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2205 exam 1. pt.10

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Quad screen: pattern most consistent with Down syndrome risk is:

a)

High AFP

b)

Low AFP + high hCG/inhibin A

c)

High AFP + low hCG

d)

Normal AFP confirms diagnosis

2.

MSAFP [maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein] is mainly used to screen for:

a)

Open neural tube defects / open abdominal wall defects

b)

Gestational diabetes

c)

Placenta previa

d)

Group B strep

3.

MSAFP is typically collected during which gestational range?

a)

6–10 weeks

b)

10–13 weeks

c)

24–28 weeks

d)

14–22 weeks

4.

After an abnormal AFP screen, what is the best next concept?

a)

Screen result confirms diagnosis—no follow up needed

b)

Abnormal screen requires follow-up testing (often ultrasound ± amniocentesis)

c)

Repeat AFP daily until normal

d)

Treat with magnesium sulfate immediately

5.

Amniocentesis is best described as:

a)

Placental biopsy at 10–13 weeks

b)

Aspiration of amniotic fluid for testing (typically after 15 weeks)

c)

Cervical biopsy after 20 weeks

d)

IV test measuring fetal oxygenation directly

6.

After amniocentesis, which action is priority?

a)

Perform digital vaginal exam

b)

Keep client NPO 24 hours

c)

Monitor FHR and uterine activity; give Rh immune globulin if Rh-negative

d)

Start oxytocin infusion

7.

CVS [chorionic villus sampling] is typically performed:

a)

10–13 weeks

b)

16–18 weeks

c)

After 28 weeks

d)

After 15 weeks only

8.

A key limitation of CVS compared with amniocentesis is:

a)

CVS cannot evaluate genetics

b)

CVS does not screen neural tube defects the same way AFP does

c)

CVS has zero miscarriage risk

d)

CVS is done after fetal viability only

9.

Nuchal translucency screening is performed around:

a)

6–8 weeks

b)

16–18 weeks

c)

28–30 weeks

d)

11–13 weeks

10.

A nurse interprets nuchal translucency. Which result is most concerning?

a)

1.6 mm

b)

2.0 mm

c)

2.4 mm

d)

2.8 mm

11.

A nurse is planning teaching for prenatal testing indications. Which history best supports antenatal surveillance?

a)

Previous fetal demise/stillbirth

b)

Mild nausea only

c)

Normal BP and normal fetal movement

d)

Seasonal allergies

12.

A nurse is reviewing contraindications to procedures that stimulate contractions. Which condition is the clearest “do not do this”?

a)

Placenta previa with bleeding

b)

Normal pregnancy at 39 weeks

c)

Mild anemia

d)

Controlled gestational diabetes

13.

A nurse is teaching fetal kick counts. Which instruction is best?

a)

Count for 5 minutes once weekly

b)

Immediately perform CST if fewer kicks

c)

Lie down, focus, and report decreased movement per provider plan

d)

Kick counts replace all fetal testing

14.

A client asks why ultrasound may be ordered after abnormal screening. Best response?

a)

“It’s used to confirm and further evaluate abnormal screening findings.”

b)

“It treats fetal anomalies.”

c)

“It replaces all lab work forever.”

d)

“It is only done at delivery.”

15.

A nurse is teaching warning signs. Which finding requires urgent evaluation?

a)

Mild nausea early pregnancy

b)

Slight ankle edema at end of day

c)

Persistent severe headache or visual changes

d)

Increased appetite

16.

A nurse is reviewing pregnancy loss definitions: abortion (pregnancy loss) is generally:

a)

Loss after 28 weeks

b)

Loss before 20 weeks (typical teaching threshold)

c)

Loss after delivery

d)

Loss only after fetal heartbeat

17.

IUFD [intrauterine fetal demise] most closely refers to:

a)

Loss before implantation

b)

Loss before 6 weeks only

c)

Fetal death at/after viability threshold (course-defined criteria)

d)

Bleeding with a viable fetus and closed cervix

18.

A client has vaginal bleeding/cramping; cervix is closed; ultrasound shows viable pregnancy. Which type is most consistent?

a)

Threatened abortion

b)

Inevitable abortion

c)

Incomplete abortion

d)

Complete abortion

19.

Cervix is dilated with bleeding/cramping, but no products have passed. Most consistent type?

a)

Threatened

b)

Missed

c)

Complete

d)

Inevitable

20.

Ultrasound shows uterus empty; products completely expelled. Which type is most consistent?

a)

Complete abortion

b)

Threatened abortion

c)

Inevitable abortion

d)

Missed abortion

21.

Retained products remain in uterus (not fully expelled). Which type is most consistent?

a)

Complete

b)

Missed

c)

Inevitable

d)

Incomplete

22.

No bleeding/cramping; pregnancy symptoms regress; nonviable embryo/fetus on ultrasound. Most consistent?

a)

Missed abortion

b)

Threatened abortion

c)

Complete abortion

d)

Inevitable abortion

23.

Most common cause of spontaneous abortion is:

a)

Maternal hypotension

b)

Chromosomal abnormalities

c)

High calcium intake

d)

Daily exercise

24.

After pregnancy termination, which finding requires immediate provider notification?

a)

Mild cramping controlled with OTC meds

b)

Light spotting for 1–2 days

c)

Sudden severe abdominal pain + heavy bleeding

d)

Mild fatigue

25.

After medication termination, which symptom most suggests infection?

a)

Mild nausea only

b)

Foul-smelling discharge with fever

c)

Mild spotting only

d)

Breast tenderness only

26.

A nurse caring for a client with pregnancy loss should prioritize:

a)

Therapeutic communication and privacy

b)

Avoid discussing grief

c)

Rushing paperwork to “move on”

d)

Limiting support persons

27.

A client asks to see/hold the fetus after an IUFD. Best nursing response?

a)

“That’s not allowed here.”

b)

“You must decide right now.”

c)

“No visitors are permitted.”

d)

“We can support memory-making if you want.”

28.

A client with suspected IUFD reports decreased fetal movement. What is the priority diagnostic confirmation?

a)

NST immediately only

b)

Doppler only once then discharge

c)

Ultrasound to confirm fetal cardiac activity status

d)

Pelvic exam to check dilation

29.

A nurse teaching post-loss care includes which priority teaching?

a)

Avoid follow-up visits

b)

Follow-up, mental health screening, and contraception discussion as appropriate

c)

Encourage isolation for 6 weeks

d)

Never discuss lactation changes

30.

A nurse is triaging a pregnant client with painless bright-red bleeding. Priority action?

a)

Digital vaginal exam

b)

Obtain IV access, monitor, and confirm placental location by ultrasound before any vaginal exam

c)

Induce labor immediately

d)

Send home if fetal movement is present

31.

A pregnant client has painful bleeding and a rigid tender uterus. Best priority interpretation?

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Cervical insufficiency

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Normal labor changes

32.

A nurse is caring for suspected placenta previa. Which action is contraindicated?

a)

Continuous fetal monitoring

b)

IV access and type/cross as ordered

c)

Ultrasound for placental location

d)

Digital vaginal exam

33.

A client with known placenta previa is stable at 33 weeks with minimal bleeding. Best plan?

a)

Expectant management: pelvic rest + monitoring + prepare for emergent delivery if bleeding worsens

b)

Frequent cervical checks

c)

Artificial rupture of membranes

d)

Encourage intercourse to “ripen cervix”

34.

A placenta previa client develops heavy bleeding with nonreassuring fetal status. Priority intervention?

a)

Prepare for cesarean birth

b)

Wait for NST in 2 hours

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Offer oral fluids only

35.

Which finding best matches placental abruption?

a)

Painless bleeding with soft uterus

b)

Painful bleeding with uterine tenderness/rigidity

c)

Bleeding only after delivery

d)

No pain and no uterine tone change

36.

Biggest risk factor emphasized for abruption is:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Late menarche

c)

Daily aerobic exercise

d)

High HDL

37.

Which substance use is strongly associated with abruption risk?

a)

Cocaine use

b)

Dairy intake

c)

Prenatal vitamins

d)

Acetaminophen use

38.

Abruption can cause maternal DIC [disseminated intravascular coagulation]. Which lab trend supports DIC concern?

a)

Rising fibrinogen

b)

Decreasing PT/aPTT

c)

Low fibrinogen / abnormal coagulation profile

d)

Elevated HDL

39.

A nurse suspects severe abruption. What is the priority first intervention?

a)

Establish large-bore IV access + begin stabilization (fluids/blood as ordered)

b)

Perform vaginal exam

c)

Delay interventions until ultrasound complete

d)

Encourage pushing

40.

A patient with abruption shows fetal distress and worsening maternal vitals. Priority action?

a)

Prepare for urgent delivery (often emergent C-section depending on status)

b)

Schedule quad screen

c)

Reassure and recheck in 4 hours

d)

Start CST

41.

Vasa previa is most dangerous when:

a)

Membranes rupture → fetal vessels tear → rapid fetal blood loss

b)

Client lies on left side

c)

Client eats high protein

d)

Client takes prenatal vitamins