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Untitled Quiz

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not considered one of the potential sources of conflict?

a)

too much communication

b)

group size and specialization

c)

value similarities

d)

short job tenure

e)

too little communication

2.

The traditional view of conflict is the belief that conflict is ________.

a)

harmful

b)

natural

c)

necessary

d)

situationally-dependent

e)

neutral

3.

Which of the following is not a cause of conflict, according to the traditionalist view?

a)

general poor communication between people

b)

lack of openness in the organization

c)

trust between people in the organization

d)

management failure to be responsive to employee needs

e)

management failure to be responsive to employee aspirations

4.

When people do not trust each other they are more than likely to engage in which of the following behaviours?

a)

promoting collaboration

b)

communicating accurately

c)

positional bargaining

d)

committing to a joint solution

e)

none of the above

5.

According to the interactionist's perspective, a group that functions without conflict is

a)

living up to behavioral ideals

b)

prone to becoming static and apathetic

c)

likely to be responsive to the need for change and innovation

d)

the most productive

e)

a rare phenomenon

6.

Which of the following types of conflict identified by the interactionist view is the least functional and the most damaging to productivity?

a)

task

b)

organizational

c)

relationship

d)

process

e)

institutional

7.

Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is termed ________ conflict.

a)

job

b)

task

c)

relationship

d)

process

e)

communication

8.

The first stage of the conflict process is termed ________.

a)

cognition and personalization

b)

behavioral manifestation

c)

potential opposition or incompatibility

d)

intention

e)

habituation

9.

Integrative bargaining focuses on ________.

a)

competition

b)

short-term benefits

c)

zero-sum gains

d)

ensuring balanced inputs

e)

long-term relationships

10.

The conflict-handling intention of avoiding is ____.

a)

assertive and uncooperative

b)

assertive and cooperative

c)

unassertive and uncooperative

d)

unassertive and cooperative

e)

assertive and reflective

11.

Which of the following conflict-handling orientations might involve attempting to find a win-win solution?

a)

avoiding

b)

collaborating

c)

accommodating

d)

compromising

e)

mollifying

12.

Which of the following is not a conflict-resolution technique?

a)

creating superordinate goals

b)

appointing a devil's advocate

c)

avoiding the conflict

d)

exercising authoritative command

e)

generating additional resources

13.

Distributive bargaining strategies

a)

are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use.

b)

are used in all interdependent relationships.

c)

are useful in maintaining long term relationships.

d)

can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common.

e)

None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.

14.

Your ________ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement.

a)

BATNA

b)

margin of error

c)

bid price

d)

asking price

e)

hidden value

15.

________ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a "fixed pie."

a)

Distributive

b)

Integrative

c)

Reflective

d)

Affective

e)

Conjunctive

16.

The ________ perspective focuses on productive conflict resolution starting both before and after the behavioral stage of conflict occurs, in order to minimize the negative effects on the organization.

a)

interactionist conflict

b)

task conflict

c)

managed conflict

d)

process conflict

e)

traditional conflict

17.

Integrative bargaining is characterized by:

a)

Information sharing

b)

Organizational politics

c)

Distributive negotiation

d)

Competition

e)

None of these

18.

Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique?

a)

expansion of resources

b)

compromise

c)

bringing in outsiders

d)

exercising authoritative command

e)

problem solving

19.

The target point is the

a)

point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations.

b)

negotiator's bottom line.

c)

first offer a negotiator quotes to his opponent.

d)

initial price set by the seller.

e)

None of the above describes the target point.

20.

Starting points

a)

are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes.

b)

are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way.

c)

are not known to the other party.

d)

are given up as concessions are made.

e)

None of the above describes starting points.

21.

The dimension of assertiveness refers to situations ________.

a)

in which one party attempts to satisfy his/her own concerns

b)

in which there is an expression of competition

c)

involving a major behavior change

d)

that lead to conflict

e)

in which one party behaves generously

22.

For task conflict to be productive, it should be ________.

a)

kept high

b)

kept low

c)

kept at low-to-moderate levels

d)

kept at moderate levels

e)

subject to managerial control

23.

The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of which of the following as possible?

a)

bargaining range

b)

resistance point

c)

target point

d)

bargaining mix

e)

None of the above.

24.

Disruptive action tactics can cause

a)

embarrassment

b)

increased costs

c)

anger

d)

escalation of conflict

e)

Disruptive action tactics can cause all of the above.

25.

The opening stance is ________.

a)

another name for the first round of concessions.

b)

the first price that a buyer quotes to a seller.

c)

the attitude to adopt during the negotiation.

d)

a package of concessions.

e)

All of the above describe the opening stance.

26.

The bargaining range is defined by

a)

the opening stance and the initial concession.

b)

the initial round of concessions.

c)

the bargaining mix and the opening stance.

d)

the opening offer and the counteroffer.

e)

The bargaining range is defined by all of the above.

27.

What action can be taken after the first round of offers?

a)

hold firm

b)

insist on the original position

c)

make some concessions

d)

make no concessions

e)

All of the above.

28.

Good distributive bargainers will

a)

begin negotiations with the other party with an opening offer close to their own resistance point.

b)

ensure that there is enough room in the bargaining range to make some concessions.

c)

accept an offer that is presented as a fait accompli.

d)

immediately identify the other party's target point.

e)

All of the above are actions that good distributive bargainers will take.

29.

Parties feel better about a settlement when negotiations involve a(n)

a)

immediate settlement.

b)

single round of concessions.

c)

progression of concessions.

d)

fait accompli.

e)

All of the above.

30.

What statement about concessions is false?

a)

Concessions are central to negotiations.

b)

Concession is another word for adjustments in position.

c)

Concession making exposes the concession maker to some risk.

d)

Reciprocating concessions is a haphazard process.

e)

All of the above statements are true.

31.

Concession making

a)

indicates an acknowledgment of the other party.

b)

shows a movement toward the other's position.

c)

implies a recognition of the legitimacy of the other party's position.

d)

recognizes the other party's position.

e)

All of the above are characteristics of concession making.

32.

When successive concessions get smaller, the most obvious message is that

a)

the negotiator is reaching the fatigue point.

b)

the resistance point is being approached.

c)

the concession maker's position is weakening.

d)

the negotiator has passed the resistance point.

e)

None of the above.

33.

Negotiators who make threats

a)

are perceived as more powerful than negotiators who do not use threats.

b)

receive higher outcomes than negotiators who do not use threats.

c)

are perceived as more cooperative in distributive negotiations.

d)

should use detailed, complex statements of demands, conditions and consequences.

e)

All of the above describe negotiators who make threats.

34.

To prevent the other party from establishing a committed position, a negotiator could

a)

give them the opportunity to evaluate the matter fully.

b)

acknowledge the other's commitment.

c)

reiterate the commitment.

d)

make a joke about the commitment.

e)

None of the above should be used to prevent the other party from establishing a committed position.

35.

Hardball tactics are designed to

a)

be used primarily against powerful negotiators.

b)

clarify the user's adherence to a distributive bargaining approach.

c)

pressure targeted parties to do things they would not otherwise do.

d)

eliminate risk for the person using the tactic.

e)

Hardball tactics are designed to accomplish all of the above.

36.

Aggressive behavior tactics include

a)

the relentless push for further concessions.

b)

asking for the best offer early in negotiations.

c)

asking the other party to explain and justify their proposals item by item.

d)

forcing the other side to make many concessions to reach an agreement.

e)

Aggressive behavior tactics include all of the above.

37.

The negotiator's basic strategy is to

a)

get information about the opposition and its positions.

b)

reach the final settlement as close to the other's resistance point as possible.

c)

convince members of the other party to change their minds about their ability to achieve their own goals.

d)

promote his or her own objectives as desirable, necessary, and inevitable.

e)

All of the above.

38.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful integrative negotiator?

a)

honesty and integrity

b)

an abundance mentality

c)

seeking mutual exclusivity

d)

systems orientation

e)

superior listening skills

39.

Which of the following processes is central to achieving almost all integrative agreements?

a)

moderating the free flow of information to ensure that each party's position is accurately stated

b)

exchanging information about each party's position on key issues

c)

emphasizing the commonalities between the parties

d)

searching for solutions that maximize the substantive outcome for both parties

e)

All of the above processes are central to achieving integrative agreements.

40.

Which of the following is a major step in the integrative negotiation process?

a)

identifying and defining the problem

b)

understanding the problem and bringing interests and needs to the surface

c)

generating alternative solutions to the problem

d)

evaluating and choosing a specific solution

e)

All of the above are major steps in the integrative negotiation process.

41.

Which of the following is not necessary for integrative negotiation to succeed?

a)

Each party should be as interested in the objectives and problems of the other as each is in his/her own—each must assume responsibility for the other's needs and outcomes as well as for his/her own.

b)

The parties must be committed to a goal that benefits both of them rather than to pursuing only their own ends.

c)

The parties must be willing to adopt interpersonal styles that are more congenial than combative, more open and trusting than evasive and defensive, more flexible (but firm) than stubborn (but yielding).

d)

Needs have to be made explicit, similarities have to be identified, and differences have to be recognized and accepted.

e)

All of the above are essential for integrative negotiation to succeed.

42.

Which of the following factors does not contribute to the development of trust between negotiators?

a)

We are more likely to trust someone we perceive as similar to us or as holding a positive attitude toward us.

b)

We often mistrust people who are dependent upon us because we are in a position to help or hurt them.

c)

We are more likely to trust people who initiate cooperative, trusting behavior.

d)

We are more likely to trust negotiators who make concessions.

e)

All of the above contribute to the development of trust between negotiators.

43.

Which perspective can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation?

a)

economics

b)

psychology

c)

anthropology

d)

law

e)

All of the above perspectives can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation.

44.

A situation in which solutions exist so that both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptable solution to a complex conflict is known as which of the following?

a)

mutual gains

b)

win-lose

c)

zero-sum

d)

win-win

e)

None of the above.

45.

Which is not a characteristic of a negotiation or bargaining situation?

a)

conflict between parties

b)

two or more parties involved

c)

an established set of rules

d)

a voluntary process

e)

None of the above is a characteristic of a negotiation.

46.

Tangible factors

a)

include the price or terms of agreement.

b)

are psychological motivations that influence the negotiations.

c)

include the need to look good in negotiations.

d)

cannot be measured in quantifiable terms.

e)

None of the above statements describe tangible factors.

47.

Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation?

a)

the need to look good

b)

final agreed upon price on a contract

c)

the need to appear "fair" or "honorable"

d)

to maintain a good relationship

e)

All of the above are intangible factors.

48.

Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by

a)

the process through which an agreement is reached and the dollar value of concessions made by each party.

b)

the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation as compared to the initial bargaining positions of the negotiators.

c)

the process through which an agreement is reached and by the actual outcome obtained by the negotiation.

d)

the total dollar value of concessions made by each party.

e)

Satisfaction with a negotiation is determined by none of the above.

49.

Which of the following contribute to conflict's destructive image?

a)

increased communication

b)

misperception and bias

c)

clarifying issues

d)

minimized differences; magnified similarities

e)

All of the above contribute to conflict's destructive image.

50.

Whereas distributive bargaining is often characterized by mistrust and suspicion, integrative negotiation is characterized by which of the following?

a)

obligation and perseverance

b)

avoidance and compromise

c)

influence and persuasiveness

d)

trust and openness

e)

cognition and emotion

51.

The concept of "duty ethics" states that

a)

the rightness of an action is determined by evaluating the pros and cons of its consequences.

b)

the rightness of an action is determined by existing laws and contemporary social standards that define what is right and wrong and where the line is.

c)

the rightness of an action is based on the customs and norms of a particular society or community.

d)

the rightness of an action is based on one's conscience and moral standards.

52.

This approach to ethical reasoning holds that the rightness of an action is determined by evaluating the pros and cons of its consequences.

a)

end-result ethics

b)

duty ethics

c)

social contract ethics

d)

personalistic ethics

53.

This type of ethical reasoning believes that the rightness of an action is based on the customs and norms of a particular community.

a)

end-result ethics

b)

duty ethics

c)

social contract ethics

d)

personalistic ethics

54.

Most of the ethical issues that arise in negotiation are concerned with standards of

a)

honesty, or how honest, candid, and disclosing the other party is.

b)

duty, or the obligation to adhere to consistent principles, laws, and social standards.

c)

truth-telling, or how honest, candid, and disclosing a negotiator should be.

d)

social contracts, or the principles of community-based socially acceptable behavior.

55.

What is the implication of the dilemma of trust?

a)

We believe everything the other says and can be manipulated by their dishonesty.

b)

We do not believe anything the other says and therefore are immune to their dishonesty.

c)

We tell the other party our exact requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore we will never do better than this minimum level.

d)

We never reveal our requirements and limits in negotiation, and therefore are able to far exceed that minimum level.

56.

Which of the following is not listed in the text as a category of a marginally ethical negotiating tactic?

a)

cognitive manipulation

b)

emotional manipulation

c)

misrepresentation to opponent's networks

d)

bluffing

57.

Which of the following is not seen as a marginally ethical negotiating tactic?

a)

integrative tactics

b)

misrepresentation

c)

traditional competitive bargaining

d)

inappropriate information collection

58.

Once an ethically ambiguous tactic is employed, the negotiator will assess consequences on three standards. Which of the following is not one of those standards?

a)

whether the tactic worked by producing the desired result

b)

whether the tactic worked in the past

c)

how the negotiator feels about themselves after using the tactic

d)

how the negotiator may be judged by the other party or by neutral observers

59.

Which of the following statements is not true about how power is related to ethical choices in negotiation?

a)

The purpose of using ethically ambiguous negotiating tactics is to increase the negotiator's power in the bargaining environment.

b)

Information has power because negotiation is intended to be a rational activity involving the exchange of information and persuasive use of that information.

c)

Negotiators with power are more likely to be tempted to engage in deception.

d)

Individuals are more willing to use deceptive tactics when the other party is perceived to be uninformed or unknowledgeable—with less power.

60.

When using the justification that "the tactic was unavoidable," the negotiator is saying that

a)

the negotiator was not in full control of his or her actions and hence should not be held responsible.

b)

what the negotiator did was really trivial and not very significant.

c)

the tactic helped to avoid greater harm.

d)

the quality of the tactic should be judged by its consequences.

61.

When using the "intimidation" tactic to detect deception, one should

a)

emphasize the futility and impending danger associated with continued deceit.

b)

lie to the other to make them believe you have uncovered their deception.

c)

play down the significance of any deceptive act.

d)

make a "no-nonsense" accusation of the other.

62.

When using the "altered information" tactic to detect deception, one should

a)

try to get the other to admit a small or partial lie about some information and use this to push for admission of a larger lie.

b)

exaggerate what you believe is the deception and state it, hoping that the other will jump in to "correct" the statement.

c)

point out behaviors you detect in the other which might be an indication they are lying.

d)

indicate one's true concern for the other's welfare.

63.

Which of the following approaches to dealing with the other party’s use of deception is considered a last-resort strategy?

a)

ignoring the tactic

b)

“calling” the tactic

c)

responding in kind

d)

discussing what you see and offering to help them change to more honest behaviors

64.

Which of the following statements is not true of selective perception?

a)

Environmental complexity makes it impossible to process all available information.

b)

As perceivers, we select which stimuli to tune in on while tuning out other stimuli.

c)

Selective perception is efficient and accurate.

d)

There are many perceptual shortcuts allowing us to process information more readily.

65.

The halo effect occurs when

a)

attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group.

b)

people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual.

c)

the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief.

d)

people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves.

66.

When a negotiator singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief and filters out information that does not conform to that belief, the negotiator is engaging in which perceptual distortion?

a)

projection

b)

stereotyping

c)

halo effect

d)

selective perception

67.

Projection occurs when

a)

attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group.

b)

people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual.

c)

the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief.

d)

people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves.

68.

Frames are important in negotiation because

a)

they allow parties to develop separate definitions of the issues.

b)

they can be avoided.

c)

disputes are often nebulous and open to different interpretations.

d)

frames are a rigid, unchanging platform to define the issues.

69.

In which type of frame would parties be more likely to engage primarily in distributive (win-lose or lose-lose) negotiations than in other types?

a)

a strong identity frame

b)

a strong aspiration frame

c)

a strong outcome frame

d)

a strong process frame

70.

Which of the following statements about the use of frames in a negotiation is not true?

a)

Mismatches in frames between parties are sources of conflict.

b)

Parties negotiate differently depending on the frame used in the negotiation.

c)

Negotiators are likely to assume a particular frame because of various factors.

d)

Negotiators use only one frame during a negotiation.

71.

Another approach to framing disputes suggests that parties in conflict use one of three frames: interests, rights, and ________.

a)

power

b)

personality

c)

issues

d)

emotions

72.

This process is critical to issue development and includes changes to the thrust, tone, and focus of a conversation as the parties engage in it.

a)

perception

b)

reframing

c)

cognition

d)

emotional intelligence

73.

The irrational escalation of commitment is a cognitive bias that refers to

a)

the standard against which subsequent adjustments are measured during negotiation.

b)

the perspective or point of view that people use when they gather information and solve problems.

c)

how easily information can be recalled and used to inform or evaluate a process of a decision.

d)

a negotiator’s commitment to a course of action, even when that commitment constitutes irrational behavior on his/her part.

74.

Which of the following is not a cognitive bias?

a)

the irrational escalation of commitment

b)

the belief that the issues under negotiation are all “fixed pie”

c)

the process of anchoring and adjustment in decision making

d)

the winner’s circle

75.

Frames can lead people to seek, avoid, or be neutral about risk in negotiation. Which of the following statements about issue framing and risk is true?

a)

Negotiators are more risk-averse when a decision problem is framed as a possible loss.

b)

Negotiators are more risk-seeking when a decision problem is framed as a possible gain.

c)

Negotiators may overreact to a perceived loss when they might react positively to the same situation if it is framed as a perceived gain.

d)

When negotiators are risk-seeking, they are more likely to accept any viable offer simply because they are afraid of losing.

76.

Which of the following cognitive biases can lead negotiators to discount the worth or validity of the judgment of others?

a)

overconfidence

b)

mythical fixed-pie beliefs

c)

anchoring and adjustment

d)

availability of information

77.

The endowment effect

a)

is the process of making attributions to the person or the situation.

b)

is the process of drawing conclusions from small sample sizes.

c)

is when negotiators believe their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is actually true.

d)

is the tendency to overvalue something you own or believe you possess.

78.

To overcome the negative effects of misperception and cognitive biases in negotiation, a negotiation should be aware of the existence of these biases, understand their negative effects, and

a)

know how to retaliate.

b)

be prepared to discuss them when appropriate.

c)

know when to fight the effects and when to ignore the effects.

d)

be prepared to withstand the effects.

79.

Which of the following tactics is not offered as advice on how to deal with an opponent who brings negative emotion to the negotiating table?

a)

turn the table

b)

reflect the emotion back to the other party

c)

anchor and adjust the reference point

d)

separate the emotion from its expression

80.

The distinction between mood and emotion is based on three characteristics: specificity, ________, and duration.

a)

density

b)

framing

c)

judgment

d)

intensity

81.

Which of the following statements about how emotion plays a part in negotiation is accurate?

a)

Negotiations only create negative emotions.

b)

Positive feelings do not promote persistence.

c)

Negative feelings may create positive outcomes.

d)

Positive emotion may result from impasse.

82.

A communication framework for negotiation is based on the assumptions that

a)

the communication of offers is a static process, unchanging over time.

b)

the offer process is interactive, bargainers influence each other.

c)

this process widens the bargaining range.

d)

every negotiator has a BATNA.

83.

Which of the following statements is true of alternatives, or a BATNA, in a negotiating situation?

a)

The BATNA offering the most benefits is one unknown to the other party.

b)

When both parties are aware of the attractive BATNA that one negotiator has, that negotiator receives a less positive negotiation outcome.

c)

Negotiators with attractive BATNAs set lower reservation prices for themselves.

d)

Negotiators whose counterparts have attractive BATNAs set lower reservation points for themselves.

84.

When a negotiator offers this type of explanation they are suggesting that while their current position may appear negative, it derives from positive motives, such as an honest mistake.

a)

mitigating circumstances

b)

exonerating circumstances

c)

reframing

d)

outcomes

85.

Communication during negotiation sometimes consists of explanations made to the other party. One type of explanation is an explanation of mitigating circumstances, where

a)

negotiators suggest that they had no choice in taking the positions they did.

b)

negotiators suggest that while their current position may appear negative it derives from positive motives.

c)

outcomes can be explained by changing the context.

d)

negotiators who use multiple explanations are more likely to have better outcomes.

86.

Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of language in negotiation is not true?

a)

The meaning conveyed by a statement is a combination of one pragmatic surface message and several logical (i.e., hinted or inferred) messages.

b)

The pragmatic level of communication appears in semantics, syntax, and style.

c)

The logical level generally appears in proposals or offers.

d)

In negotiation, language operates at two levels: the logical, and the pragmatic.

87.

Three main techniques are available for improving communication in negotiation: the use of questions, listening, and

a)

high-power language style.

b)

role reversal.

c)

patience.

d)

motives.

88.

Which of the following are types of manageable questions?

a)

close-out questions

b)

leading questions

c)

impulse questions

d)

loaded questions

89.

Which of the following options is not one of the three major forms of listening?

a)

acknowledgement

b)

feedback

c)

passive listening

d)

active listening

90.

In passive listening

a)

the receivers restate or paraphrase the sender's message in their own language.

b)

the receivers interject responses to keep communicators sending messages.

c)

the receiver provides no feedback to the sender about the accuracy or completeness of reception.

d)

senders may misinterpret acknowledgments as the receiver's agreement with their position, rather than simply receiving the message.

91.

Which of the following options is not one of the six environmental context factors making international negotiations more challenging than domestic negotiations?

a)

political and legal pluralism

b)

foreign governments and bureaucracies

c)

relative bargaining power

d)

international economic factors

92.

Which of the following is an immediate context factor in cross-cultural negotiations?

a)

external stakeholders

b)

instability

c)

international economic factors

d)

relationship between negotiators

93.

Firms conducting business in different countries may face organizational tax implications, labor codes or standards that must be met, and different codes of contract law and standards of enforcement, all indicative of this factor adding to the complexity of internal negotiations.

a)

political and legal pluralism

b)

international economics

c)

instability

d)

ideology

94.

When a negotiator from France stresses group rights over individual rights and public investment as a better allocation of resources than private investment, this best exemplifies a difference in

a)

culture.

b)

international economics.

c)

ideology.

d)

political and legal pluralism.

95.

Which of the following is considered an immediate stakeholder in an international negotiation?

a)

the embassy of the foreign country

b)

industry associations

c)

the board of directors of the company represented in the negotiations

d)

business associations

96.

The "culture-as-shared-value" approach

a)

concentrates on documenting the systematic negotiation behavior of people in different cultures.

b)

concentrates on understanding the central values and norms of a culture and then building a model for how these norms and values influence negotiations within that culture.

c)

recognizes that all cultures contain dimensions or tensions among their different values.

d)

recognizes that no human behavior is determined by a single cause.

97.

When examining culture as shared values, the individualism/collectivism dimension describes

a)

the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally.

b)

the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group.

c)

the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine.

d)

the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations.

98.

When examining culture as shared values, the power distance dimension describes

a)

the extent to which the less powerful members of organizations and institutions accept and expect that power is distributed unequally.

b)

the extent to which the society is organized around individuals or the group.

c)

the extent to which cultures hold values that were traditionally perceived as masculine or feminine.

d)

the extent to which a culture programs its members to feel either uncomfortable or comfortable in unstructured situations.

99.

Negotiators from high uncertainty avoidance cultures

a)

strongly depend on cultivating and sustaining a long-term relationship.

b)

may be more likely to "swap" negotiators, using whatever short-term criteria seem appropriate.

c)

may need to seek approval from their supervisors more frequently.

d)

may not be comfortable with ambiguous situations and may be more likely to seek stable rules and procedures when they negotiate.

100.

Which of the following options is not one of the ten ways that culture can influence negotiations?

a)

relative bargaining power

b)

the formality of the relations between the two negotiating parties

c)

the criteria used to select who will participate in a negotiation

d)

the perception of an opportunity for negotiation

101.

One way that culture can influence negotiation is the degree of protocol considered important in a negotiation. Protocol is

a)

the differences in body language across cultures.

b)

the formality of the relations between the two negotiating parties.

c)

the criteria used to select who will participate in a negotiation.

d)

the perception of an opportunity for negotiation.

102.

Negotiators from this culture tend to watch time carefully during negotiations and guard it as a valuable resource.

a)

the Chinese culture

b)

the American culture

c)

the Latin American culture

d)

the Islamic culture

103.

Risk-avoiding cultures will

a)

be willing to move early on a deal.

b)

generally take more chances.

c)

be more likely to seek further information.

d)

be less likely to take a wait-and-see stance.

104.

In group-oriented cultures

a)

the individual comes before the group's needs.

b)

decisions are primarily made by senior executives.

c)

decision making is an efficient, streamlined process.

d)

negotiators may be faced with a series of discussions over the same issues and materials with many different people.

105.

Which of the following strategies should negotiators with a low familiarity with the other culture choose?

a)

employ agents or advisers

b)

adapt to the other party's approach

c)

coordinate adjustment

d)

embrace the other party's approach