner to paper?

a)

Charging

b)

Developing

c)

Fusing

d)

Transfer

42.

Which connector is used for SATA power?

a)

7‑pin L‑shaped

b)

15‑pin flat power

c)

8‑pin EPS

d)

6‑pin PCIe

43.

A small office needs centralized storage accessible via SMB and RAID. Best device?

a)

DAS enclosure

b)

NAS appliance

c)

USB hub

d)

KVM switch

44.

Which display spec reflects how many pixels are shown per second at a given refresh?

a)

Contrast ratio

b)

Response time

c)

Resolution × refresh rate (bandwidth)

d)

Dot pitch only

45.

Which form factor is smallest among the options?

a)

ATX

b)

Micro‑ATX

c)

Mini‑ITX

d)

E‑ATX

46.

Which connector is typically used for fiber with a push‑pull latch and small form factor?

a)

SC

b)

ST

c)

LC

d)

BNC

47.

A user needs color prints with no smearing on glossy photo paper at home. Which printer type is best?

a)

Dot‑matrix

b)

Inkjet photo printer with pigment inks and proper paper

c)

Thermal transfer labeler

d)

Line printer

48.

Which USB version first standardized USB‑C and higher power delivery options?

a)

USB 2.0

b)

USB 3.0

c)

USB 3.1/3.2 USB‑C with PD (context)

d)

USB 1.1

49.

A motherboard supports UEFI Secure Boot. What is the goal?

a)

Faster boot

b)

Prevent unauthorized bootloaders from running

c)

Enable legacy BIOS modes

d)

Support only MBR disks

50.

Which expansion slot is used by most modern discrete GPUs?

a)

PCIe x16

b)

PCIe x1

c)

PCI

d)

AGP

51.

Which characteristic is true of DDR5 compared to DDR4?

a)

Fewer pins per DIMM

b)

Lower typical operating voltage and on‑module PMIC

c)

Always lower bandwidth

d)

Not used in desktops

52.

Which cable rating is appropriate for air‑handling spaces (ceiling plenum)?

a)

PVC only

b)

Riser (CMR)

c)

Plenum‑rated (CMP)

d)

Any UTP is fine

53.

Which technology enables using one cable for video, data, and power to a monitor?

a)

VGA

b)

DisplayPort 1.4 only

c)

USB‑C with DP Alt Mode and Power Delivery

d)

DVI‑D

54.

A user needs to connect a legacy parallel printer to a modern PC. Which adapter is most appropriate?

a)

USB‑to‑Parallel adapter

b)

VGA‑to‑Parallel

c)

RJ‑45‑to‑Parallel

d)

HDMI‑to‑Parallel

55.

A Type 2 hypervisor is best described as:

a)

Bare‑metal hypervisor

b)

Container runtime

c)

Application that runs on top of a host OS

d)

Microkernel

56.

Which VM networking option gives the VM an IP on the same LAN as the host, via the same DHCP server?

a)

NAT

b)

Host‑only

c)

Bridged

d)

Loopback

57.

Which cloud service model provides the customer with VMs, storage, and networks, but not the OS inside?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

DBaaS only

58.

A key cloud trait where usage is tracked and billed by consumption is:

a)

Resource pooling

b)

Measured service

c)

Multitenancy

d)

Vertical scaling

59.

A team spins up many test VMs and forgets to delete them, increasing costs. This is:

a)

Cloud bursting

b)

VM sprawl

c)

Auto‑scaling

d)

Serverless

60.

Before patching a VM, which step enables a quick rollback?

a)

Exporting logs

b)

Taking a snapshot

c)

Changing to NAT mode

d)

Increasing vCPU count

61.

Which solution is best for low-cost desktops that rely on a server for apps via VDI?

a)

Thick clients with dedicated GPUs

b)

Thin clients that connect to a VDI broker

c)

Tablets only

d)

Gaming PCs

62.

Which term describes automatic scaling of instances based on CPU or network thresholds?

a)

Static provisioning

b)

Auto-scaling

c)

Overprovisioning

d)

Warm standby only

63.

In SaaS, who is responsible for patching the application?

a)

Customer IT team

b)

SaaS provider

c)

End users

d)

ISP

64.

Which best describes hybrid cloud?

a)

Multiple public clouds only

b)

On‑prem plus public cloud integrated for workloads

c)

One big private cloud only

d)

Community cloud only

65.

Containers differ from VMs because containers:

a)

Include their own kernels

b)

Share the host kernel and package apps plus dependencies

c)

Require Type 1 hypervisors

d)

Cannot be orchestrated

66.

Which storage approach makes instant clones practical in virtualization?

a)

Tape backups

b)

Copy‑on‑write snapshots

c)

DAS only

d)

Optical media

67.

A developer needs a managed runtime and database without server maintenance. Choose:

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

Colo

68.

Which resource is most commonly exhausted first on small lab hosts running multiple VMs?

a)

Optical drive

b)

RAM

c)

USB ports

d)

CMOS battery

69.

Which licensing or feature is needed to run nested virtualization on many platforms?

a)

None—always enabled

b)

CPU virtualization extensions (Intel VT‑x/AMD‑V) and host support

c)

Extra RAM only

d)

GPU passthrough only

70.

Which cloud concept lets you move workloads to another region during an outage?

a)

Elastic IP

b)

Geo‑redundancy or multi‑region deployment

c)

NAT gateway

d)

Private DNS

71.

A small company wants email and collaboration with minimal admin overhead. Best fit?

a)

On‑prem Exchange

b)

SaaS suite (email, calendar, storage)

c)

PaaS mail relay

d)

IaaS VM with self‑installed mail server

72.

Which VM disk type consumes space as it grows rather than using full capacity up front?

a)

Thick‑provisioned eager zeroed

b)

Thin‑provisioned

c)

Raw device mapping

d)

ISO image

73.

A desktop powers on; fans spin; no display; motherboard shows a DRAM debug LED. First action?

a)

Reinstall Windows

b)

Reseat or try one RAM stick and slots per QVL

c)

Replace PSU immediately

d)

Update GPU drivers

74.

A system randomly restarts under GPU load. Which is most likely?

a)

DHCP issue

b)

Undersized or failing PSU or GPU power cable not seated

c)

Wrong VLAN

d)

DNS cache

75.

After replacing a CPU, the system powers on for 2 seconds and shuts off. Likely cause?

a)

Malware

b)

Heatsink not seated or CPU fan not plugged into CPU_FAN header

c)

Old SSD firmware

d)

Monitor input wrong

76.

Users report paper jams in the same printer spot. What should you inspect first?

a)

Spooler service

b)

Worn pickup rollers or dirty paper path

c)

Printer driver version

d)

Toner level only

77.

A laser printer shows toner flaking or rubbing off pages. Likely fix?

a)

Replace fuser assembly

b)

Replace pickup rollers

c)

Clean ink nozzles

d)

Replace transfer belt only

78.

A user has a dim laptop screen after replacing the LCD. External monitor works. Likely cause?

a)

Wrong DNS

b)

Backlight cable or LED backlight issue in the new panel

c)

Faulty PSU

d)

Incorrect printer driver

79.

A PC gets 169.254.x.x after moving to a new floor. What should you check first?

a)

DHCP scope or relay on that VLAN

b)

Browser cache

c)

Local hosts file

d)

GPU temperature

80.

Intermittent network errors occur only when vacuum cleaners run. Most likely cause?

a)

DNS poisoning

b)

EMI affecting unshielded or poorly run cables

c)

DNS round‑robin

d)

STP recalculation

81.

A user cannot access a network share by name, but can by IP. Which is likely?

a)

DHCP failure

b)

DNS misconfiguration or stale records

c)

VLAN mismatch

d)

Power supply issue

82.

A new M.2 NVMe SSD is installed; now one SATA port is disabled. Why?

a)

BIOS password set

b)

Chipset lane sharing disables a SATA port when specific M.2 slots are used

c)

Faulty PSU

d)

IPv6 conflict

83.

A monitor shows “Out of Range” after changing resolution. Quick remedy?

a)

Boot to Safe Mode or low‑resolution and set a supported mode

b)

Replace CPU

c)

Rebuild BCD

d)

Clear DNS cache

84.

A RAID 5 array reports degraded status. Best next step?

a)

Continue normal operations for weeks

b)

Replace the failed disk with the correct type and rebuild

c)

Delete the array and restore from backup

d)

Add a tape drive

85.

Laptop throttles heavily; temps spike to 95°C under light load. First best action?

a)

Disable fans

b)

Clean dust, verify fan operation, repaste heatsink if needed

c)

Increase CPU voltage

d)

Replace display

86.

Network printer is pingable but Windows says “Offline.” First step?

a)

Restart Print Spooler and verify TCP/IP port points to correct IP or hostname

b)

Replace toner

c)

Change SSID

d)

Reinstall NIC drivers on all PCs

87.

You need to identify which wall jack maps to an unlabeled patch panel port. Tool?

a)

OTDR

b)

Tone generator and probe

c)

Loopback plug

d)

Cable crimper only

88.

Fiber link alarms after a rack move. What’s the most common culprit?

a)

DHCP exhaustion

b)

Dirty connectors or too‑tight bend radius

c)

SSID mismatch

d)

Incorrect VLAN tagging

89.

A PoE camera won’t power on at one port but works elsewhere. Likely cause?

a)

DNS down

b)

Non‑PoE port or PoE disabled on the interface

c)

Wrong HDMI cable

d)

DHCP option 43 missing

90.

After a prolonged power outage, Windows clients can’t log into a domain service due to time skew. Fix?

a)

Change to static IPs

b)

Restore NTP sync (time service) and resync clocks

c)

Disable DNSSEC

d)

Replace switches

91.

A modern ultrabook’s display backlight fails, but the LCD still shows a faint image with a flashlight. Which component is most likely at fault?

a)

Inverter (CCFL) board

b)

LED backlight strips

c)

LCD panel glass

d)

GPU/graphics processor

92.

A laptop lid switch/sensor is faulty. What symptom is most likely?

a)

Battery drains rapidly while charging

b)

System sleeps or turns off the display unexpectedly

c)

Wi-Fi disconnects when the lid moves

d)

Keyboard stops responding

93.

Which interface provides the highest throughput for an external SSD on a modern laptop?

a)

USB 3.0 (5 Gbps)

b)

Thunderbolt 2 (20 Gbps)

c)

USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 (20 Gbps)

d)

SATA III (6 Gbps)

94.

Which mobile technology allows a phone to act as a proximity credential for door access with a tap?

a)

RFID (low-frequency badges)

b)

NFC

c)

Infrared blaster

d)

Bluetooth Classic

95.

A user wants email to stay synchronized across phone, laptop, and webmail with server-side folders. Which protocol suits best?

a)

POP3

b)

IMAP4

c)

SMTP

d)

Exchange ActiveSync

96.

A tablet supports DisplayPort Alternate Mode. What does this enable via a single USB‑C cable?

a)

Charging only

b)

Video output to a monitor and possibly USB data

c)

Ethernet networking only

d)

Audio output only

97.

You’re selecting storage for a budget Android tablet. Which option is soldered and not user‑replaceable?

a)

microSD card

b)

SATA SSD

c)

eMMC

d)

NVMe drive

98.

Which iOS/Android setting most directly reduces cellular data usage while traveling?

a)

Enable tethering

b)

Disable Wi‑Fi

c)

Disable background app refresh on cellular

d)

Turn off GPS location

99.

A laptop with a TPM 2.0 chip primarily benefits which security feature?

a)

Password expiration policies

b)

Full‑disk encryption key protection

c)

Remote desktop authentication

d)

Antivirus scanning

100.

Which item is commonly field‑replaceable on many business laptops?

a)

Soldered CPU

b)

M.2 NVMe drive (soldered)

c)

SO‑DIMM memory (when socketed)

d)

Integrated Wi‑Fi/Bluetooth module (soldered)

101.

A user wants to cast their phone screen wirelessly to a TV without Wi‑Fi infrastructure. Which feature fits?

a)

Wi‑Fi Direct / Miracast

b)

AirPlay via AP

c)

Bluetooth file transfer

d)

DLNA over LAN

102.

Which wireless technology is ideal for wearables needing low power consumption?

a)

Zigbee

b)

Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE)

c)

NFC

d)

Bluetooth Classic

103.

A mobile device in Airplane Mode still needs Bluetooth headphones. What should the user do?

a)

Disable all radios again

b)

Use wired headphones only

c)

Manually re‑enable Bluetooth while Airplane Mode is on

d)

Turn on hotspot

104.

A 2‑in‑1 convertible disables keyboard/touchpad in tablet mode. Which component manages this?

a)

Touch controller

b)

Hall/gyro sensors with OS mode switch

c)

Battery controller

d)

Wi‑Fi radio

105.

A user reports yellow tint on an OLED phone at low brightness. What is a likely explanation?

a)

Hardware OLED failure

b)

Night Shift/Blue light filter enabled

c)

Damaged HDMI cable

d)

Dirty screen protector

106.

Which accessory provides wired video, USB, and power via a single connection?

a)

USB‑A hub

b)

USB‑C dock with Power Delivery

c)

HDMI splitter

d)

Thunderbolt 1 adapter without power

107.

A laptop webcam shows as “Unknown device” in Device Manager. First best step?

a)

Replace the webcam

b)

Install or update chipset/camera drivers from OEM

c)

Disable the USB controller

d)

Reset BIOS to defaults

108.

A phone supports eSIM. Which is a practical benefit?

a)

Higher camera resolution

b)

Multiple carrier profiles without swapping physical cards

c)

Longer battery life by default

d)

Greater storage capacity

109.

Which device reduces collision domains and forwards frames based on MAC address?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Bridge modem

110.

A SOHO cable modem typically uses which connector type?

a)

RJ45

b)

BNC

c)

F‑type coaxial

d)

LC fiber

111.

Which 2.4 GHz Wi‑Fi channel plan minimizes overlap (20 MHz)?

a)

2, 7, 12

b)

1, 6, 11

c)

3, 8, 13

d)

4, 5, 9

112.

In IPv4, which mask corresponds to a /26 network?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.255.255.128

c)

255.255.255.192

d)

255.255.255.224

113.

A user can browse by IP but not by hostnames. Which tool directly tests name resolution?

a)

ping

b)

nslookup or dig

c)

traceroute

d)

telnet

114.

Which protocol secures remote command‑line access by default?

a)

Telnet

b)

SSH

c)

RDP

d)

HTTP

115.

Which records map domain email routing to the correct mail servers?

a)

A

b)

CNAME

c)

MX

d)

TXT

116.

Which cable type is most resistant to EMI in high‑interference environments?

a)

UTP (unshielded twisted pair)

b)

STP/FTP (shielded twisted pair)

c)

Coax RG‑59

d)

Plenum fiber only

117.

Which standard provides up to 30 W per port over Ethernet?

a)

802.3af (PoE)

b)

802.3at (PoE+)

c)

802.3bt (PoE++)

d)

802.11ac

118.

Which best practice improves security on a home router’s guest SSID?

a)

Enable WEP encryption

b)

Client isolation and separate VLAN/subnet

c)

Use a shared admin password for guests

d)

Disable DHCP

119.

Which service automatically assigns IP address, mask, gateway, and DNS to clients?

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

NTP

d)

SNMP

120.

Which WAN technology most commonly provides high‑speed internet over coax in homes?

a)

xDSL

b)

DOCSIS (cable)

c)

Satellite Ku‑band

d)

ISDN

121.

An IPv6 address starting with fe80: is what type?

a)

Global unicast

b)

Link‑local

c)

Unique local

d)

Multicast

122.

Which technology allows multiple VLANs over one physical trunk link?

a)

Spanning Tree

b)

802.1Q

c)

LACP

d)

VRRP

123.

Which fiber type and wavelength are common for short‑range LAN links?

a)

Single‑mode, 1310 nm

b)

Multimode, 850 nm

c)

Multimode, 1550 nm

d)

Single‑mode, 850 nm

124.

You can ping your default gateway but not internet hosts by name or IP. Most likely issue?

a)

LAN switch failure

b)

Upstream ISP outage or edge routing problem

c)

Incorrect default gateway on client

d)

Wi‑Fi password mismatch

125.

Which port is used for Secure IMAP (IMAPS) by default?

a)

143

b)

993

c)

995

d)

110

126.

Wi‑Fi drops when the microwave is on. Which band is likely affected?

a)

5 GHz

b)

900 MHz

c)

2.4 GHz

d)

6 GHz

127.

Which connector powers a modern CPU on the motherboard?

a)

24‑pin ATX

b)

8‑pin EPS12V (or 4+4)

c)

Molex 4‑pin

d)

PCIe 6‑pin

128.

Which technology monitors drive health for imminent HDD failure?

a)

TRIM

b)

SMART

c)

RAID 1

d)

BitLocker

129.

Which storage interface offers the lowest latency in desktops today?

a)

SATA HDD

b)

SATA SSD

c)

NVMe (PCIe) SSD

d)

USB 3.0 external HDD

130.

Which RAID level provides striping with parity and survives one disk failure?

a)

RAID 0

b)

RAID 1

c)

RAID 5

d)

RAID 10

131.

During a laser printing cycle, which step bonds toner to paper?

a)

Charging

b)

Fusing

c)

Developing

d)

Transfer

132.

Which connector is used for SATA power?

a)

7‑pin flat power

b)

15‑pin flat power

c)

Molex 4‑pin

d)

8‑pin EPS

133.

A small office needs centralized storage via SMB and RAID. Best device?

a)

Direct‑attached USB drive

b)

NAS appliance

c)

SAN over Fibre Channel

d)

Cloud object storage only

134.

Which display spec reflects how many pixels are shown per second at a given refresh?

a)

Bit depth only

b)

Resolution × refresh rate (bandwidth)

c)

Panel size (inches)

d)

Viewing angle

135.

Which form factor is smallest among the options?

a)

ATX

b)

Micro‑ATX

c)

Mini‑ITX

d)

E‑ATX

136.

Which connector is used for fiber with a small push‑pull latch?

a)

SC

b)

ST

c)

LC

d)

RJ45

137.

A user needs color prints with no smearing on glossy photo paper at home. Which printer type is best?

a)

Laser printer with toner

b)

Inkjet photo printer with pigment inks and proper paper

c)

Thermal transfer printer

d)

Dot‑matrix printer

138.

Which USB version first standardized USB‑C and higher power delivery options?

a)

USB 3.0/USB‑A only

b)

USB 3.1/3.2 era (USB‑C with PD)

c)

USB 2.0

d)

USB4 only

139.

A motherboard supports UEFI Secure Boot. What is the goal?

a)

Speed up POST

b)

Prevent unauthorized bootloaders from running

c)

Enable legacy BIOS

d)

Overclock the CPU

140.

Which expansion slot is used by most modern discrete GPUs?

a)

PCIe x1

b)

PCIe x4

c)

PCIe x16

d)

AGP

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