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Penta Criminal Justice Drone Quiz (Grade 11)

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to Figure 23. What is the significance of the flag located at N32°22 and W81°18?

a)

Shows the highest point on the sectional chart

b)

VFR reporting checkpoint

c)

There is a large flag pole in the area

2.

Referring to Figure 25 Area 3, If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

a)

122.95 MHz

b)

127.25 MHz

c)

126.35 MHz

3.

Which of the following individuals may process an application for a part 107 remote pilot certificate with an sUAS rating?

a)

Remote Pilot in Command

b)

Commercial Balloon pilot

c)

Designated Pilot Examiner

4.

The FAA may approve your application for a waiver of provisions in part 107 only when it has been determined that the proposed operation:

a)

Involves public aircraft or air carrier operations

b)

Can be safely conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver

c)

Will be conducted outside of the United States

5.

A local TV station has hired a remote pilot to operate their small UA to cover breaking news stories. The remote pilot has had multiple near misses with obstacles on the ground and two small UAS accidents. What would be a solution for the news station to improve their operating safety culture?

a)

The news station should recognize hazardous attitudes and situations and develop standard operating procedures that emphasize safety.

b)

The news station should implement a policy of no more than five crashes/incidents within 6 months.

c)

The news station does not need to make any changes; there are times that an accident is unavoidable.

6.

According to 14 CFR part 107, an sUAS is an unmanned aircraft system weighing:

a)

55 lbs

b)

55kg or less

c)

Less than 55 lbs

7.

Refer to Figure 21 Area 2, The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

a)

123.0 MHz

b)

122.8 MHz

c)

122.9 MHz

8.

Why would the small flag at Lake Drummond in area 2 of the sectional chart be important to a Remote PIC? (Figure 20)

a)

The flag indicates a VFR check point for manned aircraft, and a higher volume of air traffic should be expected there.

b)

The flag indicates a GPS check point that can be used by both manned and remote pilots for orientation.

c)

The flag indicates that there will be a large obstruction depicted on the next printing of the chart.

9.

What could you do to reduce stress in the field?

a)

Take medication

b)

Reduce stress at home

c)

Pretend the stress is not there

10.

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

a)

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

b)

Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA

c)

Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA

11.

According to 14 CFR part 107, who is responsible for determining the performance of a small unmanned aircraft?

a)

Remote Pilot in Command

b)

Manufacturer

c)

Owner or Operator

12.

Within how many calendar days must an sUAS accident be reported to the FAA?

a)

30 days

b)

90 days

c)

10 days

13.

Refer to Figure 15. When might the weather become 3SM BR SKC?

a)

On the 13th at 0200z

b)

On the 12th at 1200z

c)

On the 13th from 1000z to 1200z

14.

According to 14 CFR part 107, the responsibility to inspect the small unmanned aircraft system (sUAS) to ensure it is in a safe operating condition rests with the:

a)

Visual observer

b)

Owner of the sUAS

c)

Remote Pilot in Command

15.

If an unmanned airplane weighs 33 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude? (Figure 2)

a)

47 pounds

b)

38 pounds

c)

34 pounds

16.

To ensure that the unmanned aircraft center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the aircraft loading instructions specified in the:

a)

Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook

b)

Pilot's Operating Handbook or UAS Flight Manual

c)

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

17.

On a VFR sectional chart, what do blue hash marks indicate?

a)

Wildlife Refuge

b)

Class A Airspace

c)

Restricted Area

18.

The vertical limits of the portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are (Refer to Figure 22, area 3)

a)

7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL

b)

700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL

c)

1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL

19.

Refer to Figure 15. How does the weather change from 2200z to 0200z?

a)

The ceiling drops from 1,500 to 800

b)

Lightning will start

c)

The skies become clear

20.

When adapting crew resource management (CRM) concepts to the operation of a small unmanned aircraft, CRM must be integrated into:

a)

All phases of the operation

b)

The communications only

c)

The flight portion only

21.

What effect does high density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?

a)

Propeller efficiency is increased

b)

Propeller efficiency is decreased

c)

Density Altitude does not affect propeller efficiency

22.

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as:

a)

A funnel cloud

b)

An inactive frontal cloud

c)

A lenticular cloud

23.

The effective use of all available resources—human, hardware, and information—prior to and during flight to ensure the successful outcome of the operation is called:

a)

Crew Resource Management

b)

Flight Operations Qualification Program

c)

Safety Management System

24.

You have been hired to inspect the tower under construction at 46.9N and 98.6W, near Jamestown Regional (JMS). (Fig 26, area 4) What must you receive prior to flying your unmanned aircraft in this area?

a)

Authorization from ATC

b)

Authorization from the Military

c)

Authorization from the National Park Service

25.

According to 14 CFR part 48, when would a small unmanned aircraft owner not be permitted to register it?

a)

All persons are eligible to register a small unmanned aircraft

b)

If the owner does not have a valid United States driver's license

c)

If the owner is less than 13 years of age

26.

What kind of air would you expect over a barren area on a hot day?

a)

Stable Air

b)

Unstable Air

c)

Stratus Clouds

27.

Before each flight, the Remote Pilot in Command must ensure that:

a)

The site supervisor has approved the flight

b)

TSA has granted clearance

c)

Objects carried on the sUAS are secure

28.

Which of the following types of operations are excluded from the requirements in part 107?

a)

Recreational use of sUAS for the operator's enjoyment

b)

UAS used for motion picture filming

c)

Quadcopter capturing aerial imagery for crop monitoring

29.

What is a characteristic of stable air?

a)

Unlimited visibility

b)

Cumulus clouds

c)

Stratiform clouds

30.

Identify the hazardous attitude or characteristic a Remote Pilot in Command displays while taking risks in order to impress others?

a)

Impulsivity

b)

Machoism

c)

Invulnerability

31.

What airport is located approximately 47 degrees 40 minutes N latitude and 101 degrees 26 minutes W longitude? (Figure 21)

a)

Semshenko Airport

b)

Garrison Airport

c)

Mercer County Regional Airport

32.

When operating an unmanned aircraft, the Remote Pilot in Command should consider that the load factor on the wings or rotors may be increased anytime when:

a)

The center of gravity (CG) is shifted rearward to the aft CG limit

b)

The gross weight is reduced

c)

The aircraft is subjected to maneuvers other than straight and level flight

33.

Referring to Figure 23 Area 3, What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

a)

1,531 feet AGL

b)

1,548 feet MSL

c)

1,499 feet MSL

34.

The chart shows a gray line with “VR1667, VR1617, VR1638, and VR1668.” Could this area present a hazard to the operations of a small unmanned aircraft? (Fig 59, area 2)

a)

Yes, this is a Military Training Route from 1,500 feet AGL and below

b)

No, all operations will be above 400 feet

c)

Yes, the defined route provides traffic separation to manned aircraft

35.

The most comprehensive information on a given airport is provided by:

a)

Chart Supplement U.S. (Airport/Facility Directory)

b)

Sectional Aeronautical Chart

c)

NOTAMs

d)

Terminal Procedures Publication

36.

You move and change your address. How long do you have to notify the FAA?

a)

30 Days

b)

60 Days

c)

90 Days

37.

In accordance with 14 CFR part 107, except when within a 400' radius of a structure, at what maximum altitude can you operate an sUAS?

a)

400 feet above ground level (AGL)

b)

600 feet above ground level (AGL)

c)

500 feet above ground level (AGL)

38.

Refer to Figure 26. You’ve been commissioned to fly in the wildlife preserve located at N47°40 and W98°31. Can you accept this job?

a)

No, you are unable to fly in national wildlife refuge areas

b)

Yes, if you obtain prior permission from the controlling agency of Restricted Area R-5401

c)

No, you can never enter restricted airspace

39.

Referring to Figure 69 Area 6, what does the alert indicate?

a)

Wildlife Refuge Center

b)

Concentrated Student Jet Training

c)

Class A Airspace

40.

Refer to Figure 26. What is the height AGL of the tower located at N47°14 and W98°11?

a)

1,729 ft

b)

320 ft

c)

306 ft

41.

What are the four hazardous attitudes?

a)

Macho, Impulsivity, Resignation, Quitter

b)

Macho, Impulsivity, Resignation, Anti-Authority

c)

Macho, Impulsivity, Resignation, Control Freak

42.

What does the line of latitude at area 4 measure? (Figure 26)

a)

The degrees of latitude east and west of the line that passes through Greenwich, England

b)

The degrees of latitude north and south from the equator

c)

The degrees of latitude east and west of the Prime Meridian

43.

How would a remote PIC “CHECK NOTAMS” as noted in the CAUTION box regarding the unmarked balloon? (Figure 20)

a)

By utilizing the B4UFLY mobile application

b)

By contacting the FAA district office

c)

By obtaining a briefing via online source such as: 1800WXBrief.com

44.

To get a complete weather overview for the planned flight, the Remote Pilot in Command should obtain a:

a)

An abbreviated briefing

b)

An outlook briefing

c)

A standard briefing

45.

When can you not operate in a restricted airspace?

a)

When it's active

b)

When it's inactive

c)

Anytime as long as you don't violate the right of way of military aircraft

46.

To avoid a possible collision with a manned airplane, you estimate that your small unmanned aircraft climbed to an altitude greater than 600 feet AGL. To whom must you report the deviation?

a)

Air Traffic Control

b)

The Federal Aviation Administration, upon request

c)

The National Transportation Safety Board

47.

A person without a part 107 remote pilot certificate may operate an sUAS for non-recreational operations:

a)

Under the direct supervision of a Remote Pilot in Command

b)

Alone, if operating during daylight hours

c)

Only when visual observers participate in the operation

48.

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

a)

Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water

b)

The movement of cold air over much warmer water

c)

Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights

49.

A stall occurs when the smooth airflow over the unmanned airplane's wing is disrupted, and the lift degenerates rapidly. This is caused when the wing:

a)

Exceeds the maximum speed

b)

Exceeds its critical angle of attack

c)

Exceeds maximum allowable operating weight

50.

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

a)

Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

b)

Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta

c)

Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta

51.

What is the significance of seeing “CB” in a METAR sky cover section EXAMPLE: KFAR 301953Z 36006KT 10SM SCT030CB 27/11 A3021

a)

Cirrus Clouds

b)

Stratus Clouds

c)

Cumulonimbus Clouds

52.

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

a)

Towering cumulus

b)

Cumulonimbus

c)

Nimbostratus

53.

Referring to Figure 26 Area 1, The Devils Lake East MOA is a

a)

Military operations area

b)

Military observation area

c)

Meteorological observation area

54.

Refer to Figure 23. What does the magenta “C” next to the 122.8 frequency at the Claxton-Evans Co airport mean in area 2?

a)

Common traffic advisory frequency

b)

Class C airspace

c)

Common weather frequency

55.

What are the current conditions for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)? (Refer to Figure 12)

a)

Sky 700 feet over cast, visibility 11, occasionally 2 SM, with rain

b)

Sky 7000 feet over cast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy rain

c)

Sky 700 feet over cast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain

56.

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

a)

Outward shape

b)

Height range

c)

Composition

57.

Scheduled maintenance should be performed in accordance with the:

a)

Contractor requirements

b)

Manufacturer's recommendations

c)

Stipulations in 14 CFR part 43

58.

Under what condition does frost form?

a)

When the surface temperature is below the dew point in freezing temperatures

b)

When advection fog is present

c)

When the surface temperature is below the dew point in any temperature

59.

You have been hired by a farmer to use your small unmanned aircraft to inspect his crops. The area that you are to survey is in the Devil’s Lake West MOA, east of area 2. How would you find out if the MOA is active? (Figure 21)

a)

Locate the information in the Small UAS database

b)

Refer to the legend for special use airspace phone number

c)

Refer to the Military Operations Directory

60.

Under what condition would a small unmanned aircraft not have to be registered before it is operated in the United States?

a)

All small unmanned aircraft need to be registered regardless of the weight of the aircraft before, during, or after the flight

b)

When the aircraft weighs less than .55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on-board or attached to the aircraft

c)

When the aircraft has a takeoff weight that is more than .55 pounds, but less than 55 pounds, not including fuel and necessary attachments

61.

Referring to Figure 26 Area 2, what hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

a)

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

b)

High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

c)

Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles

62.

Referring to Figure 20, the flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents

a)

Compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport

b)

Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial call up to Norfolk Approach Control

c)

Compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace

63.

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

a)

Class C

b)

Class B

c)

Class D

64.

What Class Airspace does not require approval before entering?

a)

Class G Airspace

b)

Class C Airspace

c)

Class E Airspace

65.

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

a)

Consuming an equal amount of water will increase the destruction of alcohol and alleviate a hangover

b)

Consuming an equal amount of water will increase the destruction of alcohol and alleviate a hangover

c)

Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amount of alcohol

66.

At Coeur D'Alene which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? (Figure 22, Area 2)

a)

122.05 MHz

b)

135.075 MHz

c)

122.8 MHz

67.

Refer to Figure 15. How long is the TAF at KMEM valid for?

a)

The 12th of the month at 1800z to the 13th of the month at 2400z

b)

The 12th at 1720z

c)

The 12th of the month to the 14th of the month

68.

A person whose sole task is watching the sUAS to report hazards to the rest of the crew is called:

a)

Remote Pilot in Command

b)

Person manipulating the controls

c)

Visual observer

69.

Referring to Figure 59 Area 3, what is the height of the lighted tower to the northeast of Putnam Co (OWX) Airport?

a)

1817 MSL

b)

279 MSL

c)

1024 AGL

70.

What are the characteristics of stable air?

a)

Poor visibility and steady precipitation

b)

Good visibility and steady precipitation

c)

Poor visibility and intermittent precipitation

71.

When using a small unmanned aircraft in a non-recreational operation, who is responsible for informing the participants about emergency procedures?

a)

The lead visual observer

b)

The Remote Pilot in Command

c)

The FAA Inspector-in-Charge

72.

Under what condition should the Remote Pilot in Command of a small unmanned aircraft develop his or her own scheduled maintenance protocol?

a)

When the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule

b)

When the FAA requires you to, following an accident

c)

Small unmanned aircraft systems do not require maintenance

73.

In accordance with 14 CFR part 107, you may operate an sUAS from a moving vehicle when no property is carried for compensation or hire:

a)

Over suburban areas

b)

Over a sparsely populated area

c)

Over a parade or other social events

74.

Referring to Figure 21 Area 3, What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

a)

VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots

b)

IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

c)

Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots

75.

What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? (Figure 23, area 3)

a)

1,300 feet AGL

b)

1,300 feet MSL

c)

1,700 feet MSL

76.

Refer to Figure 26. You’ve been commissioned to fly in the wildlife preserve located at N47°40 and W98°31 from a moving boat is it legal to fly there?

a)

Yes, as long as you're over a sparsely populated area

b)

No, you are unable to fly in national wildlife refuge areas

c)

No, you can never enter restricted airspace

77.

What is the significance of seeing “CB” in a METAR sky cover section? EXAMPLE: KFAR 301953Z 36006KT 10SM SCT030CB 27/11 A3021

a)

Stratus Clouds

b)

Cirrus Clouds

c)

Cumulonimbus Clouds

78.

While monitoring the Cooperstown Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) you hear an aircraft announce that they are midfield left downwind to RWY 13. Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway? (Figure 26, area 2)

a)

The aircraft is East

b)

The aircraft is South

c)

The aircraft is West

79.

What is the weather at the Fargo airport? KFAR 301953Z 36006KT 10SM CLR 27/11 A3021

a)

Winds from the south at 6 knots and clear

b)

Winds from the north at 6 knots and clear

c)

Winds from the north at 60 knots and clear

80.

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

a)

Advection fog and upslope fog

b)

Radiation fog and ice fog

c)

Steam fog and ground fog

81.

After receiving a part 107 remote pilot certificate with an sUAS rating, how often must you satisfy recurrent training requirements?

a)

Within 6 calendar months

b)

Within 12 calendar months

c)

Within 24 calendar months

82.

The suffix “nimbus,” used in naming clouds, means

a)

A rain cloud

b)

A middle cloud containing ice pellets

c)

A cloud with extensive vertical development

83.

Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic? A remote pilot should

a)

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

b)

Continuously scan the sky from right to left

c)

Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area

84.

Referring to Figure 26, what airport is located at 46°N 56 mins Latitude and 98°W 41 mins Longitude?

a)

Sprague

b)

Jamestown RGNC

c)

Barnes Co

85.

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?

a)

Unequal heating of the Earth's Surface

b)

Variation of terrain elevation

c)

Coriolis force

86.

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

a)

Movement of air

b)

Pressure differential

c)

Heat exchange

87.

On a VFR sectional chart, a solid blue line indicates what?

a)

Class E Airspace

b)

Restricted Airspace

c)

Class B Airspace

88.

What could be a consequence of operating a small unmanned aircraft above its maximum allowable weight?

a)

Increased maneuverability

b)

Shorter endurance

c)

Faster speed

89.

What is standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

a)

29°C and 15.53" Hg

b)

15°C and 29.92" Hg

c)

30°C and 29.96" Hg

90.

On a VFR sectional chart, what does an “R” with a circle around it represent?

a)

Refueling Area

b)

Remote pilot only airspace

c)

Private airport

91.

Safety is an important element for a remote pilot to consider prior to operating an unmanned aircraft system. To prevent the final “link” in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider which methodology?

a)

Crew Resource Management

b)

Risk Management

c)

Safety Management System

92.

You are a Remote Pilot in Command for a co-op energy service provider. You plan to use your unmanned aircraft to inspect power lines in the remote area 15 hours away from your home office. After the drive, fatigue impacts your abilities to complete your assignment on time. Fatigue can be recognized:

a)

Easily by an experienced pilot

b)

By an ability to overcome sleep deprivation

c)

As being in an impaired state

93.

You have been hired as a Remote Pilot in Command by a local TV news station to film breaking news with a small unmanned aircraft. You expressed a safety concern and the station manager has instructed you to “fly first, ask questions later.” What type of hazardous attitude does this attitude represent?

a)

Machoism

b)

Invulnerability

c)

Impulsivity

94.

You have received an outlook briefing from flight service through 1800wxbrief.com. The briefing indicates you can expect a low-level temperature inversion with high relative humidity. What weather conditions would you expect?

a)

Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds

b)

Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain

c)

Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation

95.

While operating a small unmanned aircraft system (sUAS), you experience a flyaway and several people suffer injuries. Which of the following injuries requires reporting to the FAA?

a)

An injury requiring hospitalization

b)

Scrapes and cuts bandaged on site

c)

Minor bruises

96.

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

a)

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

b)

Poor visibility and smooth air

c)

Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation

97.

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

a)

Poor visibility and smooth air

b)

Haze and smoke

c)

Turbulence and showery precipitation

98.

Which technique should a visual observer use to scan for air traffic during a remote flight?

a)

Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area

b)

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

c)

Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left

99.

Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft operated:

a)

During search and rescue operations other than public

b)

Without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft

c)

Autonomously by onboard computers

100.

What are characteristics of unstable air?

a)

Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility

b)

Turbulence and good surface visibility

c)

Turbulence and poor surface visibility

101.

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

a)

Turbulent air

b)

Showery precipitation

c)

Poor surface visibility

102.

Refer to Figure 26. What is the common traffic advisory frequency for the Cooperstown Airport located in area 2

a)

121.5

b)

122.9

c)

118.75

103.

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type of weather is most likely to develop?

a)

Freezing precipitation

b)

Thunderstorms

c)

Fog or low clouds

104.

When requesting a waiver, the required documents should be presented to the FAA at least how many calendar days prior to the planned operation?

a)

10 days

b)

30 days

c)

90 days

105.

Who would a Remote Pilot in Command contact to “CHECK NOTAMS” as it is noted in the CAUTION box regarding the unmarked balloon?

a)

NTSB office

b)

Flight Service

c)

FAA district office

106.

Referring to Figure 22 Area 2, At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

a)

122.8 MHz

b)

122.1/108.8 MHz

c)

122.05 MHz

107.

Referring to Figure 12 what is the wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from:

a)

180° true at 4 knots

b)

180° magnetic 4 knots

c)

040° true at 18 knots

108.

With ATC authorization, you are operating your small unmanned aircraft approximately 4 SM southeast of Elizabeth City Regional Airport (ECG). (Figure 20) What hazard is indicated to be in that area?

a)

Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet MSL

b)

High density military operations in the vicinity

109.

What is the definition of a ceiling?

a)

Any cloud at any altitude

b)

The lowest cloud layer

c)

The lowest broken or overcast layer

110.

Which of the following operations would be regulated by 14 CFR 107?

a)

Operating your sUAS for an imagery company

b)

Conducting public operations during a search mission

c)

Flying for enjoyment with family and friends

111.

According to 14 CFR part 107, what is required to operate a small unmanned aircraft within 30 minutes after official sunset?

a)

Use of lighted anti-collision lights

b)

Must be operated in a rural area

c)

Use of a transponder

112.

Referring to Figure 23 area 3, what type of airspace is the Ridgeland Airport located in?

a)

Military Operations Area

b)

Prohibited Airspace

c)

Restricted Airspace

113.

Which of the following operations require adherence to 14 CFR 107?

a)

Operating an sUAS for compensation

b)

Operations conducted outside the United States

c)

Flying a sUAS for enjoyment with family and friends

114.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about small unmanned aircraft registration with the FAA before operation in the National Airspace System (NAS)?

a)

All small unmanned aircraft operating under part 107 must be registered

b)

Small unmanned aircraft do not require registration

c)

Only unmanned aircraft that weigh 55 pounds or more must be registered

115.

As part of an overall safety risk assessment for flight, when should the Remote Pilot in Command check and consider weather conditions in the operating area?

a)

Prior to and throughout the duration of every small UAS flight

b)

Only when planning an operation with unfamiliar small UAS equipment

c)

Never. Weather factors cannot influence small UAS performance

116.

While operating around buildings, the Remote Pilot in Command should be aware of the creation of wind gusts that

a)

Change rapidly in direction and speed causing turbulence

b)

Enhance stability and imagery

c)

Increase performance of the aircraft

117.

Part 89 Remote Identification (Remote ID) requirements:

a)

Apply to all unmanned aircraft operating under part 107

b)

Do not apply to unmanned aircraft

c)

Only apply to unmanned aircraft that weigh less than 0.55 lbs

118.

A small unmanned aircraft without Remote ID that is equipped after production with a Remote ID broadcast module:

a)

Is limited to visual line of sight (VLOS) operations

b)

May not be operated in the National Airspace System (NAS)

c)

May only operate at FAA-recognized identification areas (FRIAs)

119.

A person may not use a Remote ID broadcast module that:

a)

Relies solely on a software upgrade to existing hardware on the UA

b)

Is installed by anyone other than the UA manufacturer

c)

Fails the self-test when powered on

120.

According to 14 CFR part 107, who is responsible for ensuring that all control links between the ground control station and the small unmanned aircraft are working properly?

a)

Remote Pilot in Command

b)

Manufacturer

c)

Owner or operator

121.

According to 14 CFR part 107, what is required to operate a small unmanned aircraft in civil twilight or at night?

a)

Selection of a rural area for conducting the operation

b)

Use of a transponder

c)

Use of lighted anti-collision lights

122.

When conducting operations during civil twilight or at night, the small unmanned aircraft must be equipped with anti-collision lights that are capable of being visible for at least:

a)

1 statute mile (sm) from the control station

b)

3 statute miles (sm) from the control station

c)

5 statute miles (sm) from the control station

123.

When does a Remote Pilot in Command operating at night have the discretion to reduce the intensity of the anti-collision lighting?

a)

In the interest of operational safety

b)

Never

c)

Only at the start of a night operation

124.

To keep the small unmanned aircraft in the intended area and within visual line-of-sight (VLOS) during night operations, the Remote Pilot in Command:

a)

Should reduce operational ranges

b)

Is required to designate two visual observers

c)

May rely solely on anti-collision lights

125.

During night operations, compensate for the night-blind spot by:

a)

Using bright ground lighting around the Remote PIC

b)

Looking 5° to 10° off-center of the sUAS

c)

Focusing only on the control station display

126.

If the Remote PIC cannot determine the location of the sUAS in relation to other aircraft during night operations, when should he or she land the sUAS?

a)

At the end of the planned operation

b)

Within 10 minutes

c)

Immediately

127.

As landing an sUAS at night is particularly challenging, select a landing area:

a)

Over water, sand, or another soft surface

b)

With sufficient lighting to allow a safe landing

c)

That is as far from crewmembers as possible

128.

According to 14 CFR part 107, how may a Remote Pilot in Command (Remote PIC) operate an unmanned aircraft in controlled airspace (Class B, C, D, and E associated with an airport)?

a)

The Remote PIC must contact the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility after launching the unmanned aircraft

b)

The Remote PIC must have prior authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC)

c)

The Remote PIC must monitor the Air Traffic Control (ATC) frequency from launch to recovery

129.

Without prior ATC authorization, you can fly your sUAS below 400 feet above the ground (AGL) and:

a)

In uncontrolled airspace

b)

On private property

c)

With at least one designated visual observer

130.

To conduct Category 1 operations over people, the small unmanned aircraft:

a)

Must be labeled to indicate the eligible category

b)

Must be listed in an FAA-approved Declaration of Compliance (DoC)

c)

Must weigh 0.55 pounds or less, including everything that is on board or attached

131.

For Category 2 operations over people, the small unmanned aircraft:

a)

Must not contain any exposed rotating parts that could lacerate human skin

b)

May only be operated in a closed or restricted-access site

c)

Must be equipped with a siren to alert persons who are not directly involved in the operation

132.

For Category 3 operations over people, the small unmanned aircraft must not cause injury equivalent to or greater than the impact of:

a)

11 foot-pounds of kinetic energy

b)

5 foot-pounds of kinetic energy

c)

25 foot-pounds of kinetic energy

133.

Category 4 operations are limited to unmanned aircraft:

a)

With FAA-issued airworthiness certificates

b)

Registered outside the United States

c)

Operated beyond visual line-of-sight

134.

For Category 1, 2, and 4 operations over people, sustained flight over open air assemblies are restricted to small unmanned aircraft that:

a)

Are operated at FAA-recognized identification areas (FRIAs)

b)

Meet part 89 Remote ID requirements

c)

Weigh more than 55 pounds

135.

Damaged lithium batteries can cause:

a)

A change in aircraft center of gravity

b)

Increased endurance

c)

An inflight fire