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2205 Exam 1 pt.5

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is assessing a client with PMDD. Which finding increases concern for severe outcomes per notes?

a)

Coexisting major depression/bipolar/anxiety disorders

b)

Eating yogurt daily

c)

Low HDL

d)

Wearing cotton underwear

2.

A client asks what “DSM-5-TR criteria” implies for PMDD diagnosis. Best response:

a)

A standardized set of psychiatric diagnostic criteria used to confirm PMDD based on symptom pattern and severity

b)

A lab test for BV

c)

A tumor marker

d)

A type of ultrasound

3.

A nurse plans teaching for BV prevention. Which advice is most appropriate?

a)

Avoid practices that disrupt normal vaginal flora (e.g., douching) and complete prescribed therapy

b)

Increase alcohol intake

c)

Stop all hygiene

d)

Use antibiotics prophylactically every month

4.

A client treated for chlamydia returns with the same symptoms two weeks later. Which nurse assessment is most critical?

a)

Whether sexual partner(s) were tested and treated concurrently

b)

Whether the client ate dairy

c)

Whether the client took calcium supplements

d)

Whether the client used a pessary

5.

A client with suspected HSV asks how testing is done. Which is correct per notes?

a)

Viral culture from lesion fluid and NAAT assays

b)

HBsAg

c)

DEXA scan

d)

CA-125

6.

A nurse is teaching Hep B prevention in a client with recent exposure. Which intervention is included in the notes?

a)

Hepatitis B immune globulin and vaccine series (as indicated)

b)

Fluconazole

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Clomiphene

7.

A nurse is counseling infertility risk factors in females per notes. Which is included?

a)

Smoking, alcohol, weight loss, age, stress-related amenorrhea

b)

High calcium diet

c)

HPV vaccination

d)

Wearing loose clothing

8.

A nurse is reviewing ovulation assessment methods. Which pairing is correct?

a)

LH surge + cervical mucus changes + BBT trends + midluteal progesterone

b)

CA-125 + Pap test

c)

Wet mount pH + whiff test

d)

DEXA scan + LDL level

9.

A client undergoing ovulation induction asks why the provider wants the “lowest dose possible.” Best reason per notes:

a)

To reduce risk of OHSS and multiples while aiming for one mature follicle

b)

To prevent HPV

c)

To cure BV

d)

To treat osteoporosis

10.

A nurse is reviewing primary syphilis teaching. Which statement is correct?

a)

The chancre can heal without treatment, but infection persists and progresses if untreated

b)

A chancre always itches severely

c)

Primary syphilis causes thick white discharge

d)

Primary syphilis is diagnosed by CA-125

11.

A client has a non-itching rash on palms and soles with fever and lymphadenopathy. Which stage is most consistent?

a)

Secondary syphilis

b)

Latent syphilis

c)

Primary syphilis

d)

Tertiary syphilis

12.

A nurse sees “latent syphilis” in a chart. What does this mean per notes?

a)

No visible manifestations but infection remains within the body

b)

Rapid onset pelvic pain with torsion

c)

Bone density loss

d)

Yeast hyphae on wet mount

13.

A nurse is evaluating a vulvar lesion with itching and white patches in an older client. Which risk factor condition is associated with vulvar cancer per notes?

a)

Lichen sclerosus

b)

PCOS

c)

Fibroadenoma

d)

Lactational amenorrhea

14.

Which is the most appropriate diagnostic next step for suspected vulvar malignancy?

a)

Biopsy of visible lesion

b)

Start SSRIs

c)

Give metronidazole

d)

Schedule semen analysis

15.

A nurse is teaching about cystocele using exact terminology. Which statement is correct?

a)

“A cystocele means the bladder prolapses into the vagina.”

b)

“A cystocele means the rectum herniates into the vagina.”

c)

“A cystocele means the uterus descends into the vagina.”

d)

“A cystocele means an ovarian cyst ruptures.”

16.

A nurse is teaching about rectocele using exact terminology. Which statement is correct?

a)

“A rectocele means the rectum herniates into the vagina.”

b)

“A rectocele means the bladder prolapses into the vagina.”

c)

“A rectocele means the uterus descends into the vagina.”

d)

“A rectocele means the cervix is infected by HPV.”

17.

A nurse is counseling a client with endometriosis and infertility. Which explanation best links endometriosis to infertility?

a)

Chronic inflammation/scarring can impair tubal function and ovum transport

b)

Endometriosis cures anovulation

c)

Endometriosis prevents adhesions

d)

Endometriosis only affects breasts

18.

A client asks why chlamydia is dangerous even if asymptomatic. Best nursing explanation:

a)

It can ascend causing PID, increasing infertility and ectopic pregnancy risk

b)

It always causes immediate pain

c)

It only affects males

d)

It is not treatable

19.

A nurse is teaching candidiasis therapy. Which statement is most accurate per notes?

a)

Oral antifungals are contraindicated during pregnancy (use appropriate alternatives as ordered)

b)

Candidiasis is treated with penicillin G

c)

Candidiasis pH is always > 7

d)

Candidiasis is reportable to public health

20.

A nurse is reviewing STI reporting. Which infection is explicitly listed as reportable (core list)?

a)

HIV

b)

Trichomoniasis

c)

Candidiasis

d)

PMS

21.

A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with HIV in labor. Which nursing focus best aligns with the notes?

a)

Minimize fetal exposure to maternal blood and anticipate antiretroviral management per protocol

b)

Encourage breastfeeding without discussion

c)

Perform invasive procedures routinely

d)

Avoid gloves to build rapport

22.

A nurse evaluates a client with PCOS for metabolic risks. Which set of comorbidities aligns with the notes?

a)

Insulin resistance → diabetes risk, fatty liver, HTN, dyslipidemia, sleep apnea, depression

b)

Only cervical cancer

c)

Only osteoporosis

d)

Only candidiasis

23.

A nurse is teaching about the “leading cause of infertility” in the endocrine/metabolic context. Which condition fits?

a)

PCOS

b)

BV

c)

Fibroadenoma

d)

Vulvar cancer

24.

A client asks which contraception provides STI protection. Best answer:

a)

External/internal condoms (barrier methods)

b)

Hormonal IUD

c)

Copper IUD

d)

Implant only

25.

A nurse plans a patient teaching statement about IUD risks. Which is most accurate?

a)

“IUDs can be displaced or rarely perforate the uterus; report severe pain or missing strings.”

b)

“IUDs eliminate the need for condoms for STI prevention.”

c)

“IUDs always cause infertility.”

d)

“IUDs are placed in the cervix, not the uterus.”

26.

A nurse is teaching the main symptom focus for endometrial cancer. Which is correct?

a)

Abnormal uterine bleeding, especially in postmenopausal clients

b)

Thick white discharge with pH < 4.5

c)

Fishy odor and clue cells

27.

A client with suspected ovarian cancer asks why CA-125 isn’t a perfect screening tool. Which nurse statement is most accurate?

a)

“CA-125 can be elevated in conditions other than ovarian cancer and is mainly used with clinical evaluation and monitoring.”

b)

“CA-125 is only positive in BV.”

c)

“CA-125 replaces biopsy.”

d)

“CA-125 is a pregnancy hormone.”

28.

A nurse is teaching about bacterial vaginosis treatment alternatives mentioned in notes. Which is included?

a)

Clindamycin (as alternative option)

b)

Risedronate

c)

Valacyclovir

d)

Teriparatide

29.

Which scenario requires mandatory public health reporting per the notes’ core list?

a)

Positive chlamydia NAAT

b)

Recurrent candidiasis

c)

PMDD with mood swings

d)

Fibrocystic breast changes

30.

A nurse is teaching about risk factors for cervical cancer. Which is included?

a)

Multiple sex partners, history of STIs, smoking, immunosuppressive disorder

b)

High calcium diet

c)

Daily exercise

d)

Low BMI

31.

A nurse is caring for a client with suspected menopausal transition. Which finding would require the nurse to pursue evaluation rather than assuming it’s menopause?

a)

12 months without menses at age 52

b)

Postmenopausal bleeding

c)

Mild night sweats

d)

Occasional hot flashes

32.

A client asks which condition is most common GYN cancer and most common in postmenopausal clients per notes. Which is correct?

a)

Ovarian cancer

b)

Cervical cancer

c)

Vulvar cancer

d)

Endometrial cancer

33.

A nurse is reviewing BV diagnostics. Which test is consistent with BV?

a)

pH < 4.5 with hyphae

b)

Positive whiff test with clue cells on wet mount

c)

HBsAg positive

d)

CA-125 elevated

34.

A nurse teaching about emergency contraception should include which statement?

a)

“Emergency contraception works mainly by delaying ovulation and is most effective when taken as soon as possible.”

b)

“It prevents STIs for 30 days.”

c)

“It is identical to a vasectomy.”

d)

“It treats BV.”

35.

A client on metronidazole for BV asks about drinking wine. Best response:

a)

“Alcohol is safe; take with wine for absorption.”

b)

“Only beer is unsafe.”

c)

“Only liquor is unsafe.”

d)

“Avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole.”

36.

A nurse is teaching PID warning signs that require urgent evaluation. Which is most concerning?

a)

Mild cyclic breast tenderness

b)

Clear stretchy mucus

c)

Fever, pelvic pain, and cervical motion tenderness

d)

Hot flashes only

37.

A nurse is counseling a patient with recurrent BV. Which behavior increases BV risk by disrupting normal flora?

a)

Weight-bearing exercise

b)

Douching

c)

Calcium intake

d)

HPV vaccination

38.

A nurse is planning GBS prophylaxis. Which client most clearly meets criteria for intrapartum antibiotics per notes?

a)

Scheduled cesarean birth with no labor and intact membranes

b)

Term labor with GBS negative screen

c)

Rupture of membranes ≥ 1818 hours with unknown GBS status

d)

Nonpregnant client with yeast infection

39.

A nurse is teaching TORCH risks. Which action best reduces toxoplasmosis risk?

a)

Share razors

b)

Avoid undercooked meat and use caution with cat litter exposure

c)

Drink alcohol daily

d)

Stop all dairy

40.

A nurse is teaching about infertility and weight loss. Which statement best fits the notes?

a)

Significant weight loss can contribute to stress-related amenorrhea and infertility risk

b)

Weight loss always increases ovulation immediately

c)

Weight loss cures endometriosis

d)

Weight loss prevents STIs

41.

A client asks why a hysterosalpingogram is ordered. Best response:

a)

“It checks for cervical cancer.”

b)

“It measures bone density.”

c)

“It evaluates whether fallopian tubes are open and assesses the uterine cavity.”

d)

“It diagnoses BV.”

42.

A nurse is teaching about GIFT. Which is correct?

a)

Fertilization occurs outside the body and embryos are placed in uterus

b)

Eggs and sperm are placed into the fallopian tube and fertilization occurs in vivo

c)

A single sperm is injected into the egg in the lab

d)

Washed sperm is placed into the uterus only

43.

A nurse is teaching about IUI. Which is correct?

a)

Egg retrieval and lab fertilization are required

b)

Zygote is placed into fallopian tube after lab fertilization

c)

Sperm is injected into egg in lab

d)

Washed sperm is inserted into the uterus around ovulation

44.

A nurse is teaching about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which combination aligns with the notes?

a)

Nulliparity, older age, infertility, endometriosis, BRCA 1/21/2 , Lynch syndrome, family history

b)

Low BMI and weight loss only

c)

BV and candidiasis only

d)

PMS and PMDD only

45.

A nurse is prioritizing education for STI prevention and public health safety. Which statement is the best closing teaching point?

a)

“Complete all prescribed treatment, ensure partners are treated when indicated, use barrier protection, and follow up—some infections are reportable for public health control.”

b)

“If symptoms stop, you can stop antibiotics.”

c)

“Only the patient needs treatment—partners don’t matter.”

d)

“IUDs prevent all STIs.”