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Exam 3 EMSP 1501

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is internal bleeding?

a)

Bleeding visible outside the body

b)

Bleeding inside the body due to injury or organ rupture

c)

Nosebleed or wound bleeding

d)

Bleeding through skin pores

2.

What can cause internal bleeding?

a)

Blunt or penetrating trauma

b)

Only fractures

c)

Only external wounds

d)

Minor bruises

3.

What is blunt force trauma?

a)

Penetrating wound

b)

Burns

c)

Electric shock

d)

Injury from impact without penetration

4.

What is penetrating trauma?

a)

Chemical burn

b)

Blunt injury

c)

Object enters the body through skin

d)

Surface bruise

5.

The “Golden Hour” refers to:

a)

Hospital observation period

b)

First hour after trauma with best survival chance

c)

First hour of CPR

d)

Time before bleeding begins

6.

Ideal on-scene time for critical trauma patients:

a)

Less than 5 minutes

b)

Less than 10 minutes (“Platinum 10”)

c)

Less than 20 minutes

d)

As long as needed

7.

What causes neurogenic shock?

a)

 Fluid loss

b)

Heart failure

c)

Spinal cord injury disrupting sympathetic control

d)

Blood infection

8.

Signs of neurogenic shock include:

a)

Cool clammy skin, tachycardia

b)

Warm dry skin, hypotension, bradycardia

c)

Pale skin, rapid pulse

d)

Cyanosis, tachypnea

9.

Three main types of external bleeding are:

a)

 Arterial, venous, capillary

b)

External, internal, mixed

c)

Minor, moderate, major

d)

Superficial, deep, massive

10.

Arterial bleeding is described as:

a)

Clotted flow

b)

Slow oozing

c)

Bright red, spurting

d)

Dark red, steady flow

11.

The three stages of shock are:

a)

Early, middle, late

b)

 Initial, advanced, terminal

c)

Mild, moderate, severe

d)

 Compensated, decompensated, irreversible

12.

Compensated shock signs include:

a)

Organ failure

b)

Irregular respirations

c)

Tachycardia, vasoconstriction

d)

Low BP

13.

Decompensated shock signs include:

a)

 Stable BP

b)

Falling BP, altered LOC, pale cool skin

c)

Strong pulse

d)

 Normal mental status

14.

 Irreversible shock means:

a)

Cells and organs fail despite treatment 

b)

Patient is stable

c)

Patient is recovering

d)

Mild symptoms only

15.

Hypovolemic shock is caused by:

a)

Infection

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Fluid or blood loss

d)

Heart attack

16.

Hemorrhagic shock is:

a)

Due to infection

b)

Due to heart failure

c)

Due to blood loss

d)

Due to vasodilation

17.

Cardiogenic shock occurs when:

a)

Lungs fail

b)

Heart fails to pump effectively

c)

Blood vessels constrict

d)

Brain stem fails

18.

Distributive shock includes:

a)

Anaphylactic, septic, neurogenic 

b)

Hypovolemic and hemorrhagic

c)

Cardiac and respiratory

d)

Traumatic and internal

19.

Anaphylactic shock is caused by:

a)

Blood loss

b)

Severe allergic reaction

c)

Spinal cord injury

d)

Heart failure

20.

Septic shock is caused by:

a)

Spinal damage

b)

Head injury

c)

Blood loss

d)

 Infection leading to vessel dilation and leakage

21.

Obstructive shock results from:

a)

Fluid overload

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Physical obstruction of heart or vessels

d)

Blood infection

22.

JVD indicates:

a)

Low venous pressure

b)

 Increased venous pressure

c)

Heart rate drop

d)

Low blood sugar

23.

Beck’s triad indicates:

a)

Hypovolemia

b)

Tension pneumothorax

c)

Stroke

d)

Cardiac tamponade

24.

Beck’s triad includes:

a)

JVD, muffled heart sounds, hypotension

b)

Hypertension, tachycardia, dry skin

c)

Bradycardia, sweating, high BP

d)

Cyanosis, apnea, hypertension

25.

Cushing’s triad indicates:

a)

Respiratory failure

b)

Spinal injury

c)

Cardiac arrest

d)

Increased intracranial pressure

26.

Signs of Cushing’s triad:

a)

Hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations

b)

Tachycardia, hypotension, shallow breathing

c)

Low BP, fast HR, clear breathing

d)

 Cool skin, weak pulse, hypoxia

27.

Traumatic asphyxia is caused by:

a)

 Chest compression forcing blood backward

b)

Airway obstruction

c)

Heart attack

d)

 Allergic reaction

28.

Cardiac tamponade is:

a)

Air around the heart

b)

Clot in coronary artery

c)

Fluid around heart compressing it

d)

Blood in lungs

29.

Pneumothorax means:

a)

Blood in abdomen

b)

Fluid in heart sac

c)

Air in pleural space collapsing lung

d)

Fractured ribs

30.

Hemothorax means:

a)

Air in pleural space

b)

 Blood in pleural space 

c)

Air in heart

d)

Blood in abdomen

31.

Hemopneumothorax means:

a)

Air and blood in pleural cavity

b)

Fluid in lungs

c)

Blood in brain

d)

Air in abdomen

32.

Simple pneumothorax:

a)

Blood loss only

b)

Collapsed trachea

c)

Life-threatening pressure

d)

Air in pleural space without pressure shift

33.

Tension pneumothorax is:

a)

Water in pleural space

b)

Mild lung collapse

c)

Air under pressure compressing lung and heart

d)

Lung infection

34.

Lung sounds in tension pneumothorax:

a)

Bilateral wheezing

b)

Absent/diminished on one side

c)

Crackles

d)

Stridor

35.

Lung sounds in pulmonary edema:

a)

Snoring

b)

Stridor

c)

Wheezing

d)

Crackles or rales

36.

Lung sounds in asthma:

a)

Wheezing

b)

Crackles

c)

Rhonchi

d)

Stridor

37.

Lung sounds in upper airway swelling:

a)

Crackles

b)

Stridor

c)

Wheezing

d)

Snoring

38.

Name the lung sound:

a)

Bronchial

b)

Ronchi

c)

Diminished

d)

Wheeze

39.

Name the lung sound:

a)

Rales/Crackles (Fine)

b)

Stridor

c)

Rales/Crackles (Coarse)

d)

Ronchi

40.

Name the lung sound:

a)

Rales/Crackles (Coarse)

b)

Vascular

c)

Pleural Rub

d)

Rales/Crackles (Fine)

41.

Name the lung sound:

a)

Pleural Rub

b)

Crowing

c)

Gurgling

d)

Stridor

42.

Name the lung sound:

a)

Stridor

b)

Pleural Rub

c)

Ronchi

d)

Vascular

43.

Name the lung sound:

a)

Wheeze

b)

Crackles

c)

Crowing

d)

Stridor

44.

Name the lung sound:

a)

Diminished

b)

Vascular

c)

Gurgling

d)

Snoring

45.

Direct pressure is used for:

a)

Internal bleeding

b)

Immobilizing fractures

c)

Treating shock

d)

Controlling external bleeding 

46.

A tourniquet is applied when:

a)

Bleeding is minor

b)

Direct pressure fails

c)

Patient is in shock

d)

On a joint

47.

Tourniquet placement:

a)

2–3 inches above wound, not over joint

b)

Below the wound

c)

Around the neck

d)

On joint area

48.

Splinting helps control bleeding by:

a)

Stopping blood flow completely

b)

Immobilizing fractures and reducing tissue damage 

c)

Applying pressure to wound

d)

Preventing infection

49.

Evisceration treatment:

a)

Push organs back inside

b)

Leave exposed

c)

Dry gauze only

d)

Cover with moist sterile dressing, then occlusive 

50.

Epistaxis treatment:

a)

Lean back

b)

Apply ice inside nose

c)

Lean forward and pinch nostrils 

d)

Tilt head upward

51.

Hypothermia occurs when:

a)

Body temp below 95°F (35°C)

b)

Above 102°F

c)

Below 90°F only

d)

Normal temperature

52.

Signs of hypothermia:

a)

Sweating and flushed skin

b)

Shivering, pale cool skin, slow pulse

c)

Rapid pulse and dry skin

d)

High BP

53.

Hypothermia treatment:

a)

Rub skin

b)

Remove from cold, warm gradually

c)

 Rapid heating with hot packs

d)

Give cold fluids

54.

Frost nip:

a)

Skin frozen solid

b)

Severe tissue damage

c)

Skin pale and numb but not frozen

d)

Blackened skin

55.

Frostbite:

a)

Mild skin irritation

b)

Tissue frozen causing permanent damage

c)

Skin redness only

d)

Early cold injury

56.

Heat exhaustion caused by:

a)

Electrolyte and fluid loss

b)

Heart failure

c)

Infection

d)

Blood loss

57.

 Heat stroke is:

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Caused by dehydration only

c)

Body unable to regulate temp; hot, dry skin

d)

Mild heat illness

58.

Types of soft-tissue injuries include:

a)

Only abrasions and cuts

b)

Burns only

c)

Fractures

d)

Abrasion, laceration, avulsion, puncture, contusion, hematoma

59.

Abrasion:

a)

Deep cut

b)

Bruise

c)

Tissue torn off

d)

Superficial scrape

60.

Laceration:

a)

Bruise

b)

Deep cut through skin

c)

Superficial scratch

d)

Crush injury

61.

Puncture:

a)

Blunt trauma

b)

Object pierces skin, small entry

c)

Skin tear

d)

 Bruise

62.

Avulsion:

a)

Flap of skin/tissue torn away

b)

Closed wound

c)

Minor scratch

d)

Bruise

63.

Hematoma:

a)

Open wound

b)

Blood under skin

c)

Air in tissue

d)

Infection

64.

Amputation:

a)

Frostbite

b)

Deep cut

c)

Partial or complete removal of limb

d)

Tissue bruise

65.

Degloving injury:

a)

Burn

b)

Skin/tissue torn from underlying structures 

c)

Muscle strain

d)

Crush

66.

 Impaled object treatment:

a)

Remove immediately

b)

Stabilize in place unless blocking airway

c)

Bandage over

d)

Pull out slowly

67.

Contusion:

a)

Open wound

b)

Puncture

c)

Deep cut

d)

Closed injury with capillary bleeding

68.

Traction splint used for:

a)

Pelvic fracture

b)

Hip injury

c)

Mid-shaft femur fracture

d)

Arm fracture

69.

Do NOT use traction splint for:

a)

Hip, pelvic, or lower-leg injuries

b)

Mid-shaft femur

c)

Stable fractures

d)

Open wounds

70.

Dislocation treatment:

a)

Realign bone

b)

Splint as found

c)

Massage joint

d)

Move joint to normal

71.

Sprain is:

a)

Bone fracture

b)

Tendon injury

c)

Muscle overstretch

d)

Ligament stretched/torn

72.

Strain is:

a)

Muscle or tendon overstretch

b)

Ligament tear

c)

Joint dislocation

d)

Fracture

73.

Marine sting treatment:

a)

Rinse with fresh water

b)

 Apply ice

c)

Rinse with vinegar or salt water

d)

Cover with bandage

74.

Venomous vs poisonous:

a)

Venomous injects toxin; poisonous releases on touch

b)

Both the same

c)

Venomous eaten, poisonous bites

d)

Neither dangerous

75.

Pit vipers include:

a)

Coral snakes

b)

Rattlesnakes, copperheads

c)

Water snakes

d)

Sea snakes

76.

Snake bite treatment:

a)

Ice and tourniquet

b)

Apply pressure

c)

Cut and suck venom

d)

Calm, immobilize, no ice, rapid transport 

77.

Joint injury treatment:

a)

Move joint to normal

b)

Splint as found, check CMS

c)

Apply ice only

d)

Realign immediately

78.

 Long bone injury treatment:

a)

Splint joint above and below

b)

Bandage only

c)

Move for comfort

d)

Apply cold

79.

Drowning management:

a)

Start compressions first

b)

Rescue breaths first 

c)

Wait for EMS

d)

Drain water from lungs

80.

Water rescue steps (in order):

a)

Go first

b)

Row, Reach, Go, Throw

c)

Go, Row, Throw, Reach

d)

Reach, Throw, Row, Go 

81.

Multisystem trauma means:

a)

 Injury to one body system

b)

Injury to multiple systems

c)

Superficial wounds

d)

 Head trauma only

82.

Revised Trauma Score (RTS) includes:

a)

BP, HR, pulse ox

b)

GCS, systolic BP, respirations

c)

Age, weight, LOC

d)

Temperature, HR, oxygen

83.

You are treating a 35-year-old male with a laceration on his arm. He clearly states, "Yes, please take care of this, I want you to stop the bleeding."
This is an example of:

a)

Implied Consent

b)

Informed Consent

c)

Expressed Consent

d)

Good Samaritan Act

84.

You arrive on scene to find an adult male who has collapsed and is unresponsive in a public park. As an EMT, your authority to begin treatment is based on the legal principle of:

a)

Transfer of Care

b)

Advance Directive

c)

Duty to Act

d)

Implied Consent

85.

Which of the following scenarios best represents a key component of negligence in patient care?

a)

An EMT provides high-flow oxygen without a physician's order

b)

An EMT initiates care on a patient who has an out-of-hospital DNR

c)

An EMT fails to recognize signs of shock, leading to patient deterioration and harm

d)

An EMT stops care after transferring the patient to a hospital waiting room staff member

86.

You are treating a 35-year-old male with a laceration on his arm. He clearly states, "Yes, please take care of this, I want you to stop the bleeding."
This is an example of:

a)

Implied Consent

b)

Informed Consent

c)

Expressed Consent

d)

Good Samaritan Act

87.

You arrive on scene to find an adult male who has collapsed and is unresponsive in a public park. As an EMT, your authority to begin treatment is based on the legal principle of:

a)

Transfer of Care

b)

Advance Directive

c)

Duty to Act

d)

Implied Consent

88.

Which of the following scenarios best represents a key component of negligence in patient care?

a)

An EMT provides high-flow oxygen without a physician's order

b)

An EMT initiates care on a patient who has an out-of-hospital DNR

c)

An EMT fails to recognize signs of shock, leading to patient deterioration and harm

d)

An EMT stops care after transferring the patient to a hospital waiting room staff member

89.

The level of care that an EMT with similar training would be expected to provide in a similar situation is defined as the:

a)

Scope of practice

b)

Standard of Care

c)

Duty to Act

d)

Good Samaritan Law

90.

You are treating a stable patient with a fractured wrist. Upon arrival at the emergency department, you transfer the patient's care to a hospital security guard because all the nurses are busy.

This action may legally constitute:

a)

Negligence

b)

Battery

c)

Abandonment

d)

Breach of HIPPA

91.

A legal document that instructs EMS personnel and hospital staff on a patient's wishes regarding medical treatment, such as resuscitation, is known as a(n):

a)

Expressed Consent Form

b)

Out-of-Hospital DNR

c)

Transfer of Care Document

d)

Advance Directive

92.

When performing a power lift, which of the following is the most important technique to prevent personal injury?

a)

Keeping your feet together

b)

Leaning slightly back for leverage

c)

Lifting with your legs and keeping your back straight

d)

Maintaining a palm-down grip on the patient

93.

A firefighter who experiences emotional detachment, exhaustion, and a diminished sense of accomplishment over a long period of service is likely suffering from:

a)

Acute stress reaction

b)

Delayed stress reaction (PTSD)

c)

Cumulative stress reaction (Burnout)

d)

Alarm reaction

94.

Your partner posts a photo of a patient's unique injury on a private social media account without using the patient's name.

This action violates which federal law?

a)

The Ryan White CARE Act

b)

The Good Samaritan Lawhe Controlled Substances Act

c)

The Controlled Substances Act

d)

HIPAA

95.

The jaw-thrust maneuver is the preferred method for opening the airway of a patient when:

a)

The patient is unresponsive but has a strong gag reflex

b)

Spinal injury is suspected

c)

Secretions are blocking the upper airway

d)

The patient has suspected pulmonary edema

96.

An adult patient has large amounts of bloody secretions obstructing the oropharynx.

You should limit your suctioning attempt to no more than:

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

15 seconds

d)

20 seconds

97.

What is the primary contraindication for inserting an Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA)?

a)

The patient is under the age of 8

b)

The patient is breathing shallowly

c)

The patient has a suspected spinal injury

d)

The patient has an intact gag reflex

98.

You are applying a Nonrebreather Mask (NRB) to a patient in significant respiratory distress. What is the minimum flow rate you should use to ensure proper reservoir bag inflation and a high concentration of oxygen?

a)

6 L/min

b)

8 L/min

c)

10 L/min

d)

15 L/min

99.

Forming a General Impression during the primary assessment involves:

a)

Checking vital signs and the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

b)

Determining the patient’s age, gender, and level of consciousness (LOC)

c)

Assessing the patient's environment, level of distress, and appearance

d)

Performing a full head-to-toe physical examination

100.

A patient who responds only to a firm rub on the sternum or a pinch on the trapezius muscle would be assigned which letter in the AVPU scale?

a)

A (Alert)

b)

V (Verbal)

c)

P (Pain)

d)

U (Unresponsive)

101.

When asking a patient, "Did the pain start suddenly, or has it been getting worse over a few hours?" you are assessing the O of the OPQRST mnemonic, which stands for:

a)

A. Onset

b)

Orientation

c)

Origin

d)

Oxygenation

102.

You are dispatched to a single-car motor vehicle crash. After ensuring scene safety, what is the most critical question to answer immediately regarding the patient's condition?

a)

What is the Nature of Illness (NOI)?

b)

What is the Mechanism of Injury (MOI)?

c)

What is the patient's last oral intake?

d)

Does the patient have any known allergies?

103.

The volume of air moved in or out of the lungs during one normal breath is defined as:

a)

Minute volume

b)

Residual volume

c)

Dead air space

d)

Tidal volume

104.

A patient exhibiting increased work of breathing, accessory muscle use, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, but maintaining a normal mental status, is most likely in:

a)

Respiratory arrest

b)

Respiratory arrest

c)

Respiratory distress

d)

Hypercapnia

105.

The liquid portion of the blood that carries formed elements, nutrients, and waste products is called:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Plasma

c)

Platelets

d)

Leukocytes

106.

Your radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following except:

a)

Patient's age and gender

b)

Estimated time of arrival (ETA)

c)

Detailed past medical history from the patient’s family

d)

Chief complaint and vital sign trends

107.

A patient presents with high fever, severe cough, and non-specific flu-like symptoms after a suspicious, fine white powder was released in a public building.

You suspect exposure to an airborne pathogen like:

a)

Hepatitis C

b)

Pertussis

c)

Anthrax

d)

HIV/AIDS

108.

In a multi-casualty incident involving a hazardous material, which zone is the designated area for decontamination?

a)

Hot zone

b)

Cold zone

c)

Warm zone

d)

Exclusion zone

109.

In a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI), a patient who is awake, walking, and has a superficial laceration to the arm should be given a triage tag color of:

a)

Red (Immediate)

b)

Yellow (Delayed)

c)

Green (Minor)

d)

Black (Deceased)

110.

For a patient involved in a significant Mechanism of Injury (MOI) who is unresponsive, the recommended maximum time the EMT should spend on the scene ("Platinum __ Minutes") is:

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

20 minutes

111.

A patient who is in profound shock with warm, flushed skin and bradycardia after falling from a roof most likely has:

a)

Hypovolemic shock

b)

Cardiogenic Shock

c)

Neurogenic shock

d)

Septic shock

112.

Which type of shock is caused by the physical obstruction of blood flow, such as a tension pneumothorax or cardiac tamponade?

a)

Distributive shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Obstructive shock

d)

Anaphylactic shock

113.

You find a patient with severe shortness of breath, a deviated trachea, and absent lung sounds on the left side following a motor vehicle collision. This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of a(n):

a)

Simple pneumothorax

b)

Hemothorax

c)

Traumatic asphyxia

d)

Tension pneumothorax

114.

Which of the following signs indicates that a patient has moved from compensated to decompensated shock?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Pale, cool skin

c)

Increased anxiety

d)

Systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg

115.

When direct pressure fails to control severe, life-threatening external bleeding from an extremity, the EMT should immediately apply a:

a)

Pressure dressing

b)

Hemostatic agent

c)

Tourniquet

d)

Cold compress

116.

A patient has a deep, jagged-edged wound that extends through the skin and underlying soft tissue. This injury is best described as a(n):

a)

Abrasion

b)

Avulsion

c)

Contusion

d)

Laceration

117.

A 14-year-old patient has a large shard of glass impaled in the upper chest. Your primary treatment should involve:

a)

Quickly removing the glass to assess for bleeding

b)

Applying a traction splint to the chest

c)

Stabilizing the object in place with bulky dressings

d)

Cutting the object to make transport easier

118.

A construction worker presents with red, hot, and dry skin, an altered mental status, and is no longer sweating. The most appropriate field diagnosis is:

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Heat cramps

c)

Heat stroke

d)

Hypothermia

119.

Proper field management for a patient with a severe snakebite from a suspected pit viper includes:

a)

Applying a tourniquet above the wound site

b)

Immobilizing the affected limb and keeping the patient calm

c)

Applying ice to the wound to slow venom spread

d)

Incising the bite marks and attempting to suck out the venom

120.

A traction splint is specifically indicated for which of the following injuries?

a)

Fracture of the humerus

b)

Angulated fracture of the tibia/fibula

c)

Mid-shaft closed femur fracture

d)

Dislocation of the knee

121.

A patient with a suspected severe brain injury begins exhibiting the three signs of Cushing's triad. These signs are:

a)

JVD, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension

b)

Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations

c)

Tachycardia, tachypnea, and warm, dry skin

d)

Altered mental status, low blood pressure, and narrow pulse pressure

122.

For a patient pulled from cold water, the first priority of rescue is to:

a)

Check for a pulse for a full minute

b)

Immediately begin passive rewarming

c)

Initiate rescue breaths first, then check for a pulse

d)

Rapidly remove wet clothing and perform a secondary assessment

123.

You are treating a patient with multiple injuries, including a head injury, fractured pelvis, and internal bleeding. This patient is classified as having:

a)

An isolated injury

b)

A simple trauma

c)

Multisystem trauma

d)

A single-system failure

124.

You hear a high-pitched, harsh sound primarily on inspiration in a patient who reports a sudden allergic reaction. This sound is most likely:

a)

Wheezing

b)

Crackles (Rales)

c)

Gurgling

d)

Stridor

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Chapter 12

119 questions

Chapter 12

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University

psicodiagnostica

120 questions

psicodiagnostica

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University