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WorksheetsPhysiology and Anatomy Review Worksheet (Translated)
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
What is a restrictive ventilatory disorder?
It reduces the lungs’ capacity to contain air
It increases airway resistance without changing lung capacity
It causes hyperventilation with normal lung volumes
It is a purely neurological breathing disorder
Which diseases commonly cause restrictive ventilatory disorders?
Pneumonia and pulmonary tuberculosis
Pleural effusion
Kyphoscoliosis
All of the above
What is an obstructive ventilatory disorder?
A disorder with reduced lung capacity only
A ventilatory disorder with airway obstruction that decreases airflow
A disorder characterized by hypercapnia without airflow limitation
A purely restrictive process of the chest wall
Which condition(s) commonly narrow the airways and cause obstructive ventilatory disorders?
Bronchial asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Both bronchial asthma and chronic bronchitis
Neither asthma nor chronic bronchitis
What is a mixed ventilatory disorder?
Only a restrictive ventilatory disorder
Only an obstructive ventilatory disorder
It is not related to restrictive or obstructive disorders
It combines both restrictive and obstructive ventilatory disorders
What are the functions of the digestive system?
Mechanical functions
Chemical functions
Absorptive functions
All of the above
Which foods are digested in the mouth?
Rice
Vegetables
Meat
All of the above
Which muscles make up the muscles of mastication (chewing)?
Masseter
Temporalis
Medial and lateral pterygoids
All of the above
Which nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?
Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)
Cranial nerve VII (facial)
Cranial nerve X (vagus)
Cervical spinal nerves
Where is the chewing center located?
In the cerebral cortex
In the brainstem
In the cerebellum
In the thalamus
Swallowing is what kind of act?
A half voluntary act
A half automatic (involuntary) act
Both half voluntary and half automatic
Neither voluntary nor automatic
What is the transit time for food through the esophagus?
2–4 seconds
5–7 seconds
8–10 seconds
12–15 seconds
Peristaltic waves of the esophagus are controlled by which nervous elements?
Vagus nerve (cranial nerve X)
Trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)
Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus
All of the above
In normal tonic contraction, the lower esophageal sphincter functions to do what?
Facilitate reflux of gastric acid into the esophagus
Prevent reflux of acidic gastric contents into the esophagus
Increase esophageal peristaltic speed
Dilate the esophagus during swallowing
Which salivary enzyme breaks down starch mainly into maltose?
Pepsin
Ptyalin (salivary amylase)
Lipase
Trypsin
Where is the center controlling salivary secretion located?
In the midbrain alone
Between the pons and the medulla
In the cervical spinal cord
In the hypothalamus only
Sour taste increases salivary secretion by how many times compared with normal?
2–4 times
5–7 times
8–20 times
More than 50 times
Dry mouth is a symptom of which condition?
Excessive salivary secretion
Dilated or absent salivary secretion
High gastric acid output
Hyperglycemia
When does salivary amylase stop working after food reaches the stomach?
Immediately on entering the stomach
After all food has been soaked with gastric juice
Only when food leaves the stomach
It never stops acting
In the gastric body, chief cells secrete which substances to digest food?
Pepsinogen and lipase
Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
Mucus and bicarbonate
Gastrin and secretin
In the stomach, parietal cells secrete which substances?
Rennin only
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor
Pepsinogen only
Both HCl and intrinsic factor
Pepsin in the stomach digests which macromolecule?
Carbohydrate
Protein
Lipid
Nucleic acid
Gastric lipase digests which macromolecule?
Carbohydrate
Protein
Lipid
Minerals
What is the function of rennin (presua) in digestion?
Digest cellulose
Coagulate milk for digestion
Neutralize gastric acid
Activate pepsinogen
What are the actions of hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach?
Increase pepsin activity
Hydrolyze cellulose in the small intestine
Provide antibacterial action in gastric contents
All of the above
Regulation of gastric secretion occurs through which mechanism(s)?
Enteric neural mechanism via Meissner’s plexus under the gastric mucosa
Central neural mechanism via the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X)
Both mechanisms
After gastric digestion, food mixed with gastric juice becomes what?
Bile
Chyme
Chyle
Feces
Which mechanical activities occur in the small intestine?
Segmenting contractions
Pendular movements
Peristalsis and antiperistalsis
All of the above
How much pancreatic juice enters the duodenum in 24 hours?
0.2–0.5 liters
0.6–0.9 liters
1.0–1.5 liters
2.0–3.0 liters
To digest meat, the small intestine requires which enzyme?
Amylase
Trypsin
Lipase
Sucrase
What is the action of the subclavius muscle?
Depresses the first rib
Elevates the first rib
Retracts the scapula
Flexes the elbow
Where does teres major attach (origin)?
Greater tubercle of the humerus
Inferior angle along the lateral border of the scapula
Lesser tubercle of the humerus
Acromion of the scapula
Where is the insertion of teres minor?
Greater tubercle of the humerus
Lesser tubercle of the humerus
Radial tuberosity
Coracoid process
Which muscle attaches to the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis
Pectoralis major
Which statements about pectoralis minor are correct?
It lies deep to pectoralis major
It arises from ribs III, IV, and V
It inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula
All of the above
Where does serratus anterior attach?
Outer surface of the first 10 ribs
Spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae
Medial border of the scapula only
Clavicle
Serratus anterior assists which movement?
Forced expiration
Inspiration by elevating the ribs
Elbow extension
Hip flexion
Where is the subclavius muscle found?
Superficial to the clavicle
Between the clavicle and the first rib on the inferior aspect of the clavicle
On the medial border of the scapula
Within the axillary lymph nodes
Where is the aortic hiatus located?
On the diaphragm
At the level of thoracic vertebra T12
Both statements are correct
On the anterior abdominal wall, which sequence lists the muscles from deep to superficial?
Transversus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique
External oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis
Transversus abdominis, internal oblique, external oblique
The internal intercostal muscle belongs to which layer?
Outer layer
Middle layer
Innermost layer
Which of the following structures pass through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm?
Thoracic duct
Azygos vein
Hemiazygos vein
All of the above
Regarding the diaphragm, which statement is false?
It is the principal muscle of respiration
It is motor-innervated by autonomic nerves
It is innervated by the phrenic nerve
Where is the esophageal hiatus found?
On the diaphragm
On the esophagus
At the level of thoracic vertebra T10
Both B and C are correct
On the back, which muscle is in the same layer as levator scapulae?
Rhomboid major
Serratus posterior inferior
Trapezius
Rhomboid minor
Which muscle participates in forced expiration?
External oblique
Internal oblique
Transversus abdominis
Both B and C
Which muscle is in the same layer as serratus posterior superior?
Latissimus dorsi
Serratus anterior
Serratus posterior inferior
External oblique
On the abdominal wall, what is the linea alba?
Formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique
Part of the anterior layer of the rectus sheath
Extends from the xiphoid process to the pubis
All of the above
Under normal conditions, which muscle is the principal muscle of respiration?
Diaphragm
External intercostal
Sternocleidomastoid
Scalenes
Which structure accompanies the esophagus through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm?
Vagus nerve
Sympathetic trunk
Phrenic nerve
Thoracic duct
Choose the true statement about the diaphragm.
It attaches to the clavicle, sternum, ribs, and lumbar spine
Its motor supply is L1 spinal nerve
The esophageal hiatus is at the level of a thoracic vertebra
Where is the intercostal neurovascular bundle located?
Between external and internal intercostal muscles
Between internal and innermost intercostal muscles
Within the intercostal space near the midline
Inside the costal groove only
Which of the following is not a muscle of the anterior-lateral abdominal wall?
External oblique
Internal oblique
Transversus abdominis
Quadratus lumborum
Which muscle attaches to the anterior surface of the scapula?
Infraspinatus
Subscapularis
Supraspinatus
Teres minor
Which of the following is a muscle of the abdominal wall?
External oblique
Pectoralis major
Latissimus dorsi
Trapezius
Choose the true statements about the diaphragm.
It is the most important muscle of respiration
It separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity
It is innervated by the phrenic nerve
Where does the levator scapulae originate?
Spinous processes of C7–T5
Transverse processes of C1–C4
Medial border of the scapula
Clavicle
Choose the true statement about the rhomboid muscles.
They attach to transverse processes of C1–C4
They attach to spinous processes from C7 to T5
They attach to the humerus
They attach to the ribs
What is the action of the rhomboid muscles?
Protract the scapula
Retract the scapula toward the midline
Elevate the humerus
Depress the clavicle
Where are the serratus posterior muscles found?
In the back region
As part of the posterior abdominal wall
Both A and B
Normally, how far is the inferior pole of the right kidney from the iliac crest?
1 cm
2 cm
3 cm
4 cm
Where is the renal fibrous capsule found?
Surrounding the outside of the kidney
Lining the renal pelvis only
Inside the renal cortex only
Around the adrenal gland
Choose the true statement.
The renal sinus is also called the renal hilum
Renal calyces attach to the renal pyramids
Renal corpuscles are primarily located where?
Renal cortex
Renal medulla
Renal pelvis
Ureter
Where are the adrenal glands found?
At the superior poles of the kidneys
Within the renal pelvis
Within the renal cortex
Adjacent to the ureter at the pelvis
What is the typical length of the ureter?
15 cm
20 cm
25 cm
30 cm
In males, which relationship is characteristic of the ureter?
The vas deferens lies anterior to the ureter
The ureter lies anterior to the vas deferens
The ureter lies anterior to the prostate
The ureter passes medial to the femoral artery
In females, which relationship is characteristic of the ureter?
The ureter passes under the uterine artery
The ureter passes over the uterine artery
The ureter passes under the ovarian vein
The ureter lies posterior to the femoral nerve
How many physiological constrictions does the ureter have?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Which names correspond to the ureteric constrictions?
Ureteropelvic junction
Crossing over the iliac vessels
Intramural segment within the bladder
All of the above
Which feature is characteristic of the right ureter?
It crosses the external iliac artery
It crosses the common iliac artery
It crosses the femoral artery
It does not cross any major vessels
How does the left ureter differ from the right?
It crosses the external iliac artery
It crosses the common iliac artery
It crosses the internal iliac vein
It does not cross any iliac vessels
When the two ureters enter the bladder, how far apart are their orifices when the bladder is full?
2 cm
3 cm
5 cm
7 cm
When urine flows into the bladder, for how long do ureteric orifices open before closing again?
About 1 second
About 2–3 seconds
About 5 seconds
They remain open continuously
In urinary retention, approximately how much urine can the bladder hold?
About 500 mL
About 1 liter
A few liters
About 250 mL
The urinary bladder is an organ located where?
Posterior to the pubic symphysis and anterior to the rectum
Posterior to the stomach and anterior to the spleen
Anterior to the pubic symphysis and posterior to the rectum
Superior to the diaphragm
Which structures stabilize the bladder firmly?
Median umbilical ligament
Medial umbilical ligaments
Both A and B
The bladder trigone is formed by which openings?
Two ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice
Two ureteric orifices and the external urethral orifice
Two internal urethral orifices and one ureteric orifice
One ureteric orifice and two external urethral orifices
Which artery supplies blood to the urinary bladder?
External iliac artery
Internal iliac artery
Femoral artery
Inferior mesenteric artery
How many principal branches does the internal iliac artery give to the pelvis?
Six
Eight
Ten
Twelve
Which branches of the internal iliac artery supply the urinary bladder?
Superior vesical artery
Inferior vesical artery
Middle rectal artery
All of the above
The urethra is the passage for urine along which route?
From the kidneys to the bladder
From the bladder to the outside
From the renal pelvis to the ureter
From the prostate to the bladder
The adrenal glands receive arterial blood from the following arteries, EXCEPT:
Aorta (middle adrenal)
Inferior phrenic (superior adrenal)
Gonadal artery
How does the male urethra differ from the female urethra?
It carries only urine
It carries both urine and reproductive secretions
It is shorter than the female urethra
It is located anterior to the pubic symphysis
Select the true statement about renal function.
The glomerulus filters water from blood
Renal tubules reabsorb water from the filtrate
Both statements are true
What is a functional unit of the kidney called?
Nephron
Glomerulus
Collecting duct
Renal papilla
Which components make up a renal unit?
Renal corpuscle and convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubule
Straight tubule and collecting duct
All of the above
Select the true statement about the course of the urethra.
The male urethra is curved, the female urethra is straight
The male urethra is straight, the female urethra is curved
Which structures surround the male urethra?
Corpus spongiosum and corpora cavernosa
Tunica albuginea and seminiferous tubules
Prostatic capsule and ejaculatory ducts
Bulbourethral glands and ureteric orifices
Where are urethral wall glands found?
Membranous urethra
Prostatic urethra
Spongy (penile) urethra
External urethral meatus
What is the primary function of the circulatory system?
To transport blood throughout the body
To produce hormones
To digest nutrients
To ventilate the lungs
If the circulation stops beating, after how long will brain cells be irreversibly damaged?
1–2 minutes
3–4 minutes
5–6 minutes
7–8 minutes
What is the function of capillaries?
They are sites of exchange between blood, tissues, and organs
They generate electrical impulses for the heart
They store venous blood
They secrete hormones
How much blood is pumped into the arteries each minute?
1–2 liters
3 liters
4–5 liters
6–7 liters
What best describes the heart’s activity cycle?
Rhythmic contractions occur by stages
It repeats regularly
These processes form the cardiac cycle
All of the above
How many phases does the cardiac cycle include?
1 phase
2 phases
3 phases
4 phases
Where is the apex of the heart located?
Right 4th intercostal space, midclavicular line
Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
Left 2nd intercostal space, parasternal line
Right 6th intercostal space, midaxillary line
What produces the first heart sound (S1)?
Opening of the semilunar valves
Closure of the atrioventricular valves
Ventricular filling
Atrial contraction
What produces the second heart sound (S2)?
Closure of the semilunar valves
Closure of the atrioventricular valves
Opening of the atrioventricular valves
Atrial systole
In regulating cardiac activity, the sympathetic nervous system causes:
Increased contractility
Increased heart rate
Increased myocardial tone
All of the above
In regulating cardiac activity, the parasympathetic nervous system causes:
Decreased contractility
Slower heart rate
Decreased myocardial tone
All of the above
Which chemical is released from sympathetic nerve endings?
Adrenaline (epinephrine)
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Which chemical is released from parasympathetic nerve endings?
Acetylcholine
Adrenaline (epinephrine)
Serotonin
Histamine
How does thyroid hormone (thyroxine) affect the heart?
It slows the heart rate
It makes the heart beat faster
It stops conduction through the AV node
It decreases stroke volume
When blood CO2 increases and blood O2 decreases, what happens to heart rate?
It slows
It remains unchanged
It speeds up
It becomes irregular
An increase in blood K+ concentration leads to:
Greater myocardial tone
Reduced myocardial tone
No change in myocardial tone
Increased atrial conduction
The elasticity of arteries helps to:
Maintain continuous blood flow in vessels
Increase venous pressure
Reduce stroke volume
Stop capillary exchange
Arterial contractility helps to:
Change arterial cross-sectional area
Regulate blood supply to organs
Both of the above
Circulation of blood is due to:
The pumping force of the heart
Arterial resistance
Both of the above
What is blood pressure?
The force of flowing blood acting on the vessel wall
The volume of blood returning to the heart per minute
The strength of myocardial contraction
The amount of oxygen carried by hemoglobin
What describes “jammed” blood pressure?
When the recorded pressure drops below 20 mmHg
When systolic pressure exceeds 200 mmHg
When diastolic pressure is above 120 mmHg
When pulse pressure widens over 80 mmHg
When blood pressure is jammed, what happens to circulation?
Circulation stagnates
Cardiac output increases
Venous return improves
Capillary filtration rises
Where is the center of the sympathetic nervous system located?
In the lateral horns of spinal cord segments T1 to L3
In the cerebellar cortex
In the posterior pituitary
In the sacral parasympathetic nuclei
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in:
Decreased blood pressure
Increased blood pressure
No change in blood pressure
Only increased venous tone
Where is the parasympathetic center located?
Medulla oblongata
Cerebral cortex
Thalamus
Cerebellum
What is the effect of the parasympathetic system on blood pressure?
It lowers blood pressure
It raises blood pressure
It produces no change
It raises systolic but lowers diastolic
Which gland produces adrenaline (epinephrine)?
Adrenal medulla
Thyroid gland
Pancreatic islets
Pituitary anterior lobe
What is an effect of adrenaline (epinephrine)?
It increases blood pressure
It decreases blood pressure
It reduces heart rate
It causes venous pooling
Which organ secretes adrenaline (epinephrine)?
Adrenal medulla
Kidney cortex
Hypothalamus
Thyroid follicles
Which organ secretes vasopressin?
Hypothalamus
Adrenal cortex
Thyroid gland
Pancreas
An increase in blood K+ concentration causes:
Vasodilation
Vasoconstriction
No vascular change
Capillary closure
Which vein has valves?
Inferior vena cava
Superior vena cava
Hepatic portal vein
Pulmonary vein
What benefit do venous valves provide to the body?
They help blood flow one way upward toward the heart
They slow arterial flow
They increase capillary pressure
They produce clotting factors
What feature of veins benefits the body?
They can distend to store blood, reducing the burden on the heart
They actively pump blood
They deliver oxygen to tissues
They secrete adrenaline
What is a function of the spleen?
It is a hematopoietic organ
It is the graveyard for aged red blood cells
It produces lymphocytes
All of the above
Which coagulation factor is called factor I?
Fibrinogen
Prothrombin
Thrombin
Calcium (factor IV)
Which coagulation factor is called factor II?
Fibrinogen
Prothrombin
Thromboplastin
Factor VII
What is serum?
Plasma with fibrinogen removed
Whole blood without red cells
Plasma with platelets added
Interstitial fluid
Platelets are essential for clot retraction. If a blood clot fails to retract, what does this most strongly indicate?
Thrombocytopenia (reduced peripheral platelets)
Polycythemia
Leukocytosis
Hypercalcemia
Today, which method is used to treat coronary thrombosis?
Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (gene‑recombinant thrombolysis)
Aspirin only
Coronary artery bypass surgery in all cases
No treatment is needed
An important function of the plasma (fibrinolytic) system is to do what?
Remove tiny intravascular clots that could obstruct vessels
Increase platelet aggregation
Produce hemoglobin
Transport oxygen
In clinical practice, heparin is used for what purpose?
To prevent intravascular coagulation
To stimulate red blood cell formation
To raise blood pressure
To increase oxygen binding to hemoglobin
During inspiration, thoracic volume increases in which dimensions? Select all that apply.
Vertical (superior–inferior)
Anteroposterior
Transverse (lateral)
None of the above
Special respiratory actions include which of the following?
Straining
Coughing
Sneezing, speaking, singing
All of the above
What is alveolar ventilation?
The amount of air exchanged in the alveoli per minute
The volume of air in the conducting airways
Total lung capacity
The air remaining after maximal exhalation
What is the anatomical dead space of the respiratory system?
Air that does not participate in gas exchange with blood
Air in the alveoli
Air dissolved in plasma
Air trapped in pleural space
What is the normal inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?
About 1.5 L
About 500 mL
About 3.5 L
About 5 L
What is tidal volume?
The volume of air entering or leaving the lungs in one normal breath
The air exhaled after a maximal inspiration
The volume remaining after maximal expiration
The air that never reaches the alveoli
What is the normal tidal volume?
About 500 mL
About 1.5 L
About 3.5 L
About 5 L
What describes expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?
The extra volume that can be exhaled after a normal expiration
The air inhaled during normal breathing
The air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation
The total amount of air the lungs can hold
What is the normal expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?
About 1.5 L
About 500 mL
About 1.2 L
About 3.5 L
What is vital capacity (VC)?
The maximal volume exhaled after a maximal inspiration
The volume of air in the conducting airways
The volume remaining after maximal expiration
The air exchanged per minute in the alveoli
Vital capacity consists of which volumes?
Tidal volume
Inspiratory reserve volume
Expiratory reserve volume
All of the above
What is the normal vital capacity?
About 3.5 L
About 5 L
About 1.5 L
About 500 mL
What is the normal total lung capacity (TLC)?
About 5 L
About 3.5 L
About 1.5 L
About 500 mL
Total lung capacity consists of which volumes?
Tidal volume
Inspiratory reserve plus expiratory reserve
Residual volume
All of the above
Gas exchange is what kind of process?
Transport of O2 from alveoli to tissues and CO2 from tissues to alveoli
Formation of platelets from megakaryocytes
Active secretion of surfactant
Conversion of CO2 to carbon monoxide
When circulatory function is disordered, it leads to what?
Respiratory functional disturbances
Improved oxygenation
Higher vital capacity
Increased hematocrit
How many forms of oxygen are transported in blood?
Two
One
Three
Four
In blood, oxygen is transported in which forms?
Dissolved in plasma
Bound to hemoglobin
Both dissolved and bound
