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Governing a New Nation and State Constitutions

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the best definition of a constitution in the context of early state governments?

a)

A speech announcing independence from Britain

b)

A document stating the rules of government

c)

A treaty arranging trade with foreign nations

d)

A list of taxes owed by the colonists

2.

Which states kept using their colonial charters after 1776, with references to the British king removed?

a)

Georgia and South Carolina

b)

Pennsylvania and Delaware

c)

Virginia and New York

d)

Rhode Island and Connecticut

3.

Who is the executive in early state governments?

a)

The legislature that debates and passes laws

b)

The judges who interpret laws during trials

c)

The militia leader who commands state forces

d)

The person who runs government and enforces laws

4.

In many early states, which voting requirement was common?

a)

Being a white male at least twenty‑one

b)

Serving in the Continental Army first

c)

Owning a printing press for the town

d)

Paying a national income tax annually

5.

Which state allowed women to vote during the early state constitution period?

a)

Massachusetts

b)

Maryland

c)

Virginia

d)

New Jersey

6.

Match each term with its description.

a)

Executive

1.

Runs government and carries out laws

b)

Legislature approval

2.

Needed for governors’ key appointments

c)

Colonial charters kept

3.

Used by Rhode Island and Connecticut

d)

Bill of Rights (state)

4.

Protects individual rights of people

7.

Which rights were included in Virginia’s Bill of Rights? Select all that apply.

a)

Freedom of the press

b)

Freedom of religion

c)

Unlimited searches by officials

d)

Trial by jury

e)

No cruel and unusual punishments

8.

Why did many states add bills of rights to their constitutions?

a)

To protect individual rights from government abuse

b)

To weaken juries and strengthen governors

c)

To help Britain enforce colonial trade rules

d)

To raise money through new national taxes

9.

Under the Articles of Confederation, where did most political power remain?

a)

In the courts that controlled taxation

b)

In the office of a single national executive

c)

In the national Congress over the states

d)

In the individual states rather than Congress

10.

Which power did Congress have under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Make laws and declare war with limits

b)

Collect national taxes from all states

c)

Control trade between all the states

d)

Appoint a national executive leader

11.

Which limitation weakened Congress under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

It could not include delegates from states

b)

It could not talk with foreign nations

c)

It could not write or pass any laws

d)

It could not limit trade or collect taxes

12.

Which weakness of the national government under the Articles of Confederation made it hard to raise money for national needs?

a)

No power to tax citizens directly

b)

Presidents served very long terms

c)

States had to follow one national tariff

d)

Too many federal courts nationwide

13.

What was a goal of the Land Ordinance of 1785?

a)

Create a system for land sales and settlements

b)

Give each state control of the Mississippi

c)

Outlaw slavery across the entire nation

d)

Divide eastern cities into voting districts

14.

Under the Land Ordinance of 1785, how were public lands organized for sale?

a)

Into townships six miles on each side

b)

Into counties three miles each way

c)

Into plantations along major rivers

d)

Into districts based on old colonies

15.

Which policy guaranteed basic rights for settlers and outlawed slavery in the Northwest Territory?

a)

Missouri Compromise

b)

Land Act of 1790

c)

Stamp Act of 1765

d)

Northwest Ordinance of 1787

16.

Which states eventually formed from the Northwest Territory under the 1787 ordinance?

a)

Indiana

b)

Kentucky

c)

Wisconsin

d)

Ohio

e)

Illinois

17.

How did differing state trade policies under the Articles affect the economy?

a)

Prices rose due to one national tax

b)

States stopped all foreign commerce

c)

Trade was limited by state taxes on goods

d)

River shipping became completely free

18.

Why did Spain closing the Mississippi River hurt American farmers in the West?

a)

They received free shipping to Europe

b)

They could sell crops at higher prices

c)

They were given new markets by Spain

d)

They had to move goods by difficult trails

19.

Which best defines an economic depression in the mid-1780s context?

a)

Business slows, prices and wages drop, unemployment rises

b)

Business speeds up, wages climb fast, inflation eases

c)

Exports expand, credit grows, profits rise steadily

d)

Government taxes increase, spending grows, debt falls

20.

What problem did many farmers face during the depression that fueled unrest?

a)

New markets guaranteed steady income

b)

High wages reduced farm labor supply

c)

Growing crop prices increased land values

d)

Falling crop prices made it hard to pay taxes

21.

Who led an uprising of about 1,000 Massachusetts farmers in August 1786?

a)

Daniel Shays, a former Revolutionary captain

b)

Henry Knox, the army’s commander

c)

John Jay, a prominent diplomat

d)

Thomas Paine, a famous pamphleteer

22.

What belief did Shays’ Rebellion strengthen among American leaders?

a)

Foreign armies must occupy Boston

b)

States should abolish all taxes

c)

The Articles worked well as written

d)

A stronger central government was needed

23.

MATCH: Pair each ordinance with its main feature.

a)

Land Ordinance of 1785

1.

Set up land sales in six-mile townships

b)

Northwest Ordinance of 1787

2.

Guaranteed rights and banned slavery in NW

c)

Articles of Confederation

3.

Created weak national government of states

24.

Where and when did the Constitutional Convention begin?

a)

Philadelphia in summer 1787

b)

Richmond in fall 1788

c)

New York in spring 1789

d)

Boston in winter 1786

25.

Which BEST explains why debates at the Convention were kept secret?

a)

To allow honest discussion without pressure

b)

To prevent foreign nations from attacking

c)

To avoid writing down any decisions

d)

To save money on printing official notes

26.

Which state did not send delegates to the Constitutional Convention?

a)

Pennsylvania

b)

Rhode Island

c)

New Jersey

d)

Virginia

27.

Who served as president of the Constitutional Convention?

a)

Alexander Hamilton

b)

Ben Franklin

c)

James Madison

d)

George Washington

28.

Match each delegate with a correct description.

a)

James Madison

1.

Principal author of the Virginia Plan

b)

Alexander Hamilton

2.

Advocated strong national government

c)

George Washington

3.

Presided over the convention

d)

Ben Franklin

4.

Elder statesman and inventor

29.

Who introduced the Virginia Plan on the third day of the Convention?

a)

Edmund Randolph of Virginia

b)

James Madison of New York

c)

Gouverneur Morris of Pennsylvania

d)

George Washington of Virginia

30.

Which statement describes the structure proposed by the Virginia Plan?

a)

Three separate branches of government

b)

One powerful legislative council

c)

A confederation of independent states

d)

A single executive ruling alone

31.

In the proposed three-branch system, which branch interprets laws?

a)

Executive branch

b)

Legislative branch

c)

Military branch

d)

Judicial branch

32.

Why did some delegates prefer a single executive rather than a committee?

a)

It avoided the need for elections

b)

Committees were banned by the Articles

c)

A single executive could act more quickly

d)

It would cost less to pay salaries

33.

What change to Congress did the Virginia Plan suggest?

a)

Creating a two-house legislature

b)

Keeping a single-house congress

c)

Abolishing the national legislature

d)

Letting states appoint no legislators

34.

Which problem did the Great Compromise aim to solve at the Constitutional Convention?

a)

Balancing big and small state representation

b)

Ending foreign trade with all nations

c)

Choosing a national leader by popular vote

d)

Deciding rights for territories in the West

35.

Under the Virginia Plan, how were seats in the legislature to be assigned?

a)

By tax money paid

b)

By land size owned

c)

By equal votes per state

d)

By state population totals

36.

Why did smaller states support the New Jersey Plan?

a)

It based seats only on property

b)

It removed the national legislature

c)

It promised equal seats for each state

d)

It expanded power of large states

37.

What structure of Congress did the Great Compromise create?

a)

One-house legislature with equal seats

b)

Two-house legislature both by population

c)

Two-house legislature with differing rules

d)

Three-house legislature with veto power

38.

Match each chamber of Congress with its representation rule.

a)

House of Representatives

1.

Based on state population

b)

Senate

2.

Equal seats for each state

c)

Both chambers

3.

Members elected and serve set terms

39.

How were terms set in the House of Representatives under Sherman’s plan?

a)

Two-year terms chosen by voters

b)

Two-year terms chosen by governors

c)

Four-year terms chosen by states

d)

Six-year terms chosen by voters

40.

On July 16, 1787, delegates narrowly approved a plan later called the Great Compromise. Who proposed it?

a)

Roger Sherman of Connecticut

b)

James Madison of Virginia

c)

Alexander Hamilton of New York

d)

George Mason of Virginia

41.

What did the Three-Fifths Compromise decide?

a)

Each enslaved person counted as three-fifths

b)

Enslaved people gained full voting rights

c)

Only free people counted for representation

d)

States could not tax imported people

42.

Which statement best explains a northern argument against counting enslaved people fully for representation?

a)

They could not vote, so full counting was unfair

b)

They owned no farms or factories

c)

They paid higher taxes than others

d)

They lived mostly in cities already

43.

If a state held 5,000 enslaved people, how many were counted toward population under the Three-Fifths Compromise?

a)

2,500 people counted

b)

1,000 people counted

c)

5,000 people counted

d)

3,000 people counted

44.

What was the Slave Trade Compromise regarding importing enslaved people?

a)

Imports banned only in northern states

b)

Imports allowed forever without limit

c)

Imports banned immediately in all states

d)

Imports allowed until 1808, then banned

45.

How many states needed to approve the Constitution for it to go into effect?

a)

All thirteen states

b)

Ten of thirteen states

c)

Nine of thirteen states

d)

Seven of thirteen states

46.

Which statement best describes Federalists during the ratification debate?

a)

They opposed enforcing national laws

b)

They supported a strong federal government

c)

They wanted stronger state governments

d)

They rejected any new national taxes

47.

Who were key authors of The Federalist Papers?

a)

James Madison and John Adams

b)

Patrick Henry and Samuel Adams

c)

Thomas Jefferson and George Mason

d)

Alexander Hamilton and John Jay

48.

Which concern was commonly raised by Antifederalists?

a)

The army would be completely disbanded

b)

The president might become like a king

c)

States would gain too much power

d)

New taxes would never be collected

49.

What did some Antifederalists demand be added to protect basic freedoms?

a)

A permanent Congress

b)

A bill of rights

c)

A stronger executive branch

d)

A longer Constitution

50.

Which fear reflected worries about creating a strong central government?

a)

It would abolish all state militias

b)

It would force all states to merge

c)

It would copy England’s powerful monarchy

d)

It would end all local courts forever

51.

Which state was the first to approve the Constitution, on December 7, 1787?

a)

Rhode Island

b)

Pennsylvania

c)

Delaware

d)

Georgia

52.

Which state was the last to ratify the Constitution in May 1790?

a)

Virginia

b)

North Carolina

c)

Rhode Island

d)

New York

53.

What public event took place on July 4, 1788, in Philadelphia?

a)

A protest against taxation laws

b)

A celebration of ratification

c)

A parade for state militias

d)

A vote on presidential powers

54.

After the ninth state ratified the Constitution, what major step did Congress take?

a)

They dissolved the Continental Army

b)

They prepared for a new government

c)

They postponed national elections

d)

They rewrote the Articles of Confederation

55.

Who was elected the first President and Vice President under the new Constitution?

a)

George Washington and Thomas Jefferson

b)

George Washington and John Adams

c)

John Adams and Alexander Hamilton

d)

James Madison and John Jay

56.

Why did many states insist on drafting a Bill of Rights soon after ratification?

a)

To reorganize state borders

b)

To increase presidential power

c)

To protect individual freedoms

d)

To allow states to print money

57.

In what year did three-fourths of the states ratify the first ten amendments?

a)

1791

b)

1793

c)

1789

d)

1787

58.

Match each numbered amendment with its protection.

a)

1st Amendment

1.

Freedoms of religion, speech, press, assembly, petition

b)

2nd Amendment

2.

Right to keep and bear arms for a well-regulated militia

c)

4th Amendment

3.

Freedom from unreasonable searches and seizures

d)

6th Amendment

4.

Rights of accused, including a speedy and public trial

e)

8th Amendment

5.

Freedom from excessive bail and cruel punishments

59.

Which rights are protected by the First Amendment?

a)

Right to petition the government

b)

Freedom of religion and speech

c)

Freedom from self-incrimination

d)

Freedom of the press and assembly

60.

Which amendment protects people from soldiers being housed in their homes without consent?

a)

Tenth Amendment

b)

Seventh Amendment

c)

Third Amendment

d)

Second Amendment

61.

Which amendment guarantees a jury trial in civil cases?

a)

Eighth Amendment

b)

Fifth Amendment

c)

Sixth Amendment

d)

Seventh Amendment

62.

Which amendment reserves powers not given to the federal government to the states or the people?

a)

Tenth Amendment

b)

Fourth Amendment

c)

Ninth Amendment

d)

Second Amendment

63.

Which protections are included in the Fifth Amendment?

a)

Freedom from self-incrimination

b)

Due process of law

c)

Freedom from double jeopardy

d)

Freedom from cruel punishments

64.

Which idea from Ancient Rome most inspired the creators of the U.S. Constitution?

a)

Ruling by a single emperor with absolute authority

b)

Expanding an empire through constant military conquest

c)

Creating a lasting republic with elected representatives

d)

Allowing provinces to act as fully independent nations

65.

What lesson did American leaders draw from the fall of the Roman Empire?

a)

Direct democracy always prevents civil wars

b)

Monarchies protect rights more than republics

c)

Dictatorship can lead to collapse and lost freedoms

d)

Empires remain stable when borders keep growing

66.

Which protection comes from Magna Carta and the English Bill of Rights?

a)

Juries are optional for criminal trials

b)

The head of government must obey the law

c)

Kings can raise taxes without permission

d)

Private property belongs to the monarch

67.

Habeas corpus means that no person may be

a)

held in prison without being charged with a specific crime

b)

forced to vote in every election against their will

c)

tried by a jury of citizens from another country

d)

required to give private property to the government

68.

Which statement best describes private property?

a)

Property owned by an individual

b)

Property shared by all citizens

c)

Property owned by the king

d)

Property held by the army

69.

Montesquieu’s main idea for government was called

a)

separation of powers

b)

divine right of kings

c)

popular mercantilism

d)

imperial centralism

70.

Why was separation of powers designed for a new government?

a)

To give the national government unlimited authority over states

b)

To make elections unnecessary for future leaders

c)

To allow courts to write and enforce all national laws

d)

To keep any one person or group from gaining too much power

71.

MATCH the branch of government to its general role.

a)

Legislative

1.

Makes laws

b)

Executive

2.

Enforces laws

c)

Judicial

3.

Interprets laws

72.

Which goal of the Preamble means states should work together as one nation?

a)

Promote the general welfare

b)

Secure the blessings of liberty

c)

Ensure domestic tranquility

d)

Form a more perfect union

73.

Ensuring domestic tranquility means the government should

a)

increase trade taxes for revenue

b)

build alliances with foreign nations

c)

give every citizen a government job

d)

maintain peace and order at home

74.

Providing for the common defense means the government must

a)

limit voting to times of war

b)

own all private weapons and supplies

c)

ensure equal pay for all workers

d)

protect citizens against foreign attack

75.

Promoting the general welfare means the government should

a)

focus only on the wealthiest citizens

b)

leave health and safety to each state

c)

support the well-being of all citizens

d)

avoid passing any social programs

76.

Securing the blessings of liberty means the government should

a)

centralize all power in a single leader

b)

value and protect the rights of citizens

c)

expand territory to gain more resources

d)

eliminate courts to speed up decisions

77.

Which article of the Constitution establishes powers and limits on Congress?

a)

Article VI outlines state relations only

b)

Article VII outlines amendment procedures

c)

Article IV outlines presidential elections rules

d)

Article I outlines Congress powers and limits

78.

Which article provides a process to amend the Constitution?

a)

Article VII sets the amendment process

b)

Article II sets the amendment process

c)

Article V sets the amendment process

d)

Article IV sets the amendment process

79.

What does Article VI declare about the Constitution?

a)

It is the supreme law of the land

b)

It must be rewritten every decade

c)

It only applies during wartime

d)

It gives states power over treaties

80.

Article VII sets up the procedure for

a)

states to ratify the Constitution

b)

Congress to declare holidays

c)

courts to hear impeachment trials

d)

presidents to veto state laws

81.

Which statement best explains popular sovereignty in the United States?

a)

States give all power to the national leader

b)

People are the source of government authority

c)

The president gains power from foreign allies

d)

Judges grant power to Congress and agencies

82.

The phrase “We the People” in the Preamble mainly shows which constitutional principle?

a)

Executive supremacy over laws

b)

State nullification of acts

c)

Judicial review by courts

d)

Popular sovereignty of the people

83.

Limited government means which of the following?

a)

The president can ignore rules in emergencies

b)

Government powers are restricted by the Constitution

c)

Government may act however leaders decide

d)

Only citizens must follow the laws carefully

84.

Why did the framers include limited government in the Constitution?

a)

They wished to remove all national powers

b)

Colonists feared harsh rule like the British king

c)

They believed monarchs ruled by divine right

d)

They wanted presidents to have total authority

85.

Match each branch with a power shown in the checks and balances diagram.

a)

Legislative branch

1.

Writes laws and can impeach president

b)

Executive branch

2.

Enforces laws and can veto bills

c)

Judicial branch

3.

Interprets laws and can declare unconstitutional

86.

According to the checks and balances diagram, what can the legislative branch do to limit the executive?

a)

Veto bills passed by both chambers

b)

Appoint judges to the Supreme Court

c)

Declare executive orders unconstitutional

d)

Impeach the president or reject appointments

87.

Which actions in the diagram show the judicial branch checking the other branches?

a)

Declare laws unconstitutional

b)

Declare executive orders unconstitutional

c)

Veto bills from Congress

d)

Impeach the president

88.

Federalism is best described as which arrangement of power?

a)

Power granted by states to city governments

b)

Power shared solely among three federal branches

c)

Power held only by the national government

d)

Power divided between national and state governments

89.

Which pair shows each branch being checked by another, as in the diagram?

a)

Courts can declare laws unconstitutional

b)

Congress can impeach the president

c)

The president can veto bills

d)

States can overrule Supreme Court decisions

90.

Which example best shows limited government applying to everyone?

a)

Citizens can ignore laws they dislike

b)

Congress is above the Constitution

c)

Even the president must obey the law

d)

Only governors must follow court rulings

91.

Which statement best describes how representation in the Senate is determined?

a)

Each state has two senators equally

b)

Based entirely on state population

c)

Chosen by the president each term

d)

Rotates among regions every decade

92.

How long is one term for a United States senator?

a)

Six years per term

b)

Two years per term

c)

Eight years per term

d)

Four years per term

93.

Who serves as the President of the Senate and may cast a vote in a tie?

a)

The Vice President of the United States

b)

The Speaker of the House of Representatives

c)

The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

d)

The Majority Leader of the Senate

94.

Which statement about the Vice President in the Senate is correct?

a)

May vote only to break ties

b)

Leads debates every session

c)

Votes on every bill routinely

d)

Assigns all committee chairs

95.

Representation in the House of Representatives is based on which factor?

a)

State population size

b)

Equal numbers per state

c)

Land area in square miles

d)

County boundaries only

96.

Members of the House of Representatives serve terms of what length?

a)

Two years each term

b)

Six years each term

c)

Four years each term

d)

Three years each term

97.

Who is the leader of the House of Representatives and regulates debates?

a)

The Chief of Staff

b)

The Senate Pro Tempore

c)

The President of the Senate

d)

The Speaker of the House

98.

Match each chamber with its membership rule.

a)

Senate

1.

Two per state

b)

House of Representatives

2.

Population based seats

c)

Both chambers

3.

Must pass bills

99.

What is the minimum age requirement to serve in the Senate?

a)

Thirty years old minimum

b)

Twenty-five years old minimum

c)

Twenty-one years old minimum

d)

Thirty-five years old minimum

100.

What is the minimum citizenship requirement to serve in the Senate?

a)

Nine years as a citizen

b)

Seven years as a citizen

c)

Born a natural citizen

d)

Five years as a citizen

101.

Which requirement applies to both senators and representatives?

a)

Hold a law degree credential

b)

Serve four-year terms length

c)

Live in the state elected

d)

Be born in the United States

102.

What is the minimum age requirement to serve in the House of Representatives?

a)

Twenty-one years old minimum

b)

Thirty years old minimum

c)

Twenty-five years old minimum

d)

Thirty-five years old minimum

103.

Where can a bill be introduced in Congress?

a)

Either the House or the Senate

b)

Only by the President alone

c)

Only in the House chamber

d)

Only in the Senate chamber

104.

If both houses approve a bill, what happens next?

a)

It becomes law immediately

b)

It returns to its sponsor

c)

It goes to the Supreme Court

d)

It is sent to the President

105.

Which branch is responsible for carrying out the laws and running national affairs?

a)

The Executive Branch

b)

The State Governments

c)

The Legislative Branch

d)

The Judicial Branch

106.

Who heads the executive branch of the national government?

a)

The Chief Justice of Court

b)

The Speaker of the House

c)

The Secretary of State

d)

The President of the United States

107.

Which are powers of the President? Select all that apply.

a)

Veto or approve bills passed by Congress

b)

Command the armed forces as commander in chief

c)

Conduct foreign relations and make treaties

d)

Make and pass laws without Congress

e)

Appoint cabinet members and federal judges

108.

What limit does the 22nd Amendment place on the presidency?

a)

Unlimited terms with approval

b)

Only one four-year term total

c)

Two terms if nonconsecutive

d)

No more than two full terms

109.

According to the diagram, which region shows states with the largest numbers of electoral votes?

a)

West Coast and large states

b)

Great Plains and Dakotas

c)

New England and Vermont

d)

Mountain states and Wyoming

110.

Match each state to the number of electoral votes shown on the map.

a)

California

1.

54

b)

Texas

2.

40

c)

Florida

3.

30

d)

New York

4.

28

111.

How are electors chosen in most states during a presidential election?

a)

Winner-take-all for state popular vote

b)

Proportional by each county share

c)

Random lottery among voters

d)

Chosen by Congress leaders

112.

Which statement best explains the Electoral College?

a)

Voters choose electors pledged to candidates

b)

Voters directly choose the president nationally

c)

Each state sends equal electors regardless of size

d)

Electors may vote for any candidate they want

113.

Which TWO statements are true about electing the president?

a)

Electors are pledged to state winners

b)

The 22nd Amendment allows three terms

c)

Most states award all votes to winner

d)

Electoral votes go to popular vote runner-up

e)

The president serves four-year terms