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Respiratory Physiology Worksheet (Pages 1–3)

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Disruption of the connection between the respiratory center and the motor neurons of the diaphragm is accompanied by

a)

disorders of voluntary control of breathing

b)

the appearance of Biot's respiration

c)

violation of breathing automatism

d)

the emergence of Cheyne–Stokes respiration

e)

reduced amplitude of respiratory movements and periodic apnea

2.

In the pathogenesis of periodic breathing, which factor is important

a)

decreased sensitivity of the respiratory center to carbon dioxide

b)

increased sensitivity of the respiratory center to carbon dioxide

c)

overexcitation of the respiratory center

d)

constant stimulation of inspiratory neurons of the respiratory center

e)

acceleration of the Hering–Breuer reflex

3.

A characteristic manifestation of RDS syndrome is

a)

hyperpnea

b)

increased vital capacity

c)

hypoxemia with ineffective oxygen therapy

d)

hyperoxemia with hypercapnia

e)

Tiffeneau index 70%

4.

The main link in the pathogenesis of RDS in newborns is

a)

hyaline deposition in the alveolar wall

b)

surfactant deficiency

c)

decreased compliance of lung tissue

d)

upper airway obstruction

e)

spasm of small bronchi

5.

Perfusion form of respiratory failure may result from

a)

myositis of the intercostal nerves

b)

right ventricular heart failure

c)

kyphosis or lordosis

d)

alveolar hypoventilation

e)

bronchial asthma

6.

When the respiratory center is depressed, which type of respiratory failure develops

a)

perfusion type

b)

ventilation, obstructive type

c)

diffusion type

d)

ventilation, restrictive type

e)

neuromuscular type

7.

The diffusion distance of gases can increase when

a)

hyperventilation

b)

violation of respiratory mechanics

c)

increase in the number of functioning alveoli

d)

fibrous changes in the lungs

e)

depression of the respiratory center

8.

An extrapulmonary cause of restrictive hypoventilation of the lungs may be

a)

pneumonia

b)

lung tumors

c)

pulmonary atelectasis

d)

silicosis

e)

ascites

9.

A violation of diffusion through the alveolar–capillary membrane is observed when

a)

diffuse pulmonary fibrosis

b)

pleurisy

c)

bronchial asthma

d)

laryngeal edema

e)

intercostal myositis

10.

Terminal type of breathing includes

a)

Biot's breathing

b)

Cheyne–Stokes breathing

c)

tachypnea

d)

bradypnea

e)

gasping breath

11.

The second stage of asphyxia is characterized by

a)

increased blood pressure

b)

increased tone of the parasympathetic nervous system

c)

tachycardia

d)

inspiratory dyspnea

e)

increased tone of the sympathetic nervous system

12.

The first stage of asphyxia is characterized by

a)

lowering of blood pressure

b)

bradycardia

c)

increased tone of the sympathetic nervous system

d)

increased tone of the parasympathetic nervous system

e)

paralysis of the respiratory center

13.

Extrapulmonary restrictive hypoventilation of the lungs results in

a)

pneumonia

b)

lung tumors

c)

pulmonary atelectasis

d)

silicosis

e)

intercostal myositis

14.

Emphysema of the lungs is a cause of respiratory failure of which type

a)

ventilatory, obstructive type

b)

centrogenous

c)

neuromuscular

d)

ventilatory, restrictive type

e)

thoracodiaphragmatic

15.

Expiratory dyspnea is observed when

a)

bronchial asthma

b)

narrowing of the tracheal lumen

c)

pleurisy

d)

first stage of asphyxia

16.

Histological examination of the lung tissue of a newborn child who died from RDS syndrome will most likely reveal

a)

alveoli infiltrated with neutrophils

b)

alveolar wall fibrosis

c)

increased airiness of the lungs

d)

hyalinosis of alveolar membranes and collapsed alveoli

e)

normal lung structure

17.

Thickening of the alveolar-capillary membrane, decrease in the volume of blood in the pulmonary capillaries, decrease in the alveolar surface, decrease in the time of contact of blood with alveolar air lead to disturbances

a)

airway patency

b)

diffusion capacity of the lungs

c)

pulmonary ventilation

d)

stability of inelastic fabrics

e)

elastic recoil

18.

A 20-year-old woman complains of shortness of breath. A pulmonary function test revealed bronchiole spasm. What was found in the patient?

a)

reduction of the Tiffeneau index

b)

difficulty breathing

c)

decrease in total lung capacity

d)

increase in Tiffeneau index

e)

reduction of residual volume

19.

How will the frequency and depth of breathing change after artificial narrowing of the trachea in an experimental animal? Breathing will become

a)

deep, rare, with difficulty in the inhalation phase

b)

deep, rare, with a long exhalation

c)

shallow, frequent, with prolonged inhalation

d)

superficial, frequent, with prolonged exhalation

e)

deep, rare, the inhalation and exhalation phases are equal

20.

A 17-year-old teenager got a foreign body in his upper respiratory tract. He developed inspiratory dyspnea. What is the leading factor in the pathogenesis of this dyspnea?

a)

decreased activity of the respiratory center

b)

acceleration of the Hering-Breuer reflex

c)

delay of the Hering-Breuer reflex

d)

Bainbridge reflex

e)

Euler-Liljestrand reflex

21.

During examination of a 27-year-old woman, MOD/MOC = 1.2 was found. What is the most likely cause of the impaired ventilation-perfusion ratio?

a)

bronchospasm

b)

fluid accumulation in the alveoli

c)

pulmonary atelectasis

d)

spasm of pulmonary arterioles

e)

chronic bronchitis

22.

During examination of a 25-year-old man, it was found that MV = 3 l/min, IOC = 5 l/min. What is the most likely cause of the ventilation-perfusion ratio disorder?

a)

emphysema

b)

pulmonary thromboembolism

c)

pulmonary hypotension

d)

spasm of pulmonary arterioles

e)

chronic bronchitis

23.

Patient R., 60 years old, had one lung removed due to lung cancer. At rest, the pressure in the pulmonary artery is normal, but during physical exertion, pulmonary hypertension develops. Pathogenesis of the patient's pulmonary hypertension:

a)

increases airway resistance during exercise

b)

under load, stretching of the lungs reduces blood flow

c)

under load, the vessels of the lungs narrow

d)

increased blood filling of the lungs during physical exertion due to insufficient compensation

e)

spasm of pulmonary arterioles develops

24.

A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is in a comatose state, with the smell of acetone in the exhaled air. Deep, rare, noisy breathing is observed. The development of this type of breathing is based on excessive excitation of the respiratory center:

a)

excess nitrogen

b)

excess oxygen

c)

excess bicarbonate

d)

sour foods

e)

alkaline products

25.

A 60-year-old man was admitted to the clinic's therapeutic department several times with complaints of shortness of breath, episodes of suffocation associated with coughing and wheezing. The examination revealed: VC - 3.0 liters, Tiffno index - 50%. After the introduction of a bronchodilator drug, the Tiffno index increased by 15%. After stopping the attack, abundant viscous sputum is released, containing "spirals" repeating the shape of the distal respiratory tract. Blood test: the number of leukocytes is 10 \times 10^9 / l, neutrophils - 70%, eosinophils - 18%. Most likely, the patient

a)

pneumonia

b)

pulmonary fibrosis

c)

bronchial asthma

d)

pulmonary tuberculosis

e)

pleurisy

26.

This type of respiratory failure occurs with tumors and foreign bodies of the trachea and bronchi, cicatricial stenosis of the trachea, bronchial asthma. Characteristic for this type of respiratory failure is

a)

decrease in overall work of breathing

b)

decreased tone of bronchial smooth muscles

c)

reduction of aerodynamic resistance in the bronchi

d)

increased work of the respiratory muscles during exhalation

e)

increase in the total lumen of the bronchi

27.

Thickening of the alveolar-capillary membrane, decrease in the volume of blood in the pulmonary capillaries, decrease in the alveoli, decrease in the time of contact of blood with alveolar air lead to disorders:

a)

bronchial patency

b)

diffusing capacity of the lungs

c)

ventilatory capacity of the lungs

d)

resistance of inelastic tissues

e)

elastic resistance of lung tissue

28.

The patient underwent a pleural fluid test. The puncture is turbid, yellow, specific gravity is 1.021 g/l, protein content is 3.6%, Rivalta test is positive, there are a large number of neutrophils. The results of the study indicate the development of

a)

transudate

b)

purulent exudate

c)

serous exudate

d)

ichorous exudate

e)

fibrinous exudate

29.

A decrease in minute respiratory volume, a decrease in vital capacity of the lungs, a decrease in total lung capacity, a decrease in residual lung volume, and a normal Tiffeneau index are characteristic of

a)

bronchial tumors

b)

pulmonary emphysema

c)

obstructive bronchitis

d)

bronchial asthma

e)

lobar pneumonia

30.

How will the nature of external respiration change in an experimental animal after creating artificial hydrothorax by introducing a saline solution into the pleural cavity?

a)

breathing becomes longer and more difficult

b)

exhalation becomes longer and more difficult

c)

breathing becomes frequent and shallow

d)

breathing becomes deep and rare

31.

A 30-year-old woman took a large dose of barbiturates with the intention of committing suicide and was taken to the hospital by an ambulance team. In the emergency room, blood pressure was 95/65 mm Hg, pulse was 105 per minute. Arterial blood gas analysis was determined. Select the result that can be expected for the patient.

a)

pO2 45 mmHg, pCO2 45 mmHg, pH 7.45

b)

pO2 55 mmHg, pCO2 70 mmHg, pH 7.5

c)

pO2 65 mmHg, pCO2 35 mmHg, pH 7.45

d)

pO2 70 mmHg, pCO2 50 mmHg, pH 7.3

32.

The patient has a cough with rusty sputum, pain in the right half of the chest when breathing, tachypnea, fever. He became ill acutely. When auscultating in the area of the projection of the right lower lobe of the lung, moist rales are heard. The most common route of penetration of microorganisms into the lung tissue in this disease:

a)

inhalation of infected aerosols

b)

spread of infection through the bloodstream

c)

spread of infection through the lymph flow

d)

microaspiration of infected secretion from the oropharynx

e)

spread of infection from adjacent affected areas

33.

A 29-year-old man was diagnosed with a dry cough and rusty sputum, pain in the right half of the chest when breathing, tachypnea, and fever. Auscultation showed moist rales in the projection of the right lower lobe. The most common route of penetration of microorganisms into the lung tissue in this disease is:

a)

inhalation of infected aerosols

b)

spread of infection by blood

c)

spread of infection through the lymph

d)

intake of infected secretions from the oropharynx

e)

spread of infection from affected neighboring foci

34.

A 59-year-old man was admitted to the clinic complaining of dyspnea, episodes of suffocation associated with a painful cough and wheezing. A functional study of the lungs revealed: VC - 3.0 liters, Tiffno index - 50%. Curschmann spirals were found in the sputum. Which mediator has the most pronounced effect on the lumen of the bronchi in this disease?

a)

leukotrienes

b)

endothelins

c)

tumor necrosis factor

d)

complement system components

e)

lymphokines

35.

A 56-year-old man complains of progressive dyspnea, accompanied by a cough producing scanty sputum with blood streaks, after a myocardial infarction 4 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's current problem?

a)

precapillary pulmonary hypertension

b)

postcapillary pulmonary hypertension

c)

pulmonary hypotension

d)

primary pulmonary hypertension

e)

pulmonary thromboembolism

36.

Patient Ch., 36 years old, a worker in the mining industry, was admitted to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, especially pronounced when walking and physical exertion, persistent cough (dry, sometimes with a small amount of sputum), chest pain. Arterial blood gas composition and spirometry data: pO2 - 92 mm Hg, pCO2 - 40 mm Hg, Oxygen capacity - 19.2 vol%, Spirometry: FVC - 2.6 l, Index Tiffno - 54%, MOD (percent of the expected value) - 124. Most likely the patient has:

a)

obstructive hypoventilation

b)

restrictive hypoventilation

c)

impaired diffusion capacity of the lungs

d)

impaired pulmonary perfusion

e)

hyperventilation of the lungs

37.

A five-year-old girl was hospitalized in a children's clinic. On examination: icteric skin and sclera, body temperature 39 C, enlarged spleen and liver, dark urine, acute pain in the lumbar region, right hypochondrium, leg muscles; in the right lung - radiographic signs of lobar pneumonia. Blood test: leukocytes - 20 × 109 / l, Hb 69.0 g / l, erythrocytes 2.3 × 1012 / l, color index 0.90, in the smear - poikilocytosis and anisocytosis of erythrocytes. Urine test: hemoglobinuria. Electrophoretic study (along with HbA) revealed HbS. Most likely, the girl has:

a)

microspherocytic anemia

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

respiratory distress syndrome

d)

thalassemia

e)

pulmonary infarction

38.

Patient M., 26, who inhaled a nut while laughing, was taken to the clinic. It was found that the nut blocked the lumen of the right bronchus. How will the blood counts change below the site of the bronchial blockage?

a)

Dissolved oxygen levels are higher than normal

b)

The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left

c)

pCO2 is less than normal

d)

pH is lower than normal

e)

pO2 equals pO2 of arterial blood

39.

During the examination of the patient's pulmonary ventilation function, the following changes in pulmonary volumes and capacities were revealed: VO↓, MOD↑, ROvd↓, VC↓, OEL↑, OOL↑, OFI↓, Tiffeneau index↓. What pathology is most likely characterized by such changes in indicators?

a)

exudative pleurisy

b)

pneumonia

c)

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

d)

pulmonary atelectasis

e)

pulmonary fibrosis

40.

During the examination of the patient's pulmonary ventilation function, the following changes in lung volumes and capacities were revealed: VO↓, MOD↑, ROin↓, VC↓, ROe↓, OEL↓, OOL↓, Tiffno index - 90%. What pathology is most likely characterized by such changes in indicators?

a)

chronic bronchitis

b)

pulmonary emphysema

c)

bronchial asthma

d)

pneumonia

e)

chronic obstructive pulmonary bronchitis

41.

Partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood is 62 mm Hg, saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen in arterial blood is 68%, partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood is 52 mm Hg, oxygen capacity of blood is 25 vol%, pH is 7.33, BE is −8 meq/l. These changes are characteristic of:

a)

tissue type hypoxia

b)

hemic type of hypoxia

c)

respiratory type of hypoxia

d)

circulatory type of hypoxia

e)

hypobaric form of exogenous hypoxia

42.

A teenage girl felt weak after being vaccinated and developed hyperventilation. The nurse gave her a paper bag so that the girl could breathe into it. The girl's condition improved. The girl's improvement can be explained by the fact that an increase in CO2 in the inhaled air normalizes the changes that occurred during the girl's development:

a)

compensated gas acidosis

b)

compensated gas alkalosis

c)

uncompensated gas acidosis

d)

uncompensated gas alkalosis

e)

neurosis; paper bag is used as a placebo

43.

The constant process of bone tissue resorption and its formation is designated by the term.

a)

Artificial limb lengthening

b)

Joint prosthetics

c)

Bone resorption by osteoblasts

d)

Bone formation by osteoclasts

e)

Bone tissue remodeling

44.

A skeletal disease characterized by a decrease in bone mass and disturbances in the microarchitecture of bone tissue with subsequent increase in bone fragility and the possibility of fractures is designated by the term.

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Osteodystrophy

d)

Osteopetrosis

e)

Osteoarthritis

45.

Joint hypermobility and arachnodactyly are typical manifestations.

a)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

b)

Intrauterine fractures

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Marfan syndrome

e)

Scleroderma

46.

The decrease in the resistance of articular cartilage is due to.

a)

Reduction in the synthesis of tumor necrosis factor

b)

Decrease in the concentration of interleukin-1

c)

Collagenase deficiency

d)

Inhibition of proteoglycan synthesis by chondrocytes

e)

Excess estrogen

47.

In the pathogenesis of achondroplasia, a hereditary defect is important.

a)

Synthesis of type I collagen

b)

Epithelium of renal tubules

c)

Fibrillin synthesis

d)

Receptor for fibroblast growth factor

e)

Carbonic anhydrase, necessary for the formation of hydrogen ions

48.

Purulent inflammation underlies the development of the following typical form of skin pathology.

a)

Ichthyosis

b)

Keratosis

c)

Furuncle

d)

Melanomas

e)

Mycoses

49.

Generalized primary osteoporosis is observed.

a)

In old age, especially in women

b)

When treated with glucocorticoids for more than 3 months

c)

During treatment with barbiturates

d)

With hypogonadism

e)

After bowel resection

50.

Generalized secondary osteoporosis is observed in.

a)

Hyperestrogenemia

b)

Gallstone disease

c)

Hypoparathyroidism

d)

Long-term bed rest

e)

Immobilization of the bone when applying a plaster cast

51.

In the pathogenesis of osteoporosis is important.

a)

Increased osteoblast function

b)

Increase in calcium and phosphorus content in bones

c)

Activation of bone tissue remodeling

d)

Disruption of osteoid formation and its mineralization

e)

Increase in peak bone mass

52.

Continuous dull night pain in the joint is caused by.

a)

Venous stasis and increased intraosseous pressure

b)

Friction of cartilaginous surfaces on which cartilaginous detritus settles

c)

Joint blockade with a joint mouse

d)

Stimulation of GABAergic receptors

e)

Activation of the antinociceptive system

53.

The main role in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis is played by an allergic reaction.

a)

Reagin type

b)

Immune complex type

c)

Cell-mediated type

d)

Cytotoxic type

e)

Receptor type

54.

Insert the missing link in the pathogenesis of alimentary osteopathy: Decreased calcium intake with food → decreased plasma calcium concentration → increased parathyroid hormone levels → ? → bone resorption.

a)

Increased osteoclast activity

b)

Increased osteoblast activity

c)

Activation of transforming growth factor

d)

Decreased synthesis of type I collagen

e)

Decreased osteocyte activity

55.

Insert the missing link in the pathogenesis of rickets: Deficiency of 1,25 (OH) 2D 3 → impaired absorption of calcium in the intestine → ? → secondary hyperparathyroidism → impaired incorporation of calcium into bone tissue, stimulation of osteoclasts → osteomalacia.

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

56.

Insert the missing link in the pathogenesis of hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes in Addison's disease: Cortisol deficiency → by feedback mechanism, increased secretion ? → increased melanin deposition in the skin and mucous membranes → hyperpigmentation

a)

ACTH

b)

ADG

c)

STG

d)

TSH

e)

GTG

57.

A 56-year-old woman complains of progressive fatigue, weakness, and bone pain. The patient has arterial hypertension and urolithiasis. The serum calcium level is elevated. The diagnosis is "Fibrous osteodystrophy-Recklinghausen's disease." What is the cause of this disease?

a)

Adenoma of the parathyroid glands

b)

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

c)

Hypovitaminosis D

d)

Hereditary defect of calcium and phosphate reabsorption in the renal tubules

e)

Increased production of thyrocalcitonin

58.

A 10-year-old boy complains of itching of the skin in the interdigital folds, on the flexor surface of the wrist joints, and sleep disturbances after contact with animals. Examination revealed tortuous passages along which scratches covered with scales and crusts are noted. Most likely, the boy has:

a)

Contact dermatitis

b)

Scabies

c)

Lupus dermatitis

d)

Hives

e)

Pyoderma

59.

During the examination of the child, "old" rib fractures, increased joint mobility, dental changes, and blue sclera were discovered. These changes may be associated with a disruption in synthesis

a)

Collagen type I

b)

Collagen type II

c)

Collagen type III

d)

Collagen type IV

e)

Collagen type V

60.

A 65-year-old woman has been under the doctor's observation for a long time due to urolithiasis. Fibrous changes are noted on the bone tissue radiograph. Bone tissue resorption exceeds osteosynthesis. What changes in the concentration of calcium, phosphates and parathyroid hormone in the blood can be expected in this patient?

a)

Decrease in Ca2+ and phosphates, increase in parathyroid hormone

b)

Decrease in Ca2+ and parathyroid hormone, increase in phosphates

c)

Decrease in Ca2+, increase in phosphates and parathyroid hormone

d)

Increase in Ca2+ and parathyroid hormone, decrease in phosphates

e)

Increase in Ca2+, phosphates and parathyroid hormone

61.

A 45-year-old woman came to the clinic complaining of moderate pain in the joints of the hands and wrists of both hands, their swelling and a feeling of stiffness in the morning. Blood test: leukocytosis, accelerated ESR, increased C-reactive protein, rheumatoid factor, anticitrulline antibodies are determined. What are the main types of immune damage that underlie the development of this disease?

a)

Reaginic

b)

Cytotoxic and reaginic

c)

Immune complex and cell-mediated

d)

Receptor

e)

Reaginic and immunocomplex

62.

A 68-year-old overweight female patient has pain in the right hip joint, difficulty walking, a deformed femoral head, a decrease in the size of the joint space, severe subchondral osteosclerosis, osteophytes on the edges of the articular surfaces of the acetabulum. The following play an important role in the pathogenesis of this disease:

a)

Disappearance of vessels in hyaline cartilage

b)

Inactivation of collagenase and phospholipase A2

c)

Reduction of proteoglycans of the main substance of cartilage

d)

Increasing the resistance of cartilage to stress

e)

Increase in glycosaminoglycans in the matrix

63.

The causes of disturbance of parahypophyseal regulation can be:

a)

impaired blood supply to the pituitary gland in DIC syndrome

b)

damage to nerve conductors

c)

toxic or immune damage to the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus

d)

pituitary tumor

e)

damage to the neurohypophysis

64.

Transpituitary regulation is the main one for

a)

thymus

b)

thyroid gland

c)

parathyroid glands

d)

beta cells of the islets of Langerhans

e)

alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans

65.

Peripheral, extra-glandular mechanisms of hormonal activity disruption include

a)

glandular tumors

b)

disruption of the biosynthesis of gland hormones

c)

impaired blood supply to the gland

d)

congenital anomalies of gland development

e)

blockade of hormonal receptors

66.

The basis of the feedback mechanism violation is

a)

decreased sensitivity of the hypothalamic centers that perceive hormones

b)

decrease in the production of liberins in response to an increase in the production of tropic hormones

c)

increased production of statins with an increase in hormones of peripheral glands

d)

increased production of adenohypophysis hormones with increased production of liberins

e)

increased production of liberins with a decrease in the concentration of tropic hormones

67.

Endocrinopathy that develops as a result of adenoma of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

a)

Conn's syndrome

b)

Itsenko-Cushing syndrome

c)

Simmonds disease

d)

Addison's disease

e)

adrenogenital syndrome

68.

Conn's syndrome (primary aldosteronism) is manifested

a)

sodium loss and potassium retention

b)

sodium retention and potassium loss

c)

oliguria

d)

hypotension

e)

accumulation of hydrogen ions

69.

In the pathogenesis of hyperglycemia in hypercortisolism is important

a)

activation of gluconeogenesis

b)

activation of lipogenesis

c)

activation of glycogenogenesis

d)

inhibition of glycogenolysis

e)

inhibition of lipolysis

70.

Addison's disease is characterized by

a)

skin hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia

b)

skin hyperpigmentation, hypernatremia, hypokalemia

c)

convulsions

d)

arterial hypertension

e)

obesity

71.

The missing link in the pathogenesis of endemic goiter: Iodine deficiency → decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones (T3, T4) → decreased concentration of T3, T4 in the blood → ? → hyperplasia of the thyroid gland

a)

increased secretion of TSH (thyrotropin)

b)

increased secretion of somatostatin

c)

increased secretion of somatomedins

d)

decreased secretion of thyroliberin

e)

decreased secretion of corticoliberin

72.

Manifestations of hypothyroidism in childhood include:

a)

mental retardation up to idiocy (cretinism)

b)

hyperglycemia, accelerated physical and mental development

c)

positive nitrogen balance

d)

dehydration of the body

e)

precocious puberty

73.

A 52-year-old woman was admitted to the department complaining of memory loss, general weakness, drowsiness, baldness, loss of appetite, and weight gain. Examination revealed dry, flaky skin, swollen face, bald patches on the head, slow speech, body temperature 35.7°, pulse 52 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/65 mm Hg, increased thyroid-stimulating hormone levels, decreased T3 and T4 levels in the blood. How has the thyroid function changed and where is the pathological process localized?

a)

hypothyroidism, pituitary gland

b)

hypothyroidism, hypothalamus

c)

hypothyroidism, cerebral cortex

d)

hyperthyroidism, thalamus

e)

hypothyroidism, thyroid gland

74.

A decrease in the concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone in the blood in hypothyroidism indicates the localization of the pathological process in

a)

adenohypophysis

b)

thyroid gland

c)

adrenal glands

d)

neurohypophysis

e)

thalamus

75.

During examination of a 25-year-old man, the following was revealed: fat deposits on the face, abdomen and thighs; red stretch marks on the skin of the abdomen and shoulders; blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg; blood sugar 7.0 mmol/l. Radiologically, the sella turcica is dilated. What will a hormone analysis and lumbar radiography reveal?

a)

Increased cortisol, decreased ACTH in the blood, atrophy of one adrenal gland

b)

Increased cortisol and ACTH in the blood, atrophy of one adrenal gland

c)

Increased cortisol and ACTH in the blood, hyperplasia of both adrenal glands

d)

Decreased cortisol and ACTH in the blood, atrophy of the left adrenal gland

e)

Decreased blood cortisol, increased blood ACTH, atrophy of the right adrenal gland

76.

During examination of a 45-year-old woman, the following was found: moon-shaped face; blood pressure 180/120 mm Hg; myocardial hypertrophy; tachycardia; memory and intellect impairment; blood sugar 6.5 mmol/l. X-ray examination of the lumbar region revealed an enlarged left adrenal gland. What will a hormone analysis reveal?

a)

Increased cortisol, decreased ACTH in the blood

b)

Increased cortisol and ACTH in the blood

c)

Decreased cortisol, decreased ACTH in the blood

d)

Decrease in blood cortisol

e)

Decreased cortisol, increased ACTH in the blood

77.

A 40-year-old female patient complains of chilliness, drowsiness, and constipation. Objective examination revealed an enlarged thyroid gland and suspected primary hypothyroidism. The most informative way to confirm this diagnosis is to determine in the blood:

a)

Cortisol

b)

TSH

c)

Ca 2+^{2+}

d)

T3

e)

T4

78.

A 32-year-old woman complains of weight loss and irritability. Examination revealed diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland, and secondary hyperthyroidism is suspected. The most informative way to confirm this diagnosis is to determine in the blood:

a)

Titer of autoantibodies to TSH receptors

b)

TSH

c)

Ca 2+^{2+}

d)

T3

e)

T4

79.

A 32-year-old woman was admitted to the clinic complaining of general weakness, irritability, sweating, increased appetite, weight loss, and palpitations. Examination revealed body temperature of 37.8 ^\circ C, finger tremors, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland, and slight exophthalmos. Laboratory blood tests revealed:

a)

Decreased TSH, increased T4, TSH receptor antibodies

b)

Increased TSH and T4, thyroglobulin antibodies

c)

Decrease in TSH and T4

d)

Increased ACTH and cortisol

e)

Increased cholesterol and glucose

80.

An examination of a 12-year-old boy revealed growth retardation, obesity, red striae on the thighs and abdomen, petechial-bruise-type hemorrhages on the arms and legs, and high blood pressure. Most likely, the child has:

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Thyroid adenoma

c)

Hypothyroidism

d)

Adenohypophysis adenoma

e)

Parathyroid adenoma

81.

A 25-year-old woman complains of constant palpitations, diarrhea, irritability, and exophthalmos. Most likely, the patient has:

a)

Graves' disease

b)

Hashimoto's thyroiditis

c)

Thyroid carcinoma

d)

Parathyroid adenoma

e)

Itsenko-Cushing's disease

82.

A 42-year-old man was admitted to the clinic with complaints of weakness, increased urine output, and high blood pressure. On examination: blood pressure 168/100 mm Hg, increased sodium content, decreased potassium content, increased aldosterone level. What is the basis of this disease?

a)

Adenoma of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

b)

Adenoma of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

c)

Hyperplasia of juxtaglomerular cells

d)

Adenohypophysis adenoma

e)

Adenoma of the reticular zone of the adrenal cortex

83.

A 22-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of severe weakness, rapid fatigue, and gastrointestinal disorders. Over the past 4 months, he has lost 18 kg in weight. Objective examination: severe exhaustion of the body, pigmented skin on the palms, in places of folds and greatest friction against clothing; blood pressure 100/50 mm Hg; blood sugar 3.5 mmol/l; severe bradycardia; decreased basal metabolic rate. Most likely, the patient has:

a)

Addison's disease

b)

Simmonds disease

c)

Graves' disease

d)

Conn's syndrome

e)

Itsenko-Cushing's disease

84.

A 4-year-old child eats chalk, clay, and ice. What medical term is used to describe this condition?

a)

Parorexia

b)

Dysphagia

c)

Anorexia

d)

Bulimia

e)

Hyperrexia

85.

Which of the following is accompanied by hyposalivation?

a)

Stomatitis

b)

Helminthiasis

c)

Gestosis of pregnant women

d)

Bulbar palsy

e)

Sialolithiasis

86.

What is the medical term for loss of appetite in negative emotions and stressful situations?

a)

Neurogenic anorexia

b)

Dyspeptic anorexia

c)

Bulimia

d)

Parorexia

e)

Neuropsychic anorexia

87.

Nervous-psychic anorexia is observed in

a)

Strong excitation of the cerebral cortex

b)

Obsessive idea of being overweight

c)

Reciprocal inhibition of the food center

d)

Pain syndrome

e)

Intoxication

88.

Hyperrexia is observed in

a)

Thyrotoxicosis

b)

Intoxication

c)

Pain syndrome

d)

Suppression of the food center

e)

Destruction of the ventrolateral nuclei of the hypothalamus

89.

The consequence of swallowing disorders can be

a)

Aspiration pneumonia

b)

Overhydration

c)

Hyperchlorhydria

d)

Increased secretion of pancreatic juice

e)

Achalasia of the esophagus

90.

The leading link in gastroesophageal reflux disease is

a)

Reduction in nitric oxide production

b)

Decreased secretion of VIP

c)

Decreased tone of the lower esophageal sphincter

d)

Loss of fluid and electrolytes

e)

Increased tone of the vagus nerve

91.

The formation of an ulcer of the gastric mucosa can lead to

a)

Hyperacidity of gastric juice

b)

Active secretion of prostaglandins

c)

Sufficient blood supply to the mucous membrane

d)

Rapid regeneration of the gastric mucosa

e)

Secretion of mucus and bicarbonates

92.

May lead to increased secretion of gastric juice

a)

Excessive secretin production

b)

Increased secretion of gastrin

c)

Reduction of histamine secretion

d)

Atrophy of the gastric mucosa

e)

Decreased acetylcholine activity

93.

The protective factors of the gastric and duodenal mucosa include

a)

Secretion of prostaglandins

b)

Increased secretion of histamine and serotonin

c)

Organic or functional achylia

d)

High acidity of gastric juice

e)

Duodenogastric reflux

94.

The cause of gastric mucosal ulcers may be

a)

Sufficient blood supply to the mucous membrane

b)

Active secretion of prostaglandins

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

Secretion of mucus and bicarbonates

e)

Rapid regeneration of the gastric mucosa

95.

Amylorrhea, creatorrhea, steatorrhea are observed in chronic

a)

Gastritis

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Cholecystitis

d)

Pancreatitis

e)

Colitis

96.

The most common cause of acute pancreatitis

a)

Abdominal trauma

b)

Infection

c)

Autoimmune damage

d)

Alcohol abuse

e)

Hypercalcemia

97.

Leads to primary malabsorption

a)

Hereditary lactase deficiency

b)

Hypocholia

c)

Pancreatitis

d)

Hypochlorhydria

e)

Gastritis

98.

Steatorrhea is a consequence of insufficiency

a)

Pancreatic lipase

b)

Lipoprotein lipases

c)

Pancreatic amylase

d)

Trypsin

e)

Elastases

99.

The presence of undigested starch in feces is designated by the term

a)

Amylorrhea

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Creatorrhea

d)

Steatorrhea

e)

Amenorrhea

100.

What is the medical term for the appearance of tarry stools, which is a symptom of gastrointestinal bleeding?

a)

Amylorrhea

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Melena

d)

Creatorrhea

e)

Steatorrhea

101.

What vitamin absorption will be impaired if there is a deficiency of bile salts in the intestine?

a)

RR

b)

B1

102.

A 30-year-old man with cholemia syndrome has bradycardia. What is the mechanism of bradycardia development?

a)

activation of sympathetic influences on the heart

b)

activation of spontaneous diastolic membrane depolarization

c)

direct action of bile acids on the sinus node

d)

re-entry of the impulse into the sinus node

e)

the emergence of ectopic foci of excitation in the myocardium

103.

Osmotic diarrhea develops when

a)

increased secretion of water and electrolytes into the intestinal lumen

b)

disorders of cavity and parietal digestion

c)

increased intestinal peristalsis

d)

increased secretion of vasoactive intestinal peptide

e)

increased secretion of somatostatin

104.

An increase in which enzymes in the blood has the greatest diagnostic value in acute pancreatitis?

a)

AST, ALT

b)

LDH, alkaline phosphatase

c)

elastase, chymotrypsin

d)

lipases, amylase

e)

creatine phosphokinase

105.

Which of the following refers to manifestations of protein metabolism disorders in liver failure?

a)

edema

b)

palmar erythema

c)

jaundice

d)

cholemia

e)

acholia

106.

Alimentary constipation occurs when

a)

lack of fiber in food

b)

disruption of the conditioned reflex of bowel movement

c)

diseases of the anorectal region

d)

hypothyroidism

e)

Hirschsprung's disease (megacolon)

107.

Intestinal autointoxication is caused by toxic effects

a)

biogenic amines and protein decay products in the intestines

b)

indirect bilirubin

c)

ketone bodies

d)

bile acids

e)

direct bilirubin

108.

Cholemia syndrome is characterized by

a)

increase in indirect bilirubin in the blood

b)

arterial hypotension

c)

hyperreflexia

d)

tachycardia

e)

edema

109.

Manifestations of protein metabolism disorders in liver failure include:

a)

hemorrhages

b)

palmar erythema

c)

jaundice

d)

cholemia

e)

acholia

110.

During examination of a 48-year-old man with chronic liver failure, gynecomastia was detected. What hormonal metabolism disorder will be detected in the patient?

a)

increase in blood estrogen

b)

primary aldosteronism

c)

increased testosterone activity

d)

decrease in blood glucocorticoid concentration

e)

primary hyperparathyroidism

111.

The "head of Medusa" symptom is characteristic of

a)

gastritis

b)

acute pancreatitis

c)

chronic pancreatitis

d)

liver cirrhosis

e)

peptic ulcer

112.

Hypokalemia in hepatocellular coma develops as a result of

a)

primary aldosteronism

b)

secondary aldosteronism

c)

impaired absorption of potassium in the intestine

d)

increased reabsorption of potassium by the kidneys

e)

reduction in parathyroid hormone synthesis

113.

The reason for the decrease in gastric juice secretion may be

a)

excessive parasympathetic stimulation of the stomach

b)

decreased secretion of secretin

c)

atrophy of the gastric mucosa

d)

increased histamine secretion

e)

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

114.

A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with chronic liver failure. Which of the following changes characterize the patient's carbohydrate metabolism disorder?

a)

increase in glycogen content in the liver

b)

hypoglycemia between meals

c)

activation of gluconeogenesis

d)

activation of glucuronic acid synthesis

e)

activation of glycogenogenesis

115.

An early sign of hepatocyte damage is

a)

increased alkaline phosphatase

b)

jaundice

c)

increased ammonia levels in the blood

d)

increased activity of ALT and AST in the blood

e)

development of ketoacidosis

116.

A patient with yellow skin has elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood. What is the most likely cause of this pathology?

a)

increased hemolysis

b)

deficiency of hepatic UDP-glucuronyl transferase activity

c)

obstruction of the extrahepatic bile ducts

d)

excessive secretion of bile acids into the intestine

e)

pancreatic inflammation

117.

A 21-year-old woman complains of increased saliva, nausea, vomiting, occasional fainting, and no menstruation for two months. The most likely cause of hypersalivation is

a)

disruption of innervation of the salivary glands

b)

sialolithiasis

c)

gestosis of pregnant women

d)

decreased tone of n. vagus

e)

emotional stress

118.

A 14-year-old boy complains of increased salivation, drooling, maceration of the skin around the mouth, and increased swallowing of saliva. Which of the following may be a consequence of this pathology?

a)

xerostomia

b)

multiple caries

c)

atrophy of the oral mucosa

d)

neutralization of gastric juice

e)

hyperacidity of gastric juice

119.

A 16-year-old girl complains of increased salivation, drooling, maceration of the skin around the mouth, and increased swallowing of saliva. Which of the following is a consequence of this pathology?

a)

xerostomia

b)

hypokalemia

c)

multiple caries

d)

atrophy of the oral mucosa

e)

hyperacidity of gastric juice

120.

A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with mechanical constipation. Most likely, the patient

a)

colon cancer

b)

endocrine disorders

c)

increased extraintestinal water loss

d)

irritable bowel syndrome

e)

reduced food consumption

121.

A 25-year-old man complains of severe cutting pain in the epigastrium, which appears 2 hours after eating and at night. Most likely, the patient

a)

acute gastritis

b)

chronic gastritis

c)

duodenal ulcer

d)

stomach ulcer

e)

ulcerative colitis

122.

A 55-year-old man complains of bloating, weight loss, frequent diarrhea, and vomiting. A large number of muscle fibers and fat droplets were found in the stool analysis. The enzyme content in the duodenal juice was reduced. What disease are these manifestations typical for?

a)

dumping syndrome

b)

pancreatitis

c)

gastritis

d)

duodenal ulcer

e)

ulcerative colitis

123.

A 32-year-old man with alcohol abuse is diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. What changes are most likely to be found in the patient?

a)

decreased secretin levels in blood serum

b)

reducing blood glucose levels

c)

increased production of bile acids

d)

increase in pH in the duodenum

e)

steatorrhea

124.

A 55-year-old man with chronic liver failure has been found to have an increase in prothrombin time, a decrease in the prothrombin index with normal fibrinogen levels and normal thrombin time. What is the leading factor in the pathogenesis of changes in hemostasis parameters in the patient?

a)

deficiency of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors

b)

dysfibrinogenemia

c)

excess of anticoagulants in the blood

d)

violation of the internal mechanism of activation of prothrombinase

125.

A 35-year-old man complains of severe pain in the epigastrium, occurring 2–3 hours after eating and at night; recently the pain has been accompanied by nausea and sometimes vomiting. Vomiting brings relief. The patient is emotional, irritable, smokes a lot and abuses alcohol. The data of the objective examination and laboratory tests confirm the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease. Most likely, the ulcer is localized in

a)

duodenum

b)

antral part of the stomach

c)

cardia

d)

bottom of the stomach

e)

lesser curvature of the stomach

126.

A 45-year-old man with chronic liver failure had a blood test that revealed the following: platelet count 120×10^9/l, prolonged bleeding time. What is the leading link in the pathogenesis of the changes identified?

a)

disruption of thrombopoietin formation

b)

destruction of platelets by antibodies

c)

replacement of red bone marrow with fatty tissue

d)

iron deficiency

e)

vitamin B12 deficiency

127.

A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with mechanical jaundice. Yellowing of the skin and mucous membranes and bleeding are detected. What is the leading factor in the pathogenesis of bleeding?

a)

von Willebrand factor deficiency

b)

thrombocytopenia

c)

excess of anticoagulants

d)

thrombocytosis

e)

impaired absorption of vitamin K in the intestine

128.

A 45-year-old man has elevated alkaline phosphatase, gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, and 5-nucleotidase levels in his blood. The patient most likely has the syndrome

a)

dysphagia

b)

cholestasis

c)

acholia

d)

achilia