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Introduction to Coronary Physiology

Total questions: 29

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which limitation of coronary angiography best explains why physiological assessment is needed for ischemia evaluation?

a)

It provides a 2D lumen image only, not ischemia

b)

It measures microvascular resistance directly at rest

c)

It captures overall coronary flow during adenosine stress

d)

It reliably correlates lesion severity with patient symptoms

2.

Which index primarily assesses epicardial stenosis to determine whether a lesion is flow-limiting?

a)

Fractional Flow Reserve (FFR)

b)

Index of Microcirculatory Resistance (IMR)

c)

Coronary Flow Reserve (CFR)

d)

Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

3.

A patient has persistent angina despite non-obstructive epicardial arteries on angiography. Which physiological measure best targets microvascular disease?

a)

Index of Microcirculatory Resistance (IMR)

b)

Computed Tomography angiography (CT)

c)

Fractional Flow Reserve (FFR)

d)

Resting Full-cycle Ratio (RFR)

4.

Which statement best defines fractional flow reserve (FFR) in coronary physiology?

a)

Noninvasive flow ratio computed from CT angiography

b)

Ratio of distal to proximal pressure during maximal hyperemia

c)

Average distal-to-aortic pressure during the full cardiac cycle

d)

Diastolic-only distal-to-aortic pressure without hyperemia

5.

A patient is assessed with iFR rather than FFR. Which procedural feature most distinguishes iFR from FFR?

a)

Measured in diastole without vasodilator drugs

b)

Requires pharmacologic hyperemia to be induced

c)

Computed from 3D CT fluid simulations

d)

Uses intravascular ultrasound pressure sensors

6.

What is the typical agreed cut-off value indicating a significant lesion when using pressure-wire based FFR?

a)

Greater than or equal to 0.89 is abnormal

b)

Less than or equal to 0.75 is abnormal

c)

Greater than or equal to 0.91 is abnormal

d)

Less than or equal to 0.80 is abnormal

7.

A study aims to reduce unnecessary PCI by guiding decisions with physiological metrics. Which approach aligns with evidence from FAME and subsequent trials?

a)

Adopt FFR guidance validated in randomized trials

b)

Apply QFR without prior intravascular validation

c)

Rely solely on OCT-derived optical flow ratio (OFR)

d)

Use angiographic diameter stenosis thresholds alone

8.

Which statement best defines fractional flow reserve in coronary physiology?

a)

A microvascular resistance metric during resting flow

b)

A noninvasive estimate of ejection fraction during stress

c)

A lesion-specific physiological index at maximum hyperemia

d)

A vessel-level index of global myocardial perfusion

9.

During invasive FFR, what is the correct formula for calculating the index?

a)

Distal flow divided by proximal flow at baseline

b)

Mean Pd divided by mean Pa at hyperemia

c)

Systolic Pd divided by diastolic Pa during pacing

d)

Mean Pa divided by mean Pd at rest

10.

Why is maximum hyperemia required when measuring FFR?

a)

It stabilizes heart rate variability during wire measurements

b)

It reduces distal pressure to highlight collateral circulation

c)

It eliminates microvascular resistance to relate pressure to flow

d)

It increases arterial pressure uniformly across vessels

11.

A patient with stable ischemic heart disease has an FFR of 0.78 across a mid-LAD stenosis. What management implication is most consistent with accepted cut-off values?

a)

Further testing is unnecessary due to high FFR accuracy

b)

Revascularization is generally deferred given borderline value

c)

Revascularization is favored because FFR is ≤0.80

d)

Medical therapy alone is preferred regardless of symptoms

12.

FFRangio primarily differs from wire-based FFR by relying on which method?

a)

Direct pressure wire sensing with adenosine-induced hyperemia

b)

3D angiographic reconstruction to estimate flow across stenosis

c)

Doppler ultrasound to calculate coronary flow reserve

d)

Thermodilution to quantify coronary blood flow at rest

13.

FFRCT uses CTA and computational fluid dynamics. Which limitation most accurately reflects its current clinical use?

a)

Reliably models flow through stents and bypass grafts

b)

Validated for acute MI and unstable angina presentations

c)

Unaffected by timing and typically completed in under 10 minutes

d)

Accuracy depends on image quality and challenging anatomy

14.

In the DEFER trial, what clinical implication is associated with an FFR value of ≥0.75 in a lesion scheduled for PCI?

a)

Proceed with stenting due to ischemia risk

b)

Switch to iFR-guided revascularization

c)

Perform angiography-guided PCI urgently

d)

Defer PCI with no additional benefit observed

15.

Which statement best captures the primary advantage demonstrated by the FAME study when using FFR guidance compared with angiography alone in multivessel CAD?

a)

Improved combined MACE with fewer MI events

b)

Lower repeat revascularization at two years

c)

Shorter procedure time with similar safety

d)

Reduced contrast use without outcome changes

16.

In FAME 2, what strategy led to improved outcomes compared with medical therapy alone in stable CAD?

a)

PCI guided by FFR with DES stenting

b)

Routine PCI regardless of FFR

c)

Exclusive nuclear perfusion imaging

d)

Angiography-guided PCI of all lesions

17.

Which statement best describes the physiological basis of iFR and related non-hyperemic indices?

a)

They average Pd/Pa over three beats only in tachycardia

b)

They calculate systolic peak velocities across coronary stenoses

c)

They assess pressure ratio during the diastolic wave-free period at rest

d)

They measure flow during pharmacologic hyperemia using adenosine

18.

A lesion has iFR ≤0.89 with discordant FFR. What is the most reasonable clinical interpretation?

a)

Means RFR and dPR will necessarily be normal

b)

Likely due to microvascular dysfunction causing less hyperemic response

c)

Always indicates measurement error and should be discarded

d)

Proves the stenosis is non-significant with high certainty

19.

Which trial design outcome supports using iFR instead of FFR for guiding PCI?

a)

DEFINE-FLAIR reported non-inferior MACE rates between iFR- and FFR-guided PCI

b)

ADVISE showed superiority of iFR over FFR with p<0.001 for mortality

c)

iFR-SWEDEHEART found higher revascularization rates with iFR guidance

d)

VERIFY proved iFR had 100% sensitivity predicting positive HSR

20.

Which statement best defines coronary microvascular dysfunction (CMD)?

a)

Primary myocardial fiber thickening reducing contractility

b)

Aneurysmal dilation of coronary veins increasing capacitance

c)

Abnormalities of microcirculation reducing perfusion

d)

Damage to large epicardial coronary arteries causing focal stenosis

21.

Based on the wheel diagram, which clinical context commonly associates CMD with angina in the absence of obstructive epicardial disease?

a)

INOCA or MINOCA presentations with functional mechanisms

b)

HFpEF due to predominant cardiac fibrosis alone

c)

Takotsubo syndrome with systolic anterior motion

d)

Iatrogenic causes from chronic beta-blocker therapy

22.

Which formula correctly defines Coronary Flow Reserve under adenosine-induced maximal vasodilation?

a)

Hyperemic flow / resting flow

b)

Resting flow -hyperemic flow

c)

Resting flow / hyperemic flow

d)

Hyperemic flow - resting flow

23.

Which parameter combination most supports a diagnosis of coronary microvascular dysfunction in patients with nonobstructive coronary arteries?

a)

CFR greater than 2.5 and IMR less than 25

b)

CFR less than 2.5 and IMR greater than or equal to 25

c)

CFR equal to 2.5 and IMR equal to 25

d)

CFR greater than or equal to 3.0 and IMR equal to 20

24.

What is the correct expression for Index of Microvascular Resistance measured at maximal hyperemia?

a)

IMR = Pd / Tmn

b)

IMR = Pv x Tmn

c)

IMR = Pd x Tmn

d)

IMR = (Pd - Pv) x Tmn

25.

Which first-line regimen best aligns with structural coronary microvascular dysfunction management?

a)

Beta-blocker, ACE inhibitor, statin

b)

Calcium channel blocker, long-acting nitrate

c)

Aspirin, statin, ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker

d)

High-dose calcium channel blocker, nitrate

26.

In the CorMicA trial, what outcome supported tailored therapy after invasive diagnosis of CMD?

a)

Reduced need for vasodilator testing

b)

Improved angina questionnaire scores and QoL

c)

Lower incidence of acute coronary occlusion

d)

Elimination of epicardial spasm episodes

27.

Which physiologic indices measured with a dual pressure–temperature guidewire help diagnose CMD?

a)

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and heart rate variability

b)

Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and TIMI frame count

c)

Fractional Flow Reserve and wall shear stress

d)

Index of Microvascular Resistance and Coronary Flow Reserve

28.

What happens when an arteriole vasoconstricts?

a)

Radius decreases

b)

Resistance increases

c)

Pressure increases

d)

Flow decreases

29.

Epicardial coronaries represent (a)   of the coronary resistance to flow when no obstructive stenosis is present.