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Earthquake

Total questions: 15

Worksheet time: 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A city plans new infrastructure across a mapped fault. Using the concept of tectonic-related earthquakes, which plan best reduces seismic risk while maintaining connectivity?

a)

Build a rigid bridge directly over the mapped fault trace

b)

Shift the route to straddle the fault with fixed supports

c)

Reroute critical lifelines away from the fault zone entirely

d)

Place heavy buildings to clamp both sides of the fault

2.

Two regions experience ground shaking of similar intensity. Region A lies within a long, deep crustal zone where opposing blocks have moved but little surface evidence exists. Region B is far from any mapped crustal discontinuities. Which inference is most consistent with fault characteristics?

a)

Region A likely overlies a concealed but active fault zone

b)

Region B likely overlies a concealed but active fault zone

c)

Neither region could be affected by tectonic ground motion

d)

Both regions are equally likely to sit on a major fault

3.

A coastal city sits on loose, water-saturated sand near a river mouth. An offshore earthquake triggers strong shaking followed by rapid drawdown and a series of long-period waves. As the city’s emergency manager, which pair of hazards should you prioritize for immediate response planning to minimize life safety risk?

a)

Hazardous materials release at inland warehouses

b)

Seiche oscillations in offshore deep ocean

c)

Liquefaction and tsunami inundation at low-lying areas

d)

Fault rupture and fire outbreaks across suburbs

4.

Two neighboring districts experienced the same earthquake. District A, on competent bedrock, reports structural damage from shaking but little permanent ground deformation. District B, on reclaimed bay fill, shows tilted buildings and sand boils despite similar peak ground acceleration. Which reasoning best explains the contrasting outcomes and the hazard that dominated District B?

a)

Different site conditions, dominated by liquefaction in District B

b)

Different evacuation rates, dominated by dam failure in District B

c)

Different building ages, dominated by fault rupture in District B

d)

Different epicentral distances, dominated by seiche in District B

5.

A city lies 8 km from a fault rupture. A stocky 4‑story reinforced concrete office and a slender 30‑story steel moment‑frame tower stand on the same stiff rock site. For a brief, high‑frequency near‑field shaking pulse, which structure is more likely to experience larger story drifts, and why?

a)

The 4‑story office, longer period amplifies short pulses

b)

The 4‑story office, resonance with high‑frequency pulse

c)

The 30‑story tower, longer period filters short pulses

d)

The 30‑story tower, resonance with high‑frequency pulse

6.

A municipality is evaluating retrofits for a 4‑story soft‑story apartment building with open ground‑floor parking that was damaged in past earthquakes. Which strategy best targets the failure mechanism evident in the images of similar buildings?

a)

Add base isolators under all corner columns only

b)

Stiffen and strengthen the weak first story frame

c)

Replace all windows with laminated glazing

d)

Increase roof mass to shift the building period

7.

Two identical towers are shown; the right tower includes a red mass near the roof labeled tuned mass damper. If both towers experience the same earthquake, which outcome best explains how the damper changes the tower’s response, and why?

a)

Roof acceleration increases because damper stores more energy

b)

Peak sway decreases because added mass shifts resonance

c)

Peak sway increases because added mass amplifies resonance

d)

Base shear increases because damper locks the roof mass

8.

A small house is shown with text not tied to foundation, and a larger house is labeled lacks shear strength. For a retrofit budget that covers only one improvement per house, which pairing most reduces collapse risk during lateral shaking, and why?

a)

Install base isolators on small house; add windows to large house

b)

Add heavier roof to small house; brace chimneys on large house

c)

Remove porch on small house; replace siding on large house

d)

Anchor small house to foundation; add shear walls to large house

9.

A map shows a transform fault where plates have been locked by friction and asperities for decades. Strain has built up in the crust until resistance is overcome and sudden slip occurs. Which explanation best interprets the energy release mechanism at this site?

a)

Gradual creep dissipates stress without elastic rebound

b)

Thermal expansion drives plates without mantle convection

c)

Elastic rebound releases stored strain as seismic energy

d)

Hydrostatic pressure pushes plates apart without friction

10.

Two stations record an earthquake. Station A lies directly above the underground origin of rupture, while Station B lies 150 km away along the surface. Which locations are correctly identified for the rupture origin and the surface point above it?

a)

Epicenter below Station B, hypocenter above Station B

b)

Epicenter at Station A, hypocenter below Station A

c)

Hypocenter at Station A, epicenter at Station B

d)

Hypocenter at Station B, epicenter near Station A

11.

A city lies eight kilometers from an earthquake’s epicenter. The rupture length is ten kilometers and the rupture width is six kilometers. Using the shorter source dimension to define zones, which spatial category best describes the city’s location?

a)

Near-field, because distance is within six kilometers

b)

Far-field, because distance exceeds ten kilometers

c)

Near-field, because distance is within ten kilometers

d)

Far-field, because distance exceeds six kilometers

12.

Two seismometers record the same earthquake at equal distances from the source. Station A detects a push–pull disturbance first, followed by a shear motion at right angles. Station B only shows the push–pull signal and no later shear arrival. Which explanation best fits the observations?

a)

Station B is on rock allowing only primary waves to speed up

b)

Station B is on material that does not transmit shear waves

c)

Station A is closer so secondary waves arrive more clearly

d)

Station A is on soil that blocks fast compressional waves

13.

A seismic station records strong surface motion that is slower than P and S waves and confined near the Earth’s surface. The displacement trace shows particles moving horizontally, perpendicular to the wave’s travel direction. Which wave best explains these observations?

a)

Body P wave with longitudinal compression

b)

Rayleigh wave with retrograde rolling motion

c)

Love wave with horizontal shear motion

d)

Body S wave with vertical shear motion

14.

An engineer must design a foundation to withstand surface waves causing a rolling path where a marked pebble would move forward, then down, then back, then up as the disturbance passes. Which wave model should be prioritized in the analysis?

a)

Love wave producing side-to-side motion

b)

Compressional P wave producing axial motion

c)

Rayleigh wave producing circular motion

d)

Shear S wave producing transverse motion

15.

The Rayleigh-wave schematic shows particles moving in a rolling circular path while the wave propagates horizontally. If a building sits on rock during such motion, which structural response is most likely and why?

a)

Swaying due to vertical–horizontal coupling of Rayleigh motion

b)

No movement because energy remains at depth in the crust

c)

Pure vertical bouncing because Rayleigh motion is compressional

d)

Twisting only because shear waves cause rotational torque