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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? Choose two.

a)

video

b)

web

c)

file transfer

d)

voice

e)

peer to peer

2.

Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?

a)

ZigBee

b)

LoRaWAN

c)

5G

d)

Wi‑Fi

3.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork?

a)

application

b)

network access

c)

internet

d)

transport

4.

Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

NTP

d)

FTP

5.

What are proprietary protocols?

a)

protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware

b)

protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor

c)

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation

d)

a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

6.

What service is provided by DNS?

a)

Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.

b)

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

c)

Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.

d)

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

7.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?

a)

POP3

b)

IMAP

c)

SMTP

d)

HTTP

8.

What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

a)

show ip interface brief

b)

ping

c)

show interfaces

d)

ipconfig

9.

A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?

a)

client-based

b)

master-slave

c)

point-to-point

d)

peer-to-peer (P2P)

10.

What characteristic describes a virus?

a)

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

b)

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

c)

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

d)

malicious software or code running on an end device

11.

Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

a)

  • financial transactions, web page, audio conference

b)

  • audio conference, financial transactions, web page

c)

  • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

d)

  • audio conference, web page, financial transactions

12.

Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component: This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider.

a)

global routing prefix

b)

subnet mask

c)

subnet ID

d)

interface ID

13.

Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component: This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets.

a)

global routing prefix

b)

subnet mask

c)

subnet ID

d)

interface ID

14.

Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component: This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4 address.

a)

global routing prefix

b)

subnet mask

c)

subnet ID

d)

interface ID

15.

Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

a)

only application and Internet layers

b)

only Internet and network access layers

c)

only application, Internet, and network access layers

d)

application, transport, Internet, and network access layers

e)

only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

16.

Classify the statement as describing cut-through switching or store-and-forward switching: "always stores the entire frame"

a)

Cut-through

b)

Store-and-forward

c)

Neither

17.

Classify the statement as describing cut-through switching or store-and-forward switching: "checks the CRC before forwarding"

a)

Cut-through

b)

Store-and-forward

c)

Neither

18.

Classify the statement as describing cut-through switching or store-and-forward switching: "checks the frame length before forwarding"

a)

Cut-through

b)

Store-and-forward

c)

Neither

19.

Classify the statement as describing cut-through switching or store-and-forward switching: "does not forward broadcasts"

a)

Cut-through

b)

Store-and-forward

c)

Neither

20.

Classify the statement as describing cut-through switching or store-and-forward switching: "has low latency"

a)

Cut-through

b)

Store-and-forward

c)

Neither

21.

Classify the statement as describing cut-through switching or store-and-forward switching: "may forward runt frames"

a)

Cut-through

b)

Store-and-forward

c)

Neither

22.

Classify the statement as describing cut-through switching or store-and-forward switching: "begins forwarding when the destination address is received"

a)

Cut-through

b)

Store-and-forward

c)

Neither

23.

Refer to the exhibit. In the network diagram showing host H1 connected to router R1 (interfaces labeled G0/0 and G0/1), with serial links from R1 to R2 and R3 (interfaces labeled S0/0/0, S0/0/1, S0/1/0), and an ISP connected beyond R2, the IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

a)

R1: S0/0/0

b)

R2: S0/0/1

c)

R1: G0/0

d)

R2: S0/0/0

24.

What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

a)

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

b)

Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

c)

Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network: Network A has 100 hosts. Choose the IP address and prefix that meets this requirement.

a)

192.168.0.96/27

b)

192.168.0.128/25

c)

192.168.0.80/30

d)

192.168.0.0/26

26.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network: Network B has 50 hosts. Choose the IP address and prefix that meets this requirement.

a)

192.168.0.96/27

b)

192.168.0.128/25

c)

192.168.0.80/30

d)

192.168.0.0/26

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network: Network C has 25 hosts. Choose the IP address and prefix that meets this requirement.

a)

192.168.0.96/27

b)

192.168.0.128/25

c)

192.168.0.80/30

d)

192.168.0.0/26

28.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network: Network D has 2 hosts. Choose the IP address and prefix that meets this requirement.

a)

192.168.0.96/27

b)

192.168.0.128/25

c)

192.168.0.80/30

d)

192.168.0.0/26

29.

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown?

a)

DHCP

b)

ARP

c)

DNS

d)

ICMP

30.

A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

a)

RFI

b)

  • EMI

c)

Crosstalk between cable pairs

d)

Attenuation due to excessive cable length

31.

A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

a)

It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.

b)

It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.

c)

It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.

d)

It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.

e)

It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

32.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

a)

DNS

b)

NetBIOS (NetBT)

c)

POP3

d)

IMAP

33.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.128

b)

255.255.255.224

34.

What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

a)

malicious software or code running on an end device

b)

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

c)

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

d)

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

35.

What service is provided by HTTPS?

a)

Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

b)

Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.

c)

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

d)

Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

36.

A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

a)

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination MAC address of the technician PC.

b)

The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application.

c)

The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.

d)

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address that is used by the PC of the technician.

37.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.240

b)

255.255.255.224

c)

255.255.255.192

d)

255.255.255.128

38.

Refer to the exhibit. Network A requires usable addressing for 100 hosts. Which single subnet mask/prefix is the smallest that will satisfy this requirement?

a)

255.255.255.128 (/25)

b)

255.255.255.192 (/26)

c)

255.255.255.224 (/27)

d)

255.255.255.240 (/28)

39.

Refer to the exhibit. Network B requires usable addressing for 50 hosts. Which single subnet mask/prefix is the smallest that will satisfy this requirement?

a)

255.255.255.128 (/25)

b)

255.255.255.192 (/26)

c)

255.255.255.224 (/27)

d)

255.255.255.240 (/28)

40.

Refer to the exhibit. Network C requires usable addressing for 25 hosts. Which single subnet mask/prefix is the smallest that will satisfy this requirement?

a)

255.255.255.192 (/26)

b)

255.255.255.224 (/27)

c)

255.255.255.240 (/28)

d)

255.255.255.248 (/29)

41.

Refer to the exhibit. Network D requires usable addressing for 2 hosts. Which single subnet mask/prefix is the smallest that will satisfy this requirement?

a)

255.255.255.248 (/29)

b)

255.255.255.252 (/30)

c)

255.255.255.240 (/28)

d)

255.255.255.224 (/27)

42.

Refer to the diagram showing Networks A–D next to five available subnets: 192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.0.192/27, 192.168.0.228/32, 192.168.0.224/30, and 192.168.0.128/26. Which subnet should be assigned to Network A?

a)

192.168.0.0/24

b)

192.168.0.192/27

c)

192.168.0.228/32

d)

192.168.0.224/30

e)

192.168.0.128/26

43.

Refer to the diagram showing Networks A–D next to five available subnets: 192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.0.192/27, 192.168.0.228/32, 192.168.0.224/30, and 192.168.0.128/26. Which subnet should be assigned to Network B?

a)

192.168.0.0/24

b)

192.168.0.192/27

c)

192.168.0.228/32

d)

192.168.0.224/30

e)

192.168.0.128/26

44.

Refer to the diagram showing Networks A–D next to five available subnets: 192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.0.192/27, 192.168.0.228/32, 192.168.0.224/30, and 192.168.0.128/26. Which subnet should be assigned to Network C?

a)

192.168.0.0/24

b)

192.168.0.192/27

c)

192.168.0.228/32

d)

192.168.0.224/30

e)

192.168.0.128/26

45.

Refer to the diagram showing Networks A–D next to five available subnets: 192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.0.192/27, 192.168.0.228/32, 192.168.0.224/30, and 192.168.0.128/26. Which subnet should be assigned to Network D?

a)

192.168.0.0/24

b)

192.168.0.192/27

c)

192.168.0.228/32

d)

192.168.0.224/30

e)

192.168.0.128/26

46.

What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

a)

  • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

b)

The use of stolen credentials to access private data

c)

Encrypting files on a host to demand ransom

d)

Defacing a website to alter its content

47.

Match each application protocol to its correct transport protocol. Which transport protocol does DHCP use?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

48.

Match each application protocol to its correct transport protocol. Which transport protocol does FTP use?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

49.

Match each application protocol to its correct transport protocol. Which transport protocol does HTTP use?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

50.

Match each application protocol to its correct transport protocol. Which transport protocol does SMTP use?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

51.

Match each application protocol to its correct transport protocol. Which transport protocol does TFTP use?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

52.

What service is provided by SMTP?

a)

Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send email to other servers.

b)

Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

c)

Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.

d)

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

53.

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

a)

  • A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.

b)

  • A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

c)

  • A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.

d)

  • A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.

54.

Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

a)

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab; Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb; Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200; Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200

b)

Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-dd; Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb

55.

What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

a)

strengthening of a signal by a networking device

b)

leakage of signals from one cable pair to another

c)

time for a signal to reach its destination

d)

loss of signal strength as distance increases

56.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

a)

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

b)

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

c)

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

d)

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

57.

Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

POP

d)

DNS

58.

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

a)

automation

b)

accounting

c)

authentication

d)

authorization

59.

What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)

a)

message size

b)

message encoding

c)

media selection

d)

  • delivery options

60.

What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

a)

does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection

b)

operates independently of the network media

c)

retransmits packets if errors occur

d)

re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end

e)

guarantees delivery of packets

61.

An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees. Which network characteristic is also demonstrated by this scenario? (Select all that apply.)

a)

fault tolerance

b)

  • quality of service

c)

  • fault tolerance

d)

integrity

62.

What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

a)

improper termination

b)

low-quality shielding in cable

c)

installing cables in conduit

d)

low-quality cable or connectors

e)

loss of light over long distances

63.

Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

a)

192.168.1.64/26

b)

192.168.1.32/27

c)

192.168.1.32/28

d)

192.168.1.64/29

64.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output of the tracert command shown, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.) Output: C:\Windows\system32> tracert 192.168.100.1 Tracing route to 192.168.100.1 over a maximum of 30 hops 1 1 ms <1 ms 10.10.10.10 2 2 ms 1 ms 192.168.1.22 3 2 ms 2 ms 1 ms 192.168.1.62 4 2 ms 2 ms 1 ms 172.16.1.1 5 2 ms 2 ms 1 ms 192.168.100.1 Trace complete.

a)

The destination 192.168.100.1 is reached within five hops.

b)

The first hop gateway is 10.10.10.10.

c)

The trace fails before reaching the destination.

d)

The third hop is 172.16.1.1.

e)

The maximum hop count is exceeded without a reply.

65.

Which statements are true based on the displayed output? (Choose two.)

a)

This host does not have a default gateway configured.

b)

There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.

c)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.

d)

The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

e)

The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

66.

Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

a)

Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.

b)

Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types.

c)

Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center.

d)

Perform the capture on different network segments.

e)

Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network.

67.

What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?

a)

The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages

b)

All router interfaces will be automatically activated.

c)

  • Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.​

d)

Link-local addresses are removed from router interfaces.

68.

Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

a)

application

b)

session

c)

presentation

69.

Refer to the exhibit showing two routers (R1 and R2) connected through interface S0/0/0, with PC1 on R1 G0/0 (192.168.10.8/24) and PC2 on R2 G0/0 (192.168.11.5/24). If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

a)

  • remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0

b)

  • open the header and replace the destination MAC address with a new one

c)

  • open the header and use it to determine whether the data is to be sent out S0/0/0

d)

  • nothing, because the router has a route to the destination network

70.

What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

a)

The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

b)

The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.

c)

A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

d)

The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

e)

The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

71.

What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

a)

  • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.

b)

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

c)

  • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

d)

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

72.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.128

b)

255.255.255.240

c)

255.255.255.224

73.

What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? Choose two.

a)

Neighbor Solicitation

b)

Router Advertisement

74.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

a)

DHCP

b)

SMTP

c)

DNS

d)

HTTP

75.

What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

a)

  • Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client.

b)

  • POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.

c)

  • When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.

d)

  • IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.

76.

A technician can ping the IP address of a remote company’s web server but cannot successfully ping the URL of the same server. Which software utility should be used to diagnose the name resolution problem?

a)

tracert

b)

ipconfig

c)

netstat

d)

nslookup

77.

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

a)

Implements CSMA/CD over shared half‑duplex media

b)

  • places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

c)

  • enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

d)

Handles physical addressing and frame delimiting on the medium

78.

The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

a)

The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.

b)

The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.

c)

The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.

d)

The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

79.

What happens when the command transport input ssh is entered on the switch vty lines?

a)

  • Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

b)

  • The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.

c)

The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software

d)

  • The SSH client on the switch is enabled.

80.

Match the type of threat with the cause. Select the correct cause for electrical threats.

a)

voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts), unconditioned power (noise), and total power loss

b)

physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling plant, and workstations

c)

temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity extremes (too wet or too dry)

d)

poor handling of key electrical components (electrostatic discharge), lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor

81.

Match the type of threat with the cause. Select the correct cause for hardware threats.

a)

voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts), unconditioned power (noise), and total power loss

b)

physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling plant, and workstations

c)

temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity extremes (too wet or too dry)

d)

poor handling of key electrical components (electrostatic discharge), lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor

82.

Match the type of threat with the cause. Select the correct cause for environmental threats.

a)

voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts), unconditioned power (noise), and total power loss

b)

physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling plant, and workstations

c)

temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity extremes (too wet or too dry)

d)

poor handling of key electrical components (electrostatic discharge), lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor

83.

Match the type of threat with the cause. Select the correct cause for maintenance threats.

a)

voltage spikes, insufficient supply voltage (brownouts), unconditioned power (noise), and total power loss

b)

physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling plant, and workstations

c)

temperature extremes (too hot or too cold) or humidity extremes (too wet or too dry)

d)

poor handling of key electrical components (electrostatic discharge), lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor

84.

A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?

a)

DoS

b)

access

c)

reconnaissance

d)

Trojan horse

85.

What service is provided by HTTP?

a)

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

b)

Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.

c)

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

d)

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

86.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

a)

FTP

b)

DHCP

c)

Telnet

d)

SSH

87.

What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)

a)

  • The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.

b)

  • All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.

c)

A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table

d)

  • The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.

88.

A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

a)

ipconfig

b)

ping

c)

tracert

d)

nslookup

89.

During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

a)

analyze the destination IP address

b)

switch the packet to the directly connected interface

c)

look up the next-hop address for the packet

d)

discard the traffic after consulting the route table

90.

What characteristic describes antispyware?

a)

applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software

b)

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

c)

software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

d)

a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

91.

A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

a)

Telnet

b)

AUX

c)

SSH

d)

Console

92.

What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)

a)

  • Update the operating system and other application software.

b)

  • Install and update antivirus software.

c)

  • Implement strong passwords.

d)

disable firewalls to reduce system overheadImplement RAID.

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DIESEL ENGINE

90 questions

DIESEL ENGINE

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•

11th Grade