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Nowak Chapter 24-28

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is the least controversial nonpharmacologic behavior management approach?

a)

Positive reinforcement

b)

Distraction

c)

Modeling

d)

TSD

2.

What consent is recommended when providing passive protective stabilization?            

a)

Verbal

b)

Written

c)

Informed 

3.

What are the four specific elements of memory restructuring?

 

a)

Observation, verbalization, abstract examples, sense of worth

b)

Visual reminder, verbalization, concrete examples, sense of accomplishment

c)

Direct instruction, verbalization, concrete examples, sense of self-worth

d)

Vocal reminder, verbalization, abstract examples, sense of accomplishment

4.

What is fundamental in providing dentistry for children?

a)

Adequate pain management

b)

TSD

c)

Temperament

d)

Parenting style

5.

What is the correct correlation between parenting style and child behavior?

a)

Authoritarian parenting and decreased anxiety

b)

Permissive parenting and positive behavior

c)

Authoritarian parenting and increased anxiety

d)

Authoritative parenting style and negative behavior

6.

Parental presence is MOST helpful when:

a)

Parents are overly controlling

b)

The child has separation anxiety

c)

The child is uncommunicative

d)

The parent refuses to leave

7.

Which factor most strongly predicts a child’s response to behavior guidance techniques?

a)

Parent socioeconomic status

b)

Parent’s perceived dental anxiety

c)

Length of the appointment

d)

Age of the child alone

8.

In the Frankl Behavior Rating Scale, a child who is “reluctant but follows directions with some reassurance” is rated:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

9.

Which behavior guidance technique is considered advanced rather than basic?

a)

Tell-Show-Do

b)

Distraction

c)

Voice control

d)

Papoose

10.

The following description describes what type of parenting style? “High parental responsiveness and high demand for obedience, but shows warmth and involvement”

a)

Authoritative parent      

b)

Permissive Parent   

c)

Authoritarian parent      

d)

Loving Parent

11.

Gingival enlargement is most likely found with which medications? 

a)

Beta Blockers  

b)

Nsaids 

c)

Ca Channel blockers 

d)

Opioids 

12.

Which of the following is associated with severe periodontitis and hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles of feet? 

a)

Papillon- Lefevre Syndrome 

b)

Autism 

c)

Guillain-Bare Syndrome 

d)

None of the above 

13.

Localized Aggressive Periodontitis in the Permanent Dentition​ is typically characterized by the loss of attachment and bone around which permanent teeth? 

  

a)

Second molars and canines 

b)

First molars and incisors 

c)

First molars and first premolars 

d)

Incisors and canines.   

14.

Which antibiotic is typically used for Localized Aggressive Periodontitis in the Permanent Dentition? 

a)

Tetracyclines 

b)

Cephalosporins 

c)

Rifampin  

d)

Metronidazole 

15.

Which of the systemic conditions are associated with periodontal disease? 

a)

Diabetes 

b)

Down syndrome  

c)

Neutropenia 

d)

All the above 

16.
  1. The peak prevalence of puberty-associated gingivitis occurs at what age?

a)

Girls- 9 yrs, Boys-11 yrs

b)

Girls- 10 yrs, Boys-13 yrs

c)

Girls- 12 yrs, Boys-14 yrs

d)

Girls- 13 yrs, Boys-10 yrs

17.
  1. Antibiotic of choice for Localized Aggressive Periodontitis is:

a)

Bacitracin

b)

  Pen VK

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Metronidazole

18.
  1. Approximately what percentage of teenages with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus have significant periodontal disease?

a)

2-5%

b)

5-10%

c)

10-15%

d)

20-25%

19.
  1. The loss of attachment and recession that occurs with a labially malpositioned tooth is often referred to as:

a)

Fenestration

b)

Dehiscence

c)

Stripping

d)

Reduced epithelium

20.
  1. Frena are best described as:

     

a)

Mucosal folds with enclosed muscle tissue

b)

Extensions of the gingival connective tissue

c)

Periodontal ligaments

d)

Fibrous tissue without muscle fibers

21.

What is the most common cause of posterior tooth loss in primary dentition?

a)

Trauma

b)

Caries

c)

Congenital absence

d)

Ankylosis

22.

Which appliance is most commonly used for unilateral loss of a primary molar?

a)

Nance appliance

b)

Band and loop

c)

Distal shoe

d)

Hawley retainer

23.

Which appliance is indicated when a primary second molar is lost before eruption of the permanent first molar?

a)

Crown and loop

b)

Distal shoe

c)

Transpalatal arch

d)

Lower lingual holding arch

24.

What is considered the best space maintenance strategy?

a)

Band and loop appliance

b)

Distal shoe appliance

c)

Good restorative and preventive dentistry

d)

Removable partial denture

25.

Which appliance is contraindicated in medically compromised patients or those at risk for infective endocarditis?

a)

Band and loop

b)

Distal shoe

c)

Nance appliance

d)

Hawley retainer

26.

Which fixed bilateral appliance requires eruption of the permanent mandibular incisors before placement?

a)

Transpalatal arch

b)

Nance

c)

Lower lingual holding arch

d)

Groper appliance

27.

Which appliance is most appropriate when multiple primary molars are missing in both quadrants of the maxilla? 

a)

Lower lingual holding arch

b)

Nance appliance

c)

Band and loop

d)

Distal shoe

28.

Early loss of a primary incisor typically results in:

    

a)

Significant anterior space loss

b)

Minimal space loss unless canines are unerupted or crowding exists

c)

Severe midline shift in most cases

d)

Delayed eruption of permanent incisors

29.

True or False: A reverse band and loop can be used as an alternative to a distal shoe when the permanent first molar is partially erupted. 

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Which statement about impressions for laboratory‑fabricated space maintainers is TRUE? 

 

    

a)

Compound impressions are the most accurate

b)

Bands should always be included in the impression

c)

Alginate or PVS impressions provide the best accuracy

d)

Large model bases improve appliance fit

31.
  1. How may orthodontic care differ for a child with special needs?

a)
  1. Appointment lengths may be longer

b)
  1. Treatment plans may be more flexible and staged to allow for possible discontinuation

c)
  1. Materials may need to be varied due to specific sensitivities of the patient

d)
  1. All of the above

32.
  1. Orthodontic force causes deflection of alveolar bone, creating stress lines that stimulate bone remodeling. After initial tooth displacement, movement pauses until necrotic tissue is removed. Which theory does this describe?

  

a)

Pressure–Tension Theory

b)

Bone Bending Theory

c)

Functional Matrix Theory

d)

Wolff’s Law

33.
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding thumb-sucking in the primary dentition only?

a)

Management should be directed primarily toward elimination of the habit

b)

Appliance therapy is rarely indicated

c)

Occlusal changes associated with thumb-sucking may resolve spontaneously after habit cessation

d)

Interceptive orthodontic treatment should be initiated immediately to correct the excessive overbite

34.
  1. What habits can lead to an open bite? Select all that apply.

a)

Thumb-sucking

b)

Pacifier use

c)

Tongue-thrusting

d)

Over-eruption of incisors

35.
  1. Orthodontic tooth movement occurs due to force-induced changes in the PDL/bone. Pressure areas experience reduced blood flow and undermine resorption, while tension areas show increased cellular activity and new bone.

                Which theory of orthodontic tooth movement does this describe?

a)

Bone Bending Theory

b)

Pressure-Tension Theory

c)

Functional Matrix Theory

d)

Wolff’s Law

36.

Which of the following is true regarding oral habits for children aged 3-6?

  

a)

Digit and pacifier habits should be stopped before the start of this period

b)

The changes are irreversible

c)

Appliances are usually required to correct improper teeth position

d)

Childing wanting to stop the behavior is the most important in habit cessation

37.

Which is true of digit sucking habits?

a)

A force of 25g is enough to tip a tooth

b)

Approximately 2/3 end by age 5

c)

The intensity of force of a digit sucking habit the most important factor in tooth movement

d)

  Common cause of anterior crossbite

38.

Thumb and finger habits

    

a)

Decrease overjet

b)

Increase overbite

c)

Lead to more clockwise maxillary-mandibular jaw relationship

d)

Can cause extrusion of incisors

39.

   Which of the following methods is least successful for correcting a thumb habit when the child sucks their thumb to help fall asleep?

a)

Counseling

b)

Reminder Therapy

c)

Reward system

d)

Adjunctive therapy

40.

What is this beaded appliance called?

a)

Nance

b)

Crib

c)

Quad Helix

d)

Bluegrass

41.
  1. According to Bimstein et al., how does the prevalence of gingivitis in children compare to dental caries?

a)

Gingivitis is much less prevalent than dental caries

b)

Gingivitis is equally or more prevalent than dental caries

c)

Gingivitis only occurs in children with dental caries

d)

Gingivitis is not prevalent as discussed in the younger age group.

42.
  1. According to Bimstein et al., the main reason gingivitis in children has received less attention that dental caries is because:

 

a)

It is less prevalent in children

b)

  It is easier to treat

c)

It does not appear clinically severe

d)

Its long-term health impact is underappreciated

43.

What percentage of cases in the study ended with a Class I molar relationship in the permanent dentition?

a)

44%

b)

61.6%

c)

34.3%

d)

19.4%

44.

 Which initial molar relationship in the deciduous dentition most strongly predicts a Class II molar relationship in the permanent dentition?

a)

Flush terminal plane

b)

Mesial step

c)

Distal step

d)

End-to-end relationship

45.

 Which initial molar relationship in the deciduous dentition most strongly predicts a Class II molar relationship in the permanent dentition?

a)

Flush terminal plane

b)

Mesial step

c)

Distal step

d)

End-to-end relationship

46.

  According to Cozza’s systematic review, which factor most strongly influences the effectiveness of functional appliances in promoting mandibular growth in Class II malocclusion?

a)

Appliance design

b)

Patient compliance

c)

Timing during pubertal growth spurt

d)

Duration of treatment

47.

Which functional appliance demonstrated the highest treatment efficiency for mandibular growth in the review?

a)

Twin-Block

b)

Herbst

c)

Activator

d)

Bionator

48.

  According to Ngan, Alkire, and Fields (1999), what is the recommended treatment for moderate crowding (5-9mm)?

a)

Preservation of leeway space alone will resolve the crowding

b)

Limited expansion in the late mixed dentition is sufficient

c)

Most cases will require permanent teeth to preserve facial esthetics and soft tissue integrity

d)

Serial extraction should be initiated immediately

49.

According to Ngan, Alkire, and Fields (1999), what is the recommended timing for referring a patient with moderate crowding to a specialist for orthodontic treatment?

a)

Late primary dentition

b)

Early mixed dentition

c)

Late mixed dentition

50.

In the Iowa Facial Growth Study examining the relationship between childhood BMI and dental development, which finding best describes the predictive value of early BMI measurements?   

a)

BMI at age 8 years was the strongest predictor of dental development at age 12   

b)

BMI at age 4 years predicted the timing of dental development at age 12   

c)

BMI measurements showed no predictive value for future dental development   

d)

Only current BMI, not historical BMI, correlated with dental development    

51.

According to the study's findings on dental eruption timing, which statement accurately reflects the relationship between BMI and specific tooth eruption?   

             

a)

Overall dental development scores showed no correlation with eruption timing   

b)

Only maxillary teeth showed earlier eruption in children with high BMI 

c)

BMI at young ages had long term effects including early dental maturation. 

d)

The rate of dental development remained constant across growth periods. 

52.

What characteristic did premolars often show at the time of early eruption?

a)

Overdeveloped roots

b)

Shorter-than-expected root length

c)

No root formation

d)

Complete root development

53.

What type of tooth movement commonly occurred after premature loss of deciduous molars? 

a)

Distal drift of premolars

b)

Lingual tipping of incisors

c)

Distal tipping of canines

d)

Mesial drift of premolars

54.

    What type of headgear is used to repair class 2 Maloccusion with a vertical growth pattern?

a)

Reverse pull headgear

b)

High pull headgear

c)

Cervical pull headgear

55.

   In severe cases of class 2 malocclusion, 2-phased treatment is always the recommendation.

a)

   True

b)

  False

56.

Which arch is most susceptible to clinically significant space loss following premature loss of a primary first molar?

a)

Maxillary arch

b)

Mandibular arch

c)

Both arches equally

d)

Neither arch shows significant changes

57.

Compared with premature loss of primary second molars, loss of primary first molars generally results in:

a)

Greater space loss

b)

Similar space loss

c)

Less space loss  

d)

Complete arch collapse

58.
  1. Which appliance in the study by Woon SC, Thiruvenkatachari showed statistically significant short-term improvement in both skeletal and dental effects for Class III malocclusion?

a)

Chin cup

b)

Protraction mask

c)

Removable Mandibular retractor

d)

Tandem Traction bow appliance

59.
  1. What is the major limitation identified in the studies included in the review by Woon SC, Thiruvenkatachari?

a)

Lack of short-term data

b)

No studies done later in life

c)

High risk of bias in most studies

d)

Compliance of patient till the age of 17-18 years

60.

Which imaging technique was used to measure adenoid and tonsil volumes in this study?

a)

MRI

b)

Cone Beam Computed Tomography (CBCT)

c)

Traditional CT Scan

d)

Ultrasound

61.

What percentage of tonsil volume reduction was observed on average in the expansion group?

a)

16.8%

b)

24.8%

c)

38.5%

d)

75.4%

62.

According to AAP guidelines, at what ages should standardized screening for Autism Spectrum Disorder be performed?

a)

12 and 18 months

b)

18 and 24 months

c)

24 and 36 months

d)

Only when concerns are raised

63.

Which of the following is emphasized in the AAP report for managing children with ASD?

a)

Exclusive reliance on pharmacologic therapy

b)

Early identification and family-centered, multidisciplinary care

c)

Delaying intervention until school age

d)

Limiting evaluation to behavioral symptoms only

64.

  Which are examples of why some children have developed oral aversions?

a)

Preterm birth with prolonged intubation

b)

Hypersensitivity to texture, smells, tastes, colors

c)

Dependence on caregivers

65.

When should pediatricians encourage parents of children with developmental disabilities to seek dental care?       

a)

  By 1 year of age

b)

Between 6-12 months

c)

“First visit by first birthday”

d)

All of the above

66.

In the Shapiro et al. study examining sensory-adapted dental environments for children with developmental disabilities, which outcome measure showed the greatest statistical significance? 

a)

Altering lighting, sounds, and tactile stimulation had no signifacant effect on anxiety levels 

b)

Non-pharmacological sensory based interventions off no effectiveness  

c)

A SADE should effectiveness in decreasing anxiety compared to normal dental settings.

67.

  According to the study findings, what was the mean duration of anxious behaviors in children with developmental disabilities when treated in the sensory-adapted dental environment compared to the regular dental environment? 

a)

5.26 minutes vs. 13.56 minutes 

b)

9.04 minutes vs. 23.44 minutes 

c)

8.49 minutes vs. 15.50 minutes 

d)

331 minutes vs. 1.94 minutes 

68.

What did the authors find regarding long‑term skill retention in children with ASD? 

a)

Most children lost their skills between visits

b)

Skills were maintained only with monthly appointments

c)

Most children retained their dental skills even with long gaps between visits

d)

Skill retention was unpredictable and inconsistent

69.

Which component was central to the success of the desensitization approach? 

a)

Use of pharmacologic sedation

b)

Rapid exposure to all procedures in one visit

c)

Predictability, repetition, and gradual exposure

d)

Use of restraints to improve cooperation 

70.

In any childhood population, what approximate percentage sustains over half of the biomedical and psychiatric morbidities?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

  30%

d.     

d)

  40%

e)

50%      

71.

This is considered the single most powerful epidemiologic predictor of health and disease.

   

a)

Socioeconomic factor (SES)

b)

Body mass index (BMI)

c)

Reading levels

d)

Social epigenetics

72.

A parent objects to voice control because it is perceived as disrespectful. According to the article, the best clinician response is to:

a)

Proceed because it is clinically effective

b)

Explain that it is the standard of care

c)

Modify behavior guidance and discuss alternatives

d)

Refer the child immediately

73.

 

Which scenario best demonstrates culturally influenced compliance challenges?

a)

A child refusing fluoride varnish

b)

A parent preferring traditional remedies before dental treatment

c)

A child crying during local anesthesia

d)

A parent requesting shorter appointments

74.
  1. The study by Hoge et al, controlled for which variable in the analysis of covariance?

    

a)

Gender

b)

Age

c)

Previous dental experience

d)

Type of dental procedure

75.
  1. Which pain scale was used in the study by Hoge et al?

a)

Faces Pain scale

b)

  Wong-Baker Faces Pain scale

c)

Numeric rating scale

d)

Faces Pain Scale-Revised

76.

Which parenting style was associated with the best child behavior and least dental caries?

a)

Authoritarian

b)

Permissive

c)

Authoritative

d)

Neglectful

77.

Which factor, besides parenting style, was linked to better child behavior during the first dental visit?

a)

High sugar consumption

b)

Attendance at daycare

c)

Lack of dental insurance

d)

History of dental pain

78.

What was the primary purpose of using a visual schedule system in the pilot study on dental care for children with autism?

a)

To replace traditional dental cleaning methods

b)

To improve task completion and reduce anxiety during dental visits

c)

For fun

d)

To shorten overall appointment duration by half

79.

Which of the following outcomes was observed in children using the visual schedule system compared to the control group?

a)

Increased behavioral distress

b)

Slower completion of procedural steps

c)

More steps completed and reduced distress

d)

No significant difference in performance

80.

  What technique did Hispanic parents rank above tell show do in the study by Martinez Mier et al (2019)?

 

a)

General anesthesia

b)

Active restraint

c)

Voice control

d)

Nitrous oxide 

81.

Which technique was highly accepted among all 3 study groups in Martinez Mier et al (2019)?

a)

General anesthesia

b)

Tell show do

c)

Active restraint

d)

Nitrous oxide

82.

According to Nelson's continuum of behavior guidance framework, which factors must clinicians consider when selecting the appropriate behavior guidance technique for a pediatric patient? 

a)

Only the child's age and dental procedure complexity 

b)

Parental expectations, child temperament, and technical procedures necessary to complete care 

c)

Insurance coverage and appointment duration 

d)

Only previous dental history and sibling behavior patterns 

83.

What is the primary goal of effectively using techniques within the continuum of behavior guidance in pediatric dentistry? 

 

a)

To minimize appointment time and maximize practice efficiency 

b)

To eliminate the need for pharmacological interventions in all cases 

c)

To maintain a healing relationship with the family while addressing dental disease and empowering the child for lifetime dental care 

d)

To ensure parents remain in the waiting room during all procedures 

84.

Which type of measure is often most appropriate for younger children? 

a)

Self‑report questionnaires

b)

Physiological monitoring only

c)

Visual or behavior‑based scales

d)

Parent‑completed anxiety inventories

85.

Which major limitation did the authors identify across many existing anxiety measures? 

a)

They are too short to be useful

b)

They lack strong validation across different populations

c)

They require expensive equipment

d)

They cannot be used in clinical settings

86.

 How does dental anxiety differ from dental phobia?

a)

Dental anxiety is more intense

b)

Dental phobia is rational

c)

Dental anxiety is moderate, while dental phobia is intense and irrational

d)

There is no difference

87.

From an ABPD behavior guidance perspective, sensory adaptation is best classified as:

a)

Pharmacologic behavior guidance

b)

Advanced restrictive technique

c)

Non-pharmacologic adjunctive behavior guidance

d)

Emergency management technique

88.

Which patient would be the best candidate for sensory-adapted dental treatment?

a)

Neurotypical child with mild dental fear

b)

Child with ASD and hypersensitivity to sound and touch

c)

Child requiring extensive oral surgery

d)

Adolescent with dental phobia requesting sedation

89.
  1. 30 years ago, which of the following was less used due to more evidence of a paternalistic approach in dental treatment?

    

a)

Parental absence

b)

Voice control

c)

Hand over mouth

d)

Oral sedation

90.
  1. Which of the following might not be the reason for high usage of nitrous oxide in pediatric practice?

a)

  Change in parenting style influencing the child’s behavior

b)

Parents choosing less aversive techniques

c)

Changing dental trends

d)

High parental expectations for positive dental experience for their child