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Economics Unit 3 AOS1 Part 1

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 8hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The level of output per unit of labour

a)

Technical/ productive efficiency

b)

Labour contraction

c)

Labour retention

d)

Labour productivity

2.

Example: Education

Students gain private benefits from education,

such as higher income, better job opportunities, and improved skills.

Students mainly consider these private benefits when deciding whether to study.

Education also creates external benefits for society,

such as higher productivity, lower crime rates, and better economic growth.

However, students do not consider these external benefits when making their decision.

As a result, education is under-consumed.

This leads to lower demand for education services.

Education providers respond by offering fewer courses.

This causes fewer teachers to be hired, resulting in an under-allocation of labour. This is called Positive externality.

Therefore, there is an under-allocation of resources because the producer or consumer does not consider the external benefit.

This situation is known as a __________.

a)

Positive externality

b)

Negative externality

c)

Dynamic efficiency

d)

Adverse selection

3.

Example: Research and Development (R&D)

Firms gain private benefits from investing in research and development (R&D), such as higher profits and competitive advantage.

Firms mainly consider these private benefits when deciding how much to invest in R&D.

R&D also creates external benefits for society, such as new knowledge, technological spillovers, and long-term economic growth.

However, firms do not fully consider these external benefits because other firms and society can benefit for free.

As a result, R&D is under-invested in.

This leads to lower demand for researchers, laboratories, and innovation facilities.

Firms hire fewer scientists and engineers, resulting in an under-allocation of resources, especially labour and capital, to R&D.

Therefore, there is an under-allocation of resources because the producer does not consider the external benefit.

This situation is known as a ?

a)

Positive externality

b)

Negative externality

c)

Dynamic efficiency

d)

Adverse selection

4.

Price elasticity of supply (PES) measures how responsive quantity supplied is to a change in price.
Low price elasticity of supply means supply is inelastic

  • Inelastic supply = producers cannot easily change output

  • So even when price changes, quantity supplied changes only a little

    Example: Think about agriculture in the short run:

    If the price of wheat rises today

    Farmers cannot instantly grow more crops

    Land, time, and weather limit supply

    So:

    Price increase a lot

    Quantity supplied ↑ only a little

    ➡️ Low PES

    Low price elasticity of supply means that:

a)


A change in price will lead to an inverse change in quantity supplied.

b)


A change in price will lead to a large change in quantity supplied.

c)

A change in price will lead to a relatively small change in quantity supplied.

d)

A change in price will lead to no change in quantity supplied.

5.

Where Demand > Supply causing upward pressure on price

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Shortage

c)

Surplus

d)

Capital

6.

Technological change

a)


A demand-side factor

b)

A supply-side factor

c)

% change in quantity supplied / % change in PC

d)

% change in quantity demand / % change in Pc

7.


Non-price factors likely to affect supply and the position of the supply curve, including changes in the
Costs of production,
Number of suppliers,
Technology,
Productivity and
Climatic conditions


Technological change is ??

a)


A demand-side factor

b)

A supply-side factor

c)

% change in quantity supplied / % change in PC

d)

% change in quantity demand / % change in Pc

8.

Factors that impact PES include:

a)

Technological advancements, weather conditions and trade agreements

b)


Income levels, interest rates and government policies

c)

Production period, spare capacity and durability of goods

d)


Consumer preferences, market trends and advertising

9.

Price elasticity of supply (PES) measures how easily producers can change output when price changes.

The correct factors are all about how quickly and easily production can change.
1️⃣ Production period

This is the time needed to produce more output.

  • Short production period → hard to increase supply → low PES

  • Long production period → easier to increase supply → high PES

Example:

  • Agricultural goods → long time to grow → low PES (short run)

    2️⃣ Spare capacity

    This is whether firms have unused resources.

    • High spare capacity → firms can increase output quickly → high PES

    • No spare capacity → output can’t rise much → low PES

    Example:

    • Factories with idle machines can respond fast to price rises

      3️⃣ Durability of goods

      This is whether goods can be stored.

      • Durable goods → can be stockpiled and released → high PES

      • Perishable goods → cannot be stored → low PES

      Example:

      • Cars (durable) vs fresh milk (perishable)


        Factors that impact PES include ???

a)

Technological advancements, weather conditions and trade agreements

b)


Income levels, interest rates and government policies

c)

Production period, spare capacity and durability of goods

d)


Consumer preferences, market trends and advertising

10.

Will cause an over-allocation of resources because the producer or consumer will not consider the social cost

a)

Positive externality

b)


Negative externality

c)


Dynamic efficiency

d)

Moral Hazard

11.

Example: Pollution from Factories

Firms gain private benefits from producing goods, such as higher profits and lower production costs.
Firms mainly consider these private benefits when deciding how much to produce.

Production also creates external costs for society, such as air pollution, health problems, and environmental damage.
However, firms do not consider these external costs when making their production decisions.

As a result, too much output is produced.
This leads to excessive production activity.
Firms continue producing at high levels because production appears cheap to them.
This results in too much labour, capital, and land being used in polluting industries, causing an over-allocation of resources.

So, this will cause an over-allocation of resources because the producer or consumer does not consider the social cost.
This situation is known as a negative externality.

Therefore, _____________ will cause an over-allocation of resources because the producer or consumer will not consider the social cost.

a)

Positive externality

b)


Negative externality

c)


Dynamic efficiency

d)

Moral Hazard

12.

Price elasticity of demand (PED) measures how responsive quantity demanded is to a change in price.

So the key question is:
👉 How easily can consumers change what they buy when price changes?
1️⃣ Degree of necessity

  • Necessities (e.g. food, medicine) → demand is inelastic

  • Luxuries (e.g. holidays, designer clothes) → demand is elastic

Why: people still buy necessities even when prices rise.

2️⃣ Availability of substitutes

  • Many substitutes → demand is elastic

  • Few or no substitutes → demand is inelastic

Why: if the price rises, consumers can switch to alternatives.

3️⃣ Proportion of income

  • High proportion of income → demand is elastic

  • Low proportion of income → demand is inelastic

Why: consumers react more when a price change hurts their budget.

4️⃣ Time

  • Short run → demand is more inelastic

  • Long run → demand becomes more ela?stic

Why: consumers need time to adjust behaviour and find substitutes.

Factors that impact PED include?

a)

Market competition, labor wages, raw material availability

b)

Government regulations, tax rates, interest rates

c)

Production costs, supply chain efficiency, technological innovation

d)

Degree of necessity, availability of substitutes, portion of income and time

13.

Non-price factors likely to affect demand and the position of the demand curve, including
1. Changes in disposable income,
2. The prices of substitutes and
3. Complements,
3. Preferences and tastes,
4. Interest rates,
5. Population demographics and
6. Consumer confidence


Population growth is .....

a)

A supply-side factor

b)


% change in Qd / % change in Pc

c)


% change in Qs / % change in PC

d)

A demand-side factor

14.

Means that suppliers must compete on price

a)


There are too many firms

b)

There are too few firms

c)


Price is greater than marginal cost

d)

Products are homogenous

15.

Homogeneous products are identical in the eyes of consumers.

  • No difference in quality

  • No difference in features

  • No difference in branding

Because products are the same, consumers will:
👉 choose the cheapest option

Why suppliers must compete on price, because______

a)


There are too many firms

b)

There are too few firms

c)


Price is greater than marginal cost

d)

Products are homogenous

16.

Where the government provides the good or service to society

a)


Indirect taxation

b)


Regulation

c)

Compliments

d)

Direct government provision

17.

The question says:

“Where the government provides the good or service to society.”

Direct government provision means:

  • The government itself produces or supplies the good or service

  • It is not relying on prices, taxes, or rules

Examples:

  • Public education, Public hospitals, Public transport, Police and defence

So the wording matches direct government provision exactly.
Indirect taxation

This means the government changes prices by adding a tax (e.g. GST, tobacco tax).
The government is not providing the good, only influencing consumption.
Direct government provision occurs when the government directly supplies goods and services to society, such as healthcare and education.

Question: Where the government provides the good or service to society, it is called__________.

a)


Indirect taxation

b)


Regulation

c)

Compliments

d)

Direct government provision

18.

Price elasticity of demand (PED) measures how responsive quantity demanded is when the price of a good changes. It is given by the formula:

The numerator (% change in Qd) shows how much buyers change the amount they buy when price changes.

The denominator (% change in P) shows how big the price change is in percentage terms.�

Change in Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) measured by: (elastic mean sensitive to price changes).

a)

% change in Qd / % change in Income

b)

% change in Qd / % change in Pc

c)


% change in Qd / % change in Qs

d)

% change in Qs / % change in PC

19.

Preferences, tastes and attitudes

a)


A supply-side factor

b)


A demand-side factor

c)

Where Demand > Supply causing upward pressure on price

d)

Degree of necessity, availability of substitutes, portion of income and time

20.

Price elasticity of supply (PES) measures how responsive quantity supplied is to a change in price.

  • Low price elasticity of supply means supply is inelastic

  • Inelastic supply = producers cannot easily change output

  • So even when price changes, quantity supplied changes only a little

That’s why:
👉 Price change → small change in quantity supply
Once you see “low elasticity”, your brain should auto-translate it to:
👉 “Not very responsive.”



Low price elasticity of supply means that:

a)

A change in price will lead to an inverse change in quantity supply

b)

A change in price will lead to a relatively small change in quantity supply

c)

A change in price will lead to a large change in quantity supply

d)

A change in price will lead to no change in quantity supply

21.

1) Indirect taxation: This means the government changes prices by adding a tax (e.g. GST, tobacco tax).
2) Progressive taxation:
This means the tax rate increases as income increases, so higher-income earners pay a higher percentage of their income in tax (e.g. income tax with tax brackets).
3) Proportional taxation:
This means everyone pays the same percentage of their income in tax, regardless of income level (e.g. a flat income tax rate such as 20% for all earners).
4) Specific tax:
This means a fixed amount of tax is charged per unit of a good or service, regardless of its price. (e.g. $1 per litre of petrol or $2 per packet of cigarettes).


A source of government revenue, applied to the production of goods and services causing the final price of good/ service to increase, this is ???

a)


Indirect taxation

b)


Progressive taxation

c)

Proportional taxation

d)

Specific tax

22.

Price elasticity of supply (PES) measures how responsive quantity supplied is to a change in price.

Low price elasticity of supply means supply is inelastic

Inelastic supply = producers cannot easily change output

So even when price changes, quantity supplied changes only a little

That’s why:

👉 Price change → small change in quantity supply



The responsive of quantity supplied to a change in price is ______

a)

Income elasticity of supply (IES)

b)

Price elasticity of supply (PES)

c)

Cross elasticity of supply (CES)

d)


Elasticity of production (EPS)

23.

Financial assistance provided by the government to a producer - is offered to ensure the production of certain goods and services

a)


Government subsidy

b)

Community service

c)

Production

d)

Government taxes

24.

The economic problem of having unlimited needs and wants with only limited means to satisfy them

a)

Relative price

b)

Surplus

c)

Relative scarcity

d)

Discretionary income

25.

The value of the next best alternative forgone whenever a choice is made

a)

Total cost

b)


Sunk cost

c)


Opportunity cost

26.

Resources are allocated such that society's welbeing is best satisfied

a)

Technical/ productive efficiency

b)


Scarcity

c)


Allocative efficiency

d)

Consumer confidence

27.

Factors that impact PES include:

a)

Technological advancements, weather conditions and trade agreements

b)

Income levels, interest rates and government policies

c)

Production period, spare capacity and durability of goods

d)

Consumer preferences, market trends and advertising

28.

Where one party to a transaction knows more about the product than the other party (Seller knows more than buyer or Buyer knows more than seller)

a)


Verifiable information

b)

Fraud

c)

Incomplete contract

d)


Asymmetric information

29.

High price elasticity of supply means that:

a)

A change in price will lead to relatively large change in Qs

b)

A change in price will lead to a decrease in Qs

c)

A change in price will lead to a relatively small change in Qs

d)

A change in price will lead to no change in Qs

30.

Good or service that is consumed with another good or service

a)

Substitutes

b)

Compliments

c)


Normal Good

d)

Inferior Good

31.

Technological change

a)

A demand-side factor

b)

A supply-side factor

c)

% change in Qd / % change in Pc

d)

% change in Qs / % change in PC

32.

As the price increases, the quantity supplied increases

a)

The law of supply

b)

The law of demand

c)

The law of diminishing returns

d)

The law of diminishing marginal utility

33.

Means that suppliers must compete on price

a)

There are too few firms

b)

Price is greater than marginal cost

c)

Products are homogenous

d)

There are too many firms

34.

What to produce? How to produce? Who to produce for?

a)

Four economic resources

b)

Many buyers and sellers

c)

The three economic questions

d)

Preferences, tastes and attitudes

35.

Preferences, tastes and attitudes

a)


A demand-side factor

b)

Where Demand > Supply causing upward pressure on price

c)

Degree of necessity, availability of substitutes, portion of income and time

d)

A supply-side factor

36.

The economic problem of having unlimited needs and wants with only limited means to satisfy them

a)

Discretionary income

b)

Relative scarcity

c)

Relative price

d)

Surplus

37.

The value of the next best alternative forgone whenever a choice is made

a)


Sunk cost

b)


Total cost

c)


Opportunity cost

d)


Fixed cost

38.

What are the conditions of a perfectly competitive market?

a)


Few buyers and sellers

b)


Many buyers and sellers

c)

No barriers to new firms entering the market

d)


High barriers to entry

e)


All firms selling identical products

39.

As prices increase, the quantity demanded decreases

a)

The law of one price

b)

The law of demand

c)

The law of diminishing returns

d)

The law of supply

40.

Movement up the demand curve

a)

Contraction along supply curve

b)

Contraction along demand curve

c)

Expansion along supply curve

d)

Expansion along demand curve

41.

Movement down demand curve

a)


Contraction along supply curve

b)

Expansion along demand curve

c)


Contraction along demand curve

d)

Expansion along supply curve

42.

Movement down supply curve

a)


Expansion along demand curve

b)

Contraction along demand curve

c)

Contraction along supply curve

d)


Expansion along supply curve

43.

As prices increase, the quantity demanded decreases

a)

The law of supply

b)

The law of demand

c)

The law of one price

d)

The law of diminishing returns

44.

Movement up supply curve

a)

Movement up supply curve

b)

Movement down supply curve

45.


Household income comes from:

  • Wages, rent, interest, profit (reward for contributing to production)

  • Plus government transfers (e.g. Centrelink payments)

  • Minus income tax

What’s left is the money households can actually spend or save.

👉 That final amount = Disposable income
Disposable income = Gross income + transfers − income tax

Definition: The reward received by household for contribution to production process plus government transfers less income tax

a)

Gross income

b)

Compliments

c)


Disposable income

d)

Gross pay

46.

The economic problem of having unlimited needs and wants with only limited means to satisfy them

(a)  

47.

The value of the next best alternative forgone whenever a choice is made

(a)  

48.

As prices increase, the quantity demanded decreases

(a)  

49.

Movement up the demand curve

(a)  

50.

Movement down demand curve

(a)  

51.

Movement down supply curve

(a)  

52.

Movement up supply curve

(a)  

53.

Disposable income

a)

The reward received by household for contribution to production process plus government transfers less income tax

b)

Disposable income available for spending and saving after an individual has paid for non-avoidable expenditures

54.
  1. Disposable income = income after tax and transfers

  2. Non-avoidable expenses = rent, food, utilities, transport

  3. What’s left after paying these essentials is:

This is the money used for:

  • Entertainment, Eating out, Holidays, Luxury goods
    Disposable income → after tax

  • Discretionary income → after necessities

    Discretionary income

a)

The reward received by household for contribution to production process plus government transfers less income tax

b)

Disposable income available for spending and saving after an individual has paid for non-avoidable expenditures

55.

How can a you increase the PPF

a)

By increasing productivity (output per input) or finding new resources

b)

Impossible to achieve

c)

encourage firms not to waste resources and use them to best satisfy consumers needs and wants.

d)

A balance in information between buyers and sellers.

56.

A point outside the PPF is

a)

By increasing productivity (output per input) or finding new resources

b)

Impossible to achieve

c)

encourage firms not to waste resources and use them to best satisfy consumers needs and wants.

d)

A balance in information between buyers and sellers.

57.

In a perfectly competitive market:

  • There are many firms

  • Products are homogeneous

  • Firms are price takers

  • Firms face strong competition

Because of this:

🔹 1. Firms must minimise costs

If a firm wastes resources or produces inefficiently, it will have higher costs than rivals and be forced out of the market.

👉 This leads to productive efficiency (no waste).

🔹 2. Firms must produce what consumers want

If a firm produces goods consumers do not want, it cannot sell them.

👉 Resources move toward producing goods and services that best satisfy consumer needs and wants.

This leads to allocative efficiency.

How do perfectly competitive markets increase efficiency?

a)

By increasing productivity (output per input) or finding new resources

b)

Impossible to achieve

c)

encourage firms not to waste resources and use them to best satisfy consumers needs and wants.

d)

A balance in information between buyers and sellers.

58.

Symmetric Information

a)

By increasing productivity (output per input) or finding new resources

b)

Impossible to achieve

c)

encourage firms not to waste resources and use them to best satisfy consumers needs and wants.

d)

A balance in information between buyers and sellers.

59.

Intertemporal efficiency

a)

The ability of an economy to shifting resources to different production via innovation and technology

b)

balancing the use of resources for today use with the future.

c)

the same as Technical efficiency

d)


Collective wellbeing is maximised. Overall people get what they want

60.

Allocative efficiency

a)

The ability of an economy to shifting resources to different production via innovation and technology

b)

balancing the use of resources for today use with the future.

c)

the same as Technical efficiency

d)


Collective wellbeing is maximised. Overall people get what they want

61.

Dynamic efficiency

a)

The ability of an economy to shifting resources to different production via innovation and technology

b)

balancing the use of resources for today use with the future.

c)

the same as Technical efficiency

d)


Collective wellbeing is maximised. Overall people get what they want

62.

Productive efficiency =

a)

The ability of an economy to shifting resources to different production via innovation and technology

b)

balancing the use of resources for today use with the future.

c)

the same as Technical efficiency

d)


Collective wellbeing is maximised. Overall people get what they want

63.

Product Markets

a)

where resources, especially capital and labor, are bought and sold

b)

anywhere on the PPF

c)

where goods and services are bought and sold

d)

Identical products

64.

Homogeneous goods and services

a)

where resources, especially capital and labor, are bought and sold

b)

anywhere on the PPF

c)

where goods and services are bought and sold

d)

Identical products

65.

Productive efficiency is .............. on the PPF

a)

where resources, especially capital and labor, are bought and sold

b)

anywhere on the PPF

c)

where goods and services are bought and sold

d)

Identical products

66.

Factor Markets

a)

where resources, especially capital and labor, are bought and sold

b)

anywhere on the PPF

c)

where goods and services are bought and sold

d)

Identical products

67.

Production Possibilities Frontier (PPF)

a)

It is the problem that all economies face, where limited resources are unable to meet unlimited needs and wants.

b)

It shows the maximum possible combinations of two goods or services that can be produced using limited resources and current technology.

c)

It occurs when resources are allocated in a way that maximises consumers' needs and wants, resulting in the highest possible living standards.

d)

It is an allocation of resources in which resources in the short-run are preserved for future consumption

68.

What and how much to produce?

Because of ________, resources are _______, so an economy cannot produce everything it wants.

As a result, choices must be made and there is an ___________ ____, as producing more of one good or service means producing less of another.

(a)  

69.

What and how much to produce?


Who answers it?

  • It is answered by _________, __________ and ___________




(a)  

70.

What and how much to produce?


Who answers it?

  • Consumers influence this decision through ______, businesses aim to maximise ______, and governments provide public _____ and ________.




(a)  

71.

Opportunity cost

a)

Opportunity cost is the value of the alternative that must be forgone when making a decision.

b)

Opportunity cost is the value of the next alternative that must be forgone when making a decision.

c)

Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative that must be forgone when making a decision.

d)

Opportunity cost is the value of the best that must be forgone when making a decision.

72.

Outline what is involved in the study of economics.

a)

Economics is the study of choices made by people in order to make people better off in terms of their living standards.

b)

Economics is the study of choices made by market in order to make people better off in terms of their living standards.

c)

Economics is the study of choices made by people, businesses and government in order to make people better off in terms of their living standards.

d)

Economics is the study of choices made by government in order to make country better off in terms of their living standards.

73.

Microeconomics

a)

Combining all markets and industries and the overall state of the country’s economy. It therefore concentrates on areas like national spending, output, income, employment, the inflation rate and overall material living standards.

b)

Involves looking at the operation of the smaller parts that make up the wider Australian economy. It therefore focuses on a single firm, industry, sector or a particular market.

74.

Macroeconomics

a)

Combining all markets and industries and the overall state of the country’s economy. It therefore concentrates on areas like national spending, output, income, employment, the inflation rate and overall material living standards.

b)

Involves looking at the operation of the smaller parts that make up the wider Australian economy. It therefore focuses on a single firm, industry, sector or a particular market.

75.

Select each of the issues as primarily areas of microeconomic studies.

a)

The reasons for Australia’s lower inflation rate

b)

the effects of a reduction in personal income tax rates

c)

the pricing of petrol by oil companies

d)

the causes of lower output and the decline of employment in the sugar industry

e)

the impact of rising debt levels on farmers in the Riverina area

76.

Select each of the issues as primarily areas of macroeconomic studies.

a)

The reasons for Australia’s lower inflation rate

b)

the effects of a reduction in personal income tax rates

c)

the pricing of petrol by oil companies

d)

the causes of lower output and the decline of employment in the sugar industry

e)

the effects of a slowdown in a country’s rate of economic growth

77.

Needs are

a)

goods and services necessary for survival

b)

goods and services that make life more enjoyable but are not essential to our survival.

78.

Wants are

a)

goods and services necessary for survival

b)

goods and services that make life more enjoyable but are not essential to our survival.

79.

Which one is a never-ending list of personal desires.

a)

Needs

b)

Wants

80.

Define natural resources

a)

the gifts that government provides

b)

the gifts that human provides

c)

the gifts that nature provides

81.

Distinguish capital resources from natural resources.

a)

Capital resources are the cost used in the production, while natural resources are those resources that occur in nature. Natural resources include arable land, oceans, minerals and native forests.

b)

Capital resources are human-made goods used in the production process, while natural resources are those resources that occur in nature. Natural resources include arable land, oceans, minerals and native forests.

82.

Natural resources — the gifts that nature provides; for example, arable land, rivers, forests, oceans.

Labour resources skilled and unskilled resources that provide physical power, mental talents and other specialised services used in the production process. Labour often refers to the workers within a business. Examples can include a mechanic, architect or shop attendant. Specialised labour can include entrepreneurship, representing management skills or business leadership.

Capital resources — the manufactured items often involving physical parts and equipment, such as machinery, factories, computer systems, trucks and, on a broader scale, infrastructure such as power generation, roads and railways.

a)

Yes

b)

No

83.

Explain why it is necessary for society to make economic choices or decisions about production and resource allocation or use.

a)

Society must make choices concerning how to use their maximum resources as efficiently as possible because relative scarcity means that we cannot have all the goods and services that we want.

b)

Society must make choices concerning how to use their limited resources as efficiently as possible because relative scarcity means that we cannot have all the goods and services that we want.

c)

Society does not need to make economic choices because resources are abundant and can meet all needs and wants.

d)

Only governments need to make economic decisions, as households and firms are not affected by scarcity.

84.

Define what is meant by opportunity cost and explain why it exists.

a)

Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative forgone when resources are used for one purpose instead of another.

b)

Opportunity cost exists because resources are limited.
Because of relative scarcity, we cannot use resources for all possible options at the same time.

c)

As a result, choices must be made, and choosing one option means giving up the next best alternative.

d)

Opportunity cost only exists when money is spent on a decision.

85.

Outline the general factors that affect the overall size of a nation’s production possibility frontier.

a)

foreign investment

b)

skilled immigration,

c)

exploration of natural resources

d)

new technology

e)

improved worker productivity or efficiency & improved labour force skills

86.

Allocative efficiency

a)

refers to when resources are allocated so that maximum output is achieved with lowest cost production methods in making goods and services.

b)

occurs when resources are reallocated quickly in response to the changing needs and tastes of consumers.

c)

occurs when all resources are allocated such that society's wellbeing is best satisfied.

d)

refers to finding the optimal balance between current consumption or an allocation of resources in which resources in the short-run are preserved for future consumption

87.

Productive efficiency

a)

refers to when resources are allocated so that maximum output is achieved with lowest cost production methods in making goods and services.

b)

occurs when resources are reallocated quickly in response to the changing needs and tastes of consumers.

c)

occurs when all resources are allocated such that society's wellbeing is best satisfied.

d)

refers to finding the optimal balance between current consumption or an allocation of resources in which resources in the short-run are preserved for future consumption

88.

Dynamic efficiency

a)

refers to when resources are allocated so that maximum output is achieved with lowest cost production methods in making goods and services.

b)

occurs when resources are reallocated quickly in response to the changing needs and tastes of consumers.

c)

occurs when all resources are allocated such that society's wellbeing is best satisfied.

d)

refers to finding the optimal balance between current consumption or an allocation of resources in which resources in the short-run are preserved for future consumption

89.

Inter-temporal efficiency

a)

refers to when resources are allocated so that maximum output is achieved with lowest cost production methods in making goods and services.

b)

occurs when resources are reallocated quickly in response to the changing needs and tastes of consumers.

c)

occurs when all resources are allocated such that society's wellbeing is best satisfied.

d)

refers to finding the optimal balance between current consumption or an allocation of resources in which resources in the short-run are preserved for future consumption

90.

_____________is where these productive inputs are used to produce particular goods and services that maximise the satisfaction of society’s needs and wants. There would be no other use to which resources could be put that would further lift production, so living standards should also be maximised.

a)

Inter-temporal efficiency

b)

Dynamic efficiency

c)

Productive efficiency

d)

Allocative efficiency

91.

Distinguish between the following pairs of terms:

allocative efficiency and productive (technical) efficiency

a)

Allocative efficiency is when resources are used to produce those goods and services that best maximise the overall satisfaction of society’s needs and wants.

b)

Productive, or technical, efficiency is the use of the lowest cost production methods and minimising wastage of resources in the provision of goods and services.

c)

Allocative efficiency refers to finding the optimal balance between current consumption by spending income now, and the saving of some of that income to finance investment and potential future consumption.

d)

Productive, or technical, efficiency refers to the speed at which resources can be reallocated as needed to meet changing needs and choices of consumers.

92.

Distinguish between the following pairs of terms:

intertemporal efficiency and dynamic efficiency.

a)

Intertemporal efficiency is when resources are used to produce those goods and services that best maximise the overall satisfaction of society’s needs and wants.

b)

Dynamic efficiency is the use of the lowest cost production methods and minimising wastage of resources in the provision of goods and services.

c)

Intertemporal efficiency refers to finding the optimal balance between current consumption by spending income now, and the saving of some of that income to finance investment and potential future consumption.

d)

Dynamic efficiency refers to the speed at which resources can be reallocated as needed to meet changing needs and choices of consumers.

93.

balancing the use of resources for today use with the future.

a)

Statist efficiency.

b)

Time series efficiency.

c)

Intertemporal efficiency

d)

Static efficiency

94.

where goods and services are bought and sold

a)

Product Markets

b)

Government Markets

c)

Resource Markets

d)

Labor Markets

95.

The economic problem of having unlimited needs and wants with only limited means to satisfy them

a)

Opportunity cost

b)

Absolute scarcity

c)

Relative scarcity

d)

Resource scarcity

96.

Wasting resources

a)

A point inside the PPF is

b)

Factor Markets

c)

Symmetric Information

d)

How can a you increase the PPF

97.

Collective wellbeing is maximised. Overall people get what they want.

a)

Marginal efficiency

b)


Intertemporal efficiency

c)

Production efficiency

d)

Allocative efficiency

98.

How can a you increase the PPF

a)


By increasing costs and reducing output per input


b)

By decreasing productivity or reducing resources

c)

By maintaining current productivity and resources

d)

By increasing productivity (output per input) or finding new resources

99.

a curve showing the maximum attainable combinations of two products that may be produced with available resources and current technology

a)

Supply curve


b)

Curved (bowed-out) ppf

c)

Demand curve

d)

Production Possibilities Frontier (PPF)

100.

A reduction in Inter-temporal efficiency is caused by

a)


Balancing the use of resources for today use with the future.

b)

Wasting resources

c)

same as Technical efficiency

d)

Burning coal power

101.

Intertemporal efficiency is about how well society balances current consumption with future wellbeing.
Example: Burning coal power

  • Uses non-renewable resources that cannot be replaced

  • Causes long-term environmental damage (pollution, climate change)

  • Provides short-term benefits (cheap electricity)

  • But reduces future productive capacity and wellbeing

👉 This means society is prioritising today at the expense of the future, which reduces intertemporal efficiency.

a)

Yes

b)

No

102.

A balance in information between buyers and sellers.

a)

Symmetric Information

b)

Asymmetric Information

c)

Information Cost

d)

Perfect (full) Information

103.

Identical products

a)

Competitive goods only

b)

Monopolistic goods only

c)

Homogeneous goods and services

d)

Consumption goods only

104.

1. Homogeneous product.
2. east of entry and exit

a)


How can a you increase the PPF

b)

Conditions for a perfectly competitive market

c)

Conditions for a perfectly competitive market

d)

A reduction in Inter-temporal efficiency is caused by

105.

Income remaining for a person to spend or save after all taxes have been paid


a)


GROSS INCOME


b)

REAL INCOME

c)

DISPOSABLE INCOME

d)


NATIONAL INCOME

106.

A market that meets the conditions of:

(1) many buyers and sellers,

(2) homogenous products,

(3) low barriers to entry & exit

(4) suppliers are price-takers

a)

PUBLIC GOODS

b)

DURABILITY OF GOODS

c)


DYNAMIC EFFICIENCY


d)

PERFECTLY COMPETITIVE MARKET

107.

The amount of output compared to the amount of resources needed to make it.

a)

SUPPLY

b)


INVESTMENT

c)


TECHNOLOGY

d)

PRODUCTIVITY

108.

An allocation of resources that promotes an ability to quickly change market conditions to respond to consumer needs

a)


TECHNICAL EFFICIENCY

b)

STATIC EFFICIENCY

c)

DYNAMIC EFFICIENCY

d)


PARETO EFFICIENCY

109.

a market outcome in which the marginal benefit to consumers of the last unit produced is equal to its marginal cost of production

a)

TECHNICAL EFFICIENCY

b)

ECONOMIC EFFICIENCY

c)

AVAILABILITY OF SUBSTITUTES

d)

CONSUMER CONFIDENCE

110.

A measure of how much a good or service is required or needed to be consumed.

a)


PROPORTION OF INCOME


b)

COST OF PRODUCTION

c)

DEGREE OF NECESSITY

d)

AVAILABILITY OF SUPPLIES

111.

When population changes, opportunities to buy and sell change

a)

RESOURCES

b)


PRICE AND DEMOGRAPHICS

c)


LIVING STANDARDS

d)

POPULATION DEMOGRAPHICS

112.

the degree of competition in which there are many sellers in a market and none is large enough to dictate the price of a product

a)

OLIGOPOLY

b)


OLIGOPOLISTIC COMPETITION

c)

PERFECT COMPETITION

d)

IMPERFECT COMPETITION

113.

consumers demand more of a good when its price decreases and less when its price increases

a)

QUANTITY DEMANDED


b)

LAW OF DEMAND

c)


COST OF PRODUCTION

d)


LAW OF SUPPLY

114.

producers supply more of a good as its price increases and less as its price falls

a)

LAW OF SUPPLY

b)

LAW OF DEMAND

c)

NEEDS

d)

COST OF PRODUCTION