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Page 1

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Any shaking of the ground measurable by seismic instruments is called what?

a)

aftershock event recorded by seismographs

b)

earthquake detected by instruments

c)

ground tremor from surface winds

d)

volcanic rumble beneath mountains

2.

Tectonic plates that spread apart from each other are called what type of plates?

a)

diverging plates moving apart

b)

transform boundary plates moving sideways

c)

subducting plates sliding under

d)

converging plates colliding

3.

Tectonic plates that move toward each other at a boundary are called what?

a)

converging plates moving together

b)

diverging plates separating slowly

c)

transform plates shifting laterally

d)

uplift plates rising vertically

4.

The amount of strain a rock can handle without breaking relates to which property?

a)

density controlling mass per volume

b)

porosity determining water storage

c)

magnetism aligning iron minerals

d)

ductility allowing limited deformation

5.

When a material stretches past its elastic limit, what happens suddenly?

a)

it bends but stays intact

b)

it melts into magma

c)

it compresses and hardens

d)

it breaks and releases energy

6.

True or False: It is now possible to predict earthquake hours, if not days, in advance.

a)

True: precise forecasts are routine

b)

False: reliable predictions are not possible

c)

False: instruments can only warn minutes

d)

True: patterns guarantee timing

7.

True or False: Rocks in the crust can bend, stretch, and compress a little.

a)

True: rocks flow like liquids daily

b)

True: rocks deform under stress

c)

False: rocks only shatter instantly

d)

False: rocks cannot deform at all

8.

Which boundary type is most likely to involve plates sliding horizontally past one another?

a)

subduction zone with sinking

b)

transform boundary with lateral motion

c)

convergent boundary with collision

d)

divergent boundary with spreading

9.

Which situation best explains why energy is released during earthquakes?

a)

constant bending without breaking

b)

uniform compression maintaining balance

c)

steady creep preventing buildup

d)

elastic limit exceeded causing fracture

10.

A student claims that converging plates always produce volcanoes. What is the best evaluation of this claim?

a)

Never associated with plate boundaries

b)

Sometimes true depending on subduction

c)

Always correct for any convergence

d)

Only occurs at divergent ridges

11.

Which level of Depth of Knowledge requires recalling facts and simple procedures?

a)

DoK Level 4: Extended Thinking

b)

DoK Level 3: Strategic Thinking

c)

DoK Level 2: Skill and Concept

d)

DoK Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

12.

What is the primary focus of DoK Level 2 tasks?

a)

Memorizing isolated facts

b)

Planning multi-step investigations

c)

Writing extended research papers

d)

Applying skills and concepts

13.

Which DoK level asks for reasoning and evidence use?

a)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

b)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

c)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

d)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

14.

A question asking students to list three causes of a local event best fits which DoK level?

a)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

b)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

c)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

d)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

15.

Choosing the correct definition of ‘primary source’ aligns with which DoK level?

a)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

b)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

c)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

d)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

16.

Classifying examples into ‘primary’ and ‘secondary’ sources is mainly which DoK level?

a)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

b)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

c)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

d)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

17.

Using a map scale to estimate distance requires which DoK level?

a)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

b)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

c)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

d)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

18.

Evaluating two conflicting accounts to infer what likely happened fits which DoK level?

a)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

b)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

c)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

d)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

19.

Planning questions to interview a community elder about past events best matches which DoK level?

a)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

b)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

c)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

d)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

20.

Selecting the correct term for ‘a map symbol key’ tests which DoK level?

a)

Level 4: Extended Thinking

b)

Level 3: Strategic Thinking

c)

Level 2: Skill and Concept

d)

Level 1: Recall and Reproduction

21.

Which event marks the build-up phase before an earthquake along a fault?

a)

Aftershocks are released

b)

A fault locks up and builds stress

c)

Plates suddenly move at the fault

d)

Jerks occur along the fault

22.

What is the immediate cause of ground shaking in an earthquake sequence?

a)

Jerks along the fault

b)

One plate subducts beneath the other

c)

A fault locks and builds stress

d)

Subducting plates cause faults

23.

Which statement about faults is correct?

a)

Faults never form near plate boundaries

b)

Faults occur only on land

c)

Faults are unrelated to subduction

d)

Faults occur beneath oceans too

24.

Which process can initially create faults at convergent boundaries?

a)

Subducting plates cause faults

b)

Stress building in locked faults

c)

Jerks during aftershocks

d)

Sudden plate movement on a fault

25.

During an earthquake origin sequence, which event is most likely to occur right after the plates suddenly move?

a)

A fault locks and builds stress

b)

Aftershocks are released

c)

One plate begins subduction

d)

Subducting plates create faults

26.

At a convergent boundary, what event describes one plate sliding beneath another?

a)

One plate subducts beneath the other

b)

Fault locks with accumulating stress

c)

Jerks create the earthquake shaking

d)

Plates along the fault suddenly move

27.

Which pair of events best represents the mainshock and its typical follow-up?

a)

Jerks along fault, aftershocks released

b)

Subducting plates, fault locks

c)

Plates suddenly move, subduction starts

d)

Fault locks, plates subduct

28.

Which event is most directly linked to the release of accumulated tectonic stress?

a)

Subducting plates create new faults

b)

Aftershocks occur for days or weeks

c)

A fault locks and builds stress

d)

Jerks along the fault create shaking

29.

What sequence start is most plausible for an earthquake at a subduction zone?

a)

Subducting plates cause faults initially

b)

Aftershocks happen before mainshock

c)

Jerks occur before any stress builds

d)

Fault locks and builds stress first

30.

Which event describes movement at the fault just before aftershocks?

a)

A fault begins locking again

b)

One plate subducts beneath the other

c)

Subducting plates cause faults

d)

Plates along the fault suddenly move

31.

Which statement best describes civic participation in a democracy?

a)

Judges create policies for the legislature

b)

Officials make all decisions without input

c)

Citizens vote and engage in community actions

d)

Political parties control all local services

32.

What is the primary role of the constitution in a government?

a)

Collects taxes and distributes welfare

b)

Sets limits and defines government powers

c)

Elects representatives for each district

d)

Runs daily city services and schools

33.

Which source is most reliable for verifying a historical event’s date?

a)

Personal blog without citations

b)

Unverified post on social media

c)

A fictional movie adaptation

d)

Primary document from the time period

34.

A town meeting allows residents to speak on a local policy. What principle is demonstrated?

a)

Military oversight of civil authorities

b)

Centralized control of all resources

c)

Judicial supremacy over legislation

d)

Popular participation in decision-making

35.

Which example shows a check and balance between branches of government?

a)

Police writing national education laws

b)

Courts collecting municipal taxes

c)

Legislature appointing local teachers

d)

Executive veto of a legislative bill

36.

A news article includes statistics and cites official reports. Which skill is used to judge its credibility?

a)

Predicting election outcomes

b)

Memorizing political slogans

c)

Evaluating evidence and sources

d)

Ignoring contradictory data

37.

A student compares two maps: one population density and one natural resources. What concept is applied?

a)

Spatial analysis using multiple layers

b)

Single-source narrative interpretation

c)

Eliminating geographic context

d)

Random guessing from illustrations

38.

Which action best demonstrates responsible digital citizenship during research?

a)

Cross-check facts before sharing online

b)

Forward every claim without review

c)

Delete sources that disagree with you

d)

Use only anonymous message boards

39.

A city council proposes a new public transit plan. What is the most appropriate first step for stakeholders?

a)

Review data and attend public hearings

b)

Organize protests without any evidence

c)

Reject the plan on social media threads

d)

Ignore meetings and wait for outcomes

40.

Which scenario illustrates the rule of law?

a)

Judges decide based on private opinions

b)

Officials charged for violating legal limits

c)

Leaders exempt from all court rulings

d)

Police enforce unwritten personal orders

41.

Which waves do not travel through the earth’s interior?

a)

Surface waves move along Earth’s exterior

b)

Body waves move deep through the mantle

c)

S waves travel only through liquids

d)

P waves travel through the whole interior

42.

Which waves are the last to arrive at a seismic station?

a)

S waves arrive after P waves

b)

Body waves arrive after surface waves

c)

P waves arrive first and fastest

d)

Surface waves arrive after body waves

43.

Which waves are the second to arrive at a seismic station?

a)

P waves arrive second at stations

b)

S waves arrive after P waves

c)

Surface waves arrive before P waves

d)

Love waves arrive before S waves

44.

Which are considered the most destructive earth waves?

a)

P waves cause the greatest damage

b)

S waves cause the greatest damage

c)

Surface waves cause the greatest damage

d)

Body waves cause the greatest damage

45.

Which body waves are strongest and slowest?

a)

Rayleigh waves are strongest and slowest

b)

Surface waves are strongest and slowest

c)

S waves are strongest and slowest

d)

P waves are strongest and slowest

46.

Which waves are the first to arrive at a seismic station?

a)

P waves arrive first at stations

b)

S waves arrive first at stations

c)

Surface waves arrive first at stations

d)

Rayleigh waves arrive first at stations

47.

Which waves are not required to determine an earthquake’s epicenter?

a)

S waves are not required for location

b)

Body waves are not required for location

c)

P waves are not required for location

d)

Surface waves are not required for location

48.

Love and Rayleigh waves are examples of which category?

a)

Surface waves along the crust

b)

S waves within the mantle

c)

Body waves through the core

d)

P waves within the interior

49.

Earthquakes can happen in places where there isn’t a known fault. Select the best answer.

a)

This statement is always true

b)

This statement is mostly false

c)

This statement is partially true

d)

This statement is always false

50.

The location of an earthquake epicenter is determined by what information from seismic stations?

a)

The strength of shaking recorded

b)

The frequency of P-wave cycles

c)

The arrival-time differences

d)

The maximum ground displacement

51.

Which feature is most commonly used by governments to show the location of cities on a political map?

a)

Icons or dots marking settlements

b)

Colored elevation shading for terrain

c)

Arrows indicating trade wind directions

d)

Latitude lines highlighting climate zones

52.

A scale bar on a map helps you do which task accurately?

a)

Compare national constitutions quickly

b)

Measure real-world distances precisely

c)

Identify official languages used

d)

Predict election outcomes reliably

53.

Which statement best explains the difference between physical and political maps?

a)

Physical shows GDP rankings; political shows resources

b)

Physical shows cultural traits; political shows currency

c)

Physical shows voting districts; political shows rainfall

d)

Physical shows natural features; political shows boundaries

54.

On a historical timeline, what does placing events in chronological order allow you to do?

a)

Forecast monsoon seasons accurately

b)

Determine exact population densities

c)

Evaluate present-day tariffs effectively

d)

Track causes and effects over time

55.

Which source is most reliable for verifying a date of a treaty?

a)

A modern movie dramatization

b)

An anonymous blog commentary

c)

A fictional novel about the leaders

d)

A primary document copy of the treaty

56.

A region defined by a shared climate pattern is best described as which type of region?

a)

Formal region with common traits

b)

Political region with legal borders

c)

Perceptual region based on opinions

d)

Functional region tied to services

57.

Which scenario best illustrates relative location?

a)

Elevation 1,500 meters above sea

b)

Population 2.3 million residents

c)

North of the river, near the bridge

d)

41° N latitude, 74° W longitude

58.

When analyzing a population pyramid, what trend would a wide base most likely indicate?

a)

Mostly working-age with migration

b)

Balanced ages with steady growth

c)

High birth rates and youth majority

d)

Low birth rates and aging population

59.

If a government invests heavily in infrastructure, which economic effect is most plausible in the medium term?

a)

Permanent unemployment reduction

b)

Guaranteed trade surplus yearly

c)

Improved productivity and growth

d)

Immediate elimination of inflation

60.

Which factor most directly drives cultural diffusion between neighboring societies?

a)

Strict border closures always enforced

b)

Isolation by high mountain barriers

c)

Regular trade and travel interactions

d)

Uniform school curricula nationwide

61.

Which scale estimates the energy released by an earthquake?

a)

Richter magnitude scale

b)

Seismic hazard map

c)

Mercalli intensity scale

d)

Moment tensor scale

62.

Which hazard is especially common in urban areas during strong earthquakes?

a)

Tsunami surge waves

b)

Building collapse and fire

c)

Subduction zone uplift

d)

Ground liquefaction only

63.

Which hazard is most associated with mountainous areas after a strong quake?

a)

Landslide movement

b)

Tsunami inundation

c)

Coastal flooding

d)

Volcanic ashfall

64.

Which scale identifies the destructiveness of an earthquake based on observed effects?

a)

Seismic station count

b)

Moment magnitude scale

c)

Richter magnitude scale

d)

Mercalli intensity scale

65.

Which hazard is especially a concern in coastal regions following a large earthquake?

a)

Tsunami waves

b)

Deep-focus tremors

c)

Mountain rockfalls

d)

Urban gas explosions

66.

A city experiences widespread fires and collapsed structures after shaking. Which hazard occurred?

a)

Landslide debris flow

b)

Tsunami wave train

c)

Aftershock sequence

d)

Building collapse and fire

67.

Why are landslides a frequent earthquake hazard in mountainous regions?

a)

Sea waves rise suddenly

b)

Flat plains absorb energy

c)

Urban gas lines rupture

d)

Steep slopes can fail

68.

Which statement best distinguishes magnitude from intensity in earthquakes?

a)

Both describe observed building damage only

b)

Both measure energy released by faults equally

c)

Magnitude describes damage; intensity measures energy

d)

Magnitude measures energy; intensity describes effects

69.

A coastal town receives an official tsunami warning after a nearby quake. What primary risk does this warning address?

a)

Large sea waves inundation

b)

Ground shaking duration

c)

Urban electrical fires

d)

Mountain slope failure

70.

Emergency planners compare reports of damage from many neighborhoods to rate the quake’s impact. Which scale are they likely using?

a)

Moment magnitude rating

b)

Richter magnitude number

c)

Seismic gap index

d)

Modified Mercalli Intensity

71.

Which branch of government is primarily responsible for making laws in a constitutional democracy?

a)

Judicial branch interprets laws

b)

Executive branch enforces laws

c)

Federal agencies administer laws

d)

Legislative branch makes laws

72.

What is the main purpose of a constitution in a nation-state?

a)

To set election dates

b)

To list everyday civic duties

c)

To collect national taxes

d)

To limit and organize government

73.

Which feature best describes the rule of law?

a)

Leaders are above legal limits

b)

Laws apply to all equally

c)

Citizens vote every year

d)

Judges serve for short terms

74.

A federal system divides power between which levels of government?

a)

Executive and judicial

b)

National and state/provincial

c)

Local and municipal only

d)

City and county officials

75.

Which principle prevents any single branch from becoming too powerful?

a)

Majority rule

b)

Checks and balances

c)

Direct democracy

d)

Popular sovereignty

76.

In a market economy, prices are primarily determined by which forces?

a)

Government wage boards

b)

Supply and demand forces

c)

Corporate charters

d)

International treaties

77.

Which right is protected by freedom of speech?

a)

Serving on juries often

b)

Expressing opinions publicly

c)

Owning property freely

d)

Traveling without passports

78.

Which example shows civic responsibility rather than a legal requirement?

a)

Serving when drafted

b)

Voting in elections

c)

Paying taxes yearly

d)

Obeying traffic laws

79.

A bill passed by the legislature can be vetoed by whom in a presidential system?

a)

State governors jointly

b)

Chief justice of court

c)

President or executive

d)

Speaker of the house

80.

Which factor most contributes to cultural diffusion across regions?

a)

Strict border closures

b)

Limited media access

c)

Uniform national language

d)

Trade and migration

81.

Which type of government best ensures citizens have a voice through elected representatives?

a)

Direct democracy with town meetings

b)

Monarchy led by hereditary rulers

c)

Representative democracy with elections

d)

Authoritarian rule by a single leader

82.

Which economic system relies primarily on markets and private ownership to allocate resources?

a)

Command economy run by the state

b)

Mixed economy with public services

c)

Traditional economy based on custom

d)

Market economy with private firms

83.

What is the main purpose of a constitution in a nation-state?

a)

To manage daily government budgets

b)

To outline laws for local schools

c)

To establish a framework limiting power

d)

To set prices for national goods

84.

Which civic responsibility most directly supports the legitimacy of a democracy?

a)

Serving on juries when called

b)

Paying taxes on earned income

c)

Voting in regular elections

d)

Volunteering for community parks

85.

A federal system divides governing authority between which levels?

a)

Executive and judicial branches

b)

County and municipal agencies

c)

National and state or provincial

d)

International and regional councils

86.

Which scenario best illustrates checks and balances in practice?

a)

Judiciary reviewing executive actions

b)

Executive enforcing enacted laws

c)

Legislature vetoing court rulings

d)

Courts drafting new tax laws

87.

In a supply and demand graph for a popular product, what happens when demand increases while supply stays constant?

a)

Price decreases and quantity rises

b)

Price stays constant and quantity falls

c)

Price increases and quantity rises

d)

Price decreases and quantity falls

88.

Which principle supports equal treatment for all under the law?

a)

Due process with fair procedures

b)

Eminent domain for public use

c)

Diplomatic immunity for officials

d)

Fiscal policy setting tax rates

89.

A citizen writes to a representative about local transit funding. Which democratic value is this exercising?

a)

Freedom of commercial contracts

b)

Freedom from self-incrimination

c)

Freedom of petition to government

d)

Freedom of interstate travel

90.

Which policy action is most likely a fiscal tool to stabilize the economy?

a)

Raising interest rates by the central bank

b)

Changing tax rates through legislation

c)

Setting safety standards for factories

d)

Adjusting exchange rates at customs

91.

Most major faults in the United States are found in __________.

a)

inland prairies

b)

southwestern deserts

c)

coastal plains

d)

mountain ranges

92.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A transform fault is a type of dip-slip fault.

b)

A normal fault is a type of strike-slip fault.

c)

A reverse fault is a type of dip-slip fault.

d)

A locked fault must be a dip-slip fault.

93.

Secondary, smaller earthquakes that result from a major earthquake are called __________.

a)

dip slips

b)

strike slips

c)

epicenters

d)

aftershocks

94.

An instrument that both detects and records earth waves is a __________.

a)

seismoscope

b)

seismograph

c)

seismotracker

d)

seismometer

95.

Seismic waves travel

a)

in all of these ways.

b)

through the earth, including the core.

c)

through the earth, but not the core.

d)

only on the earth’s surface.

96.

Rayleigh waves and Love waves are both examples of __________.

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

surface waves

d)

tremor waves

97.

Which of the following is not related to locating an earthquake?

a)

overthrust

b)

focus

c)

seismic wave

d)

epicenter

98.

Earthquakes are most common

a)

near the edges of tectonic plates.

b)

at the North and South Poles.

c)

in the center of continental plates.

d)

in river valleys.

99.

One quake measures 6.0 on a magnitude scale and another measures 7.0. How does the second quake’s energy compare with the first?

a)

It has slightly more energy

b)

It does one time more damage

c)

It has about thirty-two times more energy

d)

It is ten times more energetic

100.

Which earthquake magnitude scale do geologists commonly use to report to the public?

a)

The linear scale

b)

The Modified Mercalli Intensity scale

c)

The Richter scale

d)

The moment magnitude scale

101.

Which of the following terms does not belong with the rest?

a)

Rayleigh

b)

Richter

c)

Moment magnitude

d)

Modified Mercalli Intensity scale

102.

An ocean wave caused by an earthquake is called a(n) ________.

a)

Tidal wave

b)

L wave

c)

Breaker

d)

Tsunami

103.

Most earthquakes are too gentle for people to feel.

a)

True statement

b)

False statement

c)

True in cities only

d)

False in cities only

104.

All types of rock, when under stress, respond in the same way.

a)

False statement

b)

True statement

c)

True for sedimentary rock

d)

True for igneous rock

105.

Modern seismologists believe that faults and earthquakes are caused by tectonic forces.

a)

True only for big quakes

b)

False except near volcanoes

c)

False statement

d)

True statement

106.

The very heavy mass of standard seismometers readily moves as earthquake waves pass by.

a)

True statement

b)

True for S waves only

c)

False statement

d)

True for P waves only

107.

The last waves to reach distant seismographs are the S waves.

a)

False only across continents

b)

True statement

c)

False statement

d)

True only across oceans

108.

Some types of seismic waves are unable to travel through Earth’s core.

a)

True statement

b)

False statement

c)

False only for deep-focus waves

d)

True only for surface waves

109.

Which term refers to a fault where blocks move mainly horizontally past each other?

a)

Oblique-slip fault movement

b)

Reverse-slip fault movement

c)

Dip-slip fault movement

d)

Strike-slip fault movement

110.

What is identified as the point within Earth where earthquake energy first releases?

a)

Focus within the crust

b)

Magnitude at the site

c)

Epicenter beneath surface

d)

Richter scale location

111.

Which label names the point on Earth’s surface directly above the focus?

a)

Focus on the surface

b)

Mercalli observation point

c)

Epicenter at ground level

d)

P-wave generation site

112.

Which body wave travels fastest through Earth’s interior?

a)

S wave travels quickest

b)

P wave travels quickest

c)

Love wave travels quickest

d)

Surface wave travels quickest

113.

Which body wave cannot travel through Earth’s liquid outer core?

a)

S wave lacks transmission

b)

P wave lacks transmission

c)

Strike wave lacks transmission

d)

Love wave lacks transmission

114.

Which scale estimates earthquake effects felt by people and structures?

a)

Mercalli scale intensity

b)

Moment magnitude scale

c)

Richter scale intensity

d)

P-wave amplitude scale

115.

Which measure indicates the energy released by an earthquake event?

a)

Mercalli intensity value

b)

Richter magnitude value

c)

Focus location value

d)

Epicenter depth value

116.

In the diagram, what does angle A represent on the horizontal circle?

a)

Fault strike direction

b)

Fault dip direction

c)

Fault focus direction

d)

Fault slip direction

117.

In the diagram, what does angle B represent along the vertical plane?

a)

Fault dip angle

b)

Fault strike angle

c)

Fault epicenter angle

d)

Fault magnitude angle

118.

In the diagram, what feature does label C indicate along the exposed surface?

a)

Epicenter trace line

b)

Fault trace line

c)

Seismic wave front

d)

Focus trace line

119.

Which type of stress is most significant in causing earthquakes?

a)

Shear stress along faults

b)

Tension stress at ridges

c)

Compression stress in cores

d)

Thermal stress from magma

120.

A crack in a rock where movement has occurred is called a what?

a)

Crevasse in ice

b)

Fault in the crust

c)

Joint without slip

d)

Fracture from heat

121.

Seismologists need data from at least how many seismic stations to pinpoint an earthquake’s epicenter?

a)

Four distant stations

b)

Three separate stations

c)

Two nearby stations

d)

One precise station

122.

The Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale rates earthquakes based on which measure?

a)

Released wave energy

b)

Damage and destructiveness

c)

Aftershock frequency

d)

Fault rupture length

123.

Which statement best distinguishes hazard from risk in natural disasters?

a)

Hazard is magnitude, risk is intensity

b)

Hazard is prediction, risk is preparedness

c)

Hazard is likely injury, risk is ground shaking

d)

Hazard is a source of danger, risk is chance of harm

124.

Which action can reduce or even eliminate risk but cannot change the underlying hazard?

a)

Shortening fault rupture

b)

Lowering earthquake magnitude

c)

Strengthening building codes

d)

Stopping plate movement

125.

At divergent boundaries, how do tectonic plates move?

a)

Plates collide together

b)

Plates slide past

c)

Plates move apart

d)

Plates subduct vertically

126.

At convergent boundaries, how do tectonic plates move?

a)

Plates move away from each other

b)

Plates rotate around a pole

c)

Plates slide in opposite directions

d)

Plates come toward each other

127.

At transform boundaries, how do tectonic plates move?

a)

Plates slide past each other

b)

Plates converge and subduct

c)

Plates rift and spread

d)

Plates uplift together

128.

Why is it inaccurate to call a tsunami a tidal wave?

a)

Tsunamis come from strong surface winds

b)

Tsunamis follow daily lunar tides

c)

Tsunamis are caused by underwater earthquakes

d)

Tsunamis only occur in narrow bays

129.

Discuss the difference between a joint and a fault including the three main types of faults that can form.

a)

A joint is a break with magma; faults are volcanic vents.

b)

A joint is sediment layering; faults are erosion features.

c)

A joint is a fold with movement; faults are static folds.

d)

A joint is a crack without movement; faults involve movement types.

130.

Contrast the three main types of seismic waves. Include in your discussion their path of travel, speeds, relative intensities, and destructive power.

a)

P waves only travel on surface; S waves strongest body waves; surface waves harmless.

b)

P waves are fastest body waves; S waves slower; surface waves most destructive.

c)

P waves are slow surface waves; S waves fastest; body waves most destructive.

d)

P waves cannot pass core; S waves pass core; surface waves weakest.

131.

In relation to earthquakes, the statement says ground shaking alone seldom causes deaths. If this is true, then why do so many people die in large earthquakes?

a)

Building collapse, fires, service disruption, tsunamis, and landslides.

b)

Seasonal weather patterns directly cause fatalities.

c)

Ground cracks widen slowly, allowing safe evacuation.

d)

Earth’s rotation amplifies shaking without structural damage.