wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Introduction Unit 1 & Human Development (Part 1)

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 33hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which phrase best defines the independent variable in an experiment?

a)

Group kept constant for comparison

b)

Outcome measured after the procedure

c)

Factor manipulated by the researcher

d)

Belief-based effect without medicine

2.

What is the dependent variable in a study?

a)

The condition held constant

b)

The belief that causes improvement

c)

The manipulated treatment factor

d)

The result that changes due to manipulation

3.

Which group does not receive the key treatment in an experiment?

a)

Double-blind group

b)

Placebo group

c)

Control group

d)

Experimental group

4.

Why are placebos sometimes effective?

a)

They contain mild active drugs

b)

They reduce random assignment bias

c)

They block the independent variable

d)

They work because people expect improvement

5.

In naturalistic observation, how are subjects expected to act?

a)

Perform assigned tasks in a lab setting

b)

Respond to structured survey questions

c)

Act normally without awareness of observation

d)

Follow researcher instructions carefully

6.

Which statement best defines psychology?

a)

Artistic study of human creativity

b)

Clinical practice focused only on disorders

c)

Scientific study of behavior and mental processes

d)

Philosophical study of consciousness and ethics

7.

What makes a double-blind study distinct?

a)

Participants know the treatment assignment

b)

Researcher knows who receives placebo

c)

Only the participants are kept unaware

d)

Neither participants nor researchers know assignments

8.

What is the primary concern when designing survey questions?

a)

The wording of the questions

b)

The length of the questionnaire

c)

The font size of the text

d)

The color of the paper

9.

Which best describes a field experiment?

a)

Completed without any human participants

b)

Performed only with computer simulations

c)

Conducted away from the laboratory setting

d)

Conducted entirely inside a laboratory

10.

What is a placebo?

a)

Therapy that uses talk and counseling

b)

Dietary supplement with vitamins

c)

Active medication with strong effects

d)

Treatment with no active ingredient

11.

A hypothesis is best described as which of the following?

a)

A summary of previous studies

b)

A list of operational definitions

c)

A statement of expected results

d)

A law proven beyond doubt

12.

In an experiment, which group is exposed to the independent variable?

a)

Randomized group

b)

Placebo group

c)

Experimental group

d)

Control group

13.

Must psychological experiments conform to A.P.A. standards?

a)

No, only medical studies must

b)

Only if humans are not involved

c)

Yes, ethical guidelines are required

d)

Sometimes, for student projects

14.

Which factor most strongly influences separation anxiety in young children?

a)

The brain’s level of development

b)

Parental income level

c)

Number of siblings at home

d)

Amount of media exposure

15.

If an animal misses learning a skill during its critical period, can it ever learn it?

a)

Only with genetic modification

b)

Yes, it can still learn later

c)

Yes, but only with surgery

d)

No, the ability is permanently lost

16.

Why is learning a foreign language harder at older ages?

a)

Grammar rules become more complex

b)

Vocabulary is too large to memorize

c)

Foreign sounds were not reinforced during infancy

d)

Older brains are less creative

17.

Development within a species typically follows what kind of pattern?

a)

Unique path for each individual

b)

Erratic and variable sequence

c)

Orderly and specific pattern

d)

Random and unpredictable progression

18.

What is maturation?

a)

Purely social growth without physical change

b)

Learning caused by external rewards only

c)

Automatic, orderly, sequential physical and mental development

d)

Sudden mental changes without biology

19.

Which method relies on observing behavior in real-world settings without interference?

a)

Interview using self-report scales

b)

Controlled laboratory testing

c)

Naturalistic observation of subjects

d)

Survey with leading questions

20.

During surveys, which practice helps ensure valid results?

a)

Avoid piloting the instrument

b)

Use vague and suggestive wording

c)

Include only yes-or-no items

d)

Keep questions neutral and clear

21.

Which theorist is best known for moral development research?

a)

B. F. Skinner

b)

Ivan Pavlov

c)

Jean Piaget

d)

Lawrence Kohlberg

22.

Which psychologist is associated with cognitive development stages?

a)

Albert Bandura

b)

Ivan Pavlov

c)

Jean Piaget

d)

John Watson

23.

Operant conditioning is primarily learning caused by what?

a)

Pairing neutral and unconditioned stimuli

b)

Actions we perform and their consequences

c)

Unconscious psychodynamic processes

d)

Observing and imitating models

24.

Classical conditioning is best associated with which figure?

a)

Mary Cover Jones

b)

John Watson

c)

Ivan Pavlov

d)

B. F. Skinner

25.

Who is most closely linked to operant conditioning?

a)

John Watson

b)

Jean Piaget

c)

B. F. Skinner

d)

Lawrence Kohlberg

26.

In operant conditioning, what does extinction refer to?

a)

Stopping reinforcement so the behavior declines

b)

Removing the unconditioned stimulus permanently

c)

Erasing a cognitive map from memory

d)

Breaking a behavior chain into parts

27.

Which sequence best outlines operant conditioning mechanics?

a)

US, CS, CR

b)

Stimulus, response, reinforcement

c)

Modeling, imitation, motivation

d)

Attention, retention, reproduction

28.

What is the basic principle of operant conditioning?

a)

Emotion determines reinforcement schedules

b)

Development follows fixed maturation only

c)

Learning occurs through passive pairing

d)

The organism plays an active role

29.

Which concept did Mary Cover Jones use to reduce phobias?

a)

Rapid exposure without reinforcement

b)

Aversion therapy with unpleasant stimuli

c)

Associating something pleasant with the feared object

d)

Systematic punishment for avoidance

30.

Generalization occurs when a conditioned response transfers to what?

a)

Completely unrelated contexts

b)

Similar stimuli beyond the original

c)

Purely internal thoughts

d)

Only the original stimulus

31.

Which idea is illustrated when someone imitates behavior seen on TV?

a)

Skinner’s reinforcement schedules

b)

Kohlberg’s moral stages

c)

Bandura’s social learning theory

d)

Piaget’s conservation task

32.

What did John Watson’s research focus on?

a)

Schedules of reinforcement

b)

Mechanically inducing emotional responses

c)

Mapping children’s cognitive schemas

d)

Moral dilemmas across cultures

33.

In classical conditioning, the Little Albert case demonstrated what?

a)

Extinction through repeated exposure

b)

Reinforcement by positive rewards

c)

Generalization to other furry objects

d)

Stimulus discrimination with unique cues

34.

What do cognitive maps help people do?

a)

Recall moral rules quickly

b)

Find and navigate locations

c)

Predict observational learning

d)

Memorize reinforcement patterns

35.

Once an ability is inherited, can environmental factors still affect it?

a)

No, genes fully determine ability

b)

Only during early childhood

c)

Only with explicit reinforcement

d)

Yes, environment can shape expression

36.

Is it usually possible to speed up a species’ developmental timetable through training?

a)

Yes, greatly with intense practice

b)

No, generally it is not possible

c)

Sometimes, with social modeling

d)

Only if reinforcement is continuous

37.

Monozygotic twins are also called what?

a)

Mirror-image twins

b)

Dizygotic twins

c)

Identical twins

d)

Fraternal twins

38.

Which neural structure carries outgoing messages from the cell body?

a)

Axon

b)

Soma

c)

Synapse

d)

Dendrite

39.

Which neuron part receives incoming signals from other neurons?

a)

Cell body nucleus region

b)

Axon terminal branches

c)

Myelin sheath layers

d)

Dendritic tree structures

40.

What is the small gap across which neurotransmitters are released?

a)

Nodes of Ranvier space

b)

Synaptic cleft gap

c)

Axon hillock junction

d)

Corpus callosum bridge

41.

Which lobe primarily processes visual information?

a)

Frontal lobe functions

b)

Parietal lobe touch

c)

Occipital lobe vision

d)

Temporal lobe hearing

42.

Which lobe responds to sensations of touch and body position?

a)

Occipital lobe visual

b)

Parietal lobe somatosensory

c)

Temporal lobe auditory

d)

Frontal lobe motor

43.

Damage to Phineas Gage’s brain in the accident most affected which lobe?

a)

Parietal lobe spatial

b)

Occipital lobe visual

c)

Temporal lobe memory

d)

Frontal lobe regulation

44.

What connects the two cerebral hemispheres and coordinates activities?

a)

Cerebellar peduncles

b)

Basal ganglia nuclei

c)

Corpus callosum fibers

d)

Thalamic relay center

45.

What is the study of the brain and nervous system called?

a)

Psychometrics area

b)

Endocrinology field

c)

Hemodynamics study

d)

Neuroscience discipline

46.

Which chemicals are released by synaptic vesicles to affect the next neuron?

a)

Hormones in bloodstream

b)

Enzymes in cytoplasm

c)

Electrolytes in axoplasm

d)

Neurotransmitters at synapse

47.

Which neurotransmitter is lacking in Parkinson’s disease?

a)

GABA inhibitory mediator

b)

Acetylcholine muscle activator

c)

Dopamine movement modulator

d)

Serotonin mood regulator

48.

Acetylcholine primarily influences which function?

a)

Sleep cycles regulation

b)

Movement at neuromuscular junctions

c)

Vision in occipital cortex

d)

Endocrine gland secretion

49.

Which gland signals other glands to start working?

a)

Pineal circadian gland

b)

Adrenal stress gland

c)

Thyroid metabolic gland

d)

Pituitary master gland

50.

Which gland controls metabolism?

a)

Thalamus neural relay

b)

Thyroid metabolic rate

c)

Adrenal cortisol release

d)

Pituitary hormonal control

51.

What chemical substance reduces pain perception?

a)

Insulin pancreatic hormone

b)

Endorphins natural analgesics

c)

Acetylcholine synaptic agent

d)

Dopamine reward transmitter

52.

What is the term for the deep depression dividing the two hemispheres?

a)

Ventricle fluid cavity

b)

Fissure dividing cleft

c)

Gyrus cortical ridge

d)

Sulcus shallow groove

53.

Which structure primarily relays incoming and outgoing brain information?

a)

Thalamus relay center

b)

Hippocampus memory hub

c)

Cerebellum balance coordinator

d)

Amygdala fear processor

54.

What does the reticular activating system regulate?

a)

Sleepiness and alertness levels

b)

Fine motor coordination

c)

Language comprehension skills

d)

Vision and color detection

55.

Which hemisphere typically controls speech for most people?

a)

Right hemisphere language

b)

Cerebellar hemisphere movement

c)

Left hemisphere speech

d)

Occipital hemisphere vision

56.

Which lobe is engaged when watching someone write on the board?

a)

Occipital visual processing

b)

Parietal spatial mapping

c)

Temporal auditory decoding

d)

Frontal voluntary planning

57.

Neurons that carry messages from the brain to muscles are called what?

a)

Glial cells support

b)

Motor neurons efferent

c)

Interneurons local circuit

d)

Sensory neurons afferent

58.

Are all nerve cells the same size and shape?

a)

Only in the cortex

b)

No diverse structures

c)

Only in the spinal cord

d)

Yes identical morphology

59.

Which manual organizes psychological conditions into formal categories used by clinicians?

a)

ICD-11 injury catalog

b)

DSM-V classification system

c)

WHO wellness guide

d)

APA therapy handbook

60.

Which set best represents core symptoms of schizophrenia?

a)

Memory loss, identity change, relocation

b)

Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech

c)

Euphoria, rapid ideas, high energy

d)

Persistent worry, muscle tension, restlessness

61.

High dopamine activity is most closely linked to which disorder?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Dysthymic disorder

c)

Psychogenic fugue

d)

Generalized anxiety

62.

A person who feels sad for long periods may be described as having which condition?

a)

OCD

b)

Depression

c)

Mania

d)

Catatonia

63.

Intense excitement with elevated mood and activity is best termed as what?

a)

Catatonia

b)

Mania

c)

Fugue

d)

Dysthymia

64.

Repetitive window washing every day most likely indicates which disorder?

a)

Schizophrenia spectrum

b)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

Borderline personality

d)

Psychogenic amnesia

65.

A person who stays motionless in a fixed posture for hours is showing which state?

a)

Phobic

b)

Manic

c)

Catatonic

d)

Histrionic

66.

Which description best matches dysthymic disorder?

a)

Persistent worry and fear

b)

Extreme euphoria and racing speech

c)

Low energy and reduced appetite

d)

Sudden identity change and travel

67.

Thoughts of suicide or death are most often associated with which diagnosis?

a)

Generalized anxiety

b)

Antisocial personality

c)

Schizoaffective disorder

d)

Major depression

68.

Violent acts without remorse most closely indicate which personality disorder?

a)

Antisocial personality disorder

b)

Borderline personality disorder

c)

Avoidant personality disorder

d)

Obsessive-compulsive personality

69.

Unstable intense relationships, dependence, and self-destructive tendencies suggest which diagnosis?

a)

Narcissistic personality disorder

b)

Paranoid personality disorder

c)

Antisocial personality disorder

d)

Borderline personality disorder

70.

Which term refers to amnesia followed by assuming a new life in a different place?

a)

Dissociative identity

b)

Psychogenic fugue

c)

Post-traumatic stress

d)

Conversion disorder

71.

What might higher serotonin levels contribute to in mood states?

a)

Obsessive rituals

b)

Flat affect

c)

Catatonic features

d)

Manic tendencies

72.

The typical age of onset for schizophrenia suggests which general cause?

a)

Purely learned habits

b)

Biological factors

c)

Financial stress alone

d)

Nutritional deficiency

73.

Which condition involves persistent apprehension over long periods?

a)

Psychogenic fugue

b)

Catatonic state

c)

Manic episode

d)

Anxiety disorder

74.

Would a typical personality disorder diagnosis usually include high levels of depression?

a)

No, not as defining feature

b)

Yes, as central criterion

c)

Always with psychotic signs

d)

Only in childhood cases

75.

Which trio is most characteristic of positive symptoms in schizophrenia?

a)

Excess energy, pressured talk, grandiosity

b)

Low mood, sleep changes, hopeless feelings

c)

Auditory hallucinations, delusional beliefs, disorganized speech

d)

Memory gaps, travel, new identity

76.

Which behavior best demonstrates compulsions rather than simple habits?

a)

Occasional tidying before guests

b)

Weekly chore done for convenience

c)

Spontaneous organizing once

d)

Rigid repetitive cleaning despite distress

77.

Which outcome is more associated with abusive parenting according to risk links?

a)

Autism spectrum disorder

b)

Antisocial traits or DID

c)

Seasonal affective disorder

d)

Panic attacks only

78.

Which pair correctly contrasts mania and depression?

a)

Elevated energy vs. persistent low mood

b)

Identity change vs. lack of appetite

c)

Fixed posture vs. racing thoughts

d)

Compulsions vs. hallucinations

79.

Which part of Freud’s model seeks immediate gratification of basic drives?

a)

Superego

b)

Ego

c)

Id

d)

Persona

80.

Which component mediates between impulses and morals to make realistic decisions?

a)

Id

b)

Ego

c)

Superego

d)

Archetype

81.

Which structure represents internalized ideals and moral standards?

a)

Ego

b)

Shadow

c)

Id

d)

Superego

82.

In Freud’s stages, the Oedipus Complex is associated with which stage?

a)

Oral stage

b)

Anal stage

c)

Phallic stage

d)

Latency stage

83.

What emotional pattern defines the Oedipus Complex?

a)

Attachment only to same‑sex peers

b)

Hostility toward both parents equally

c)

Fear of strangers and crowds

d)

Attraction to opposite‑sex parent and jealousy toward same‑sex parent

84.

A student who chooses not to cheat demonstrates which part of personality at work?

a)

Collective unconscious

b)

Superego

c)

Ego

d)

Id

85.

Skinner proposed that reinforcements tend to strengthen what?

a)

Dreams

b)

Behavior

c)

Beliefs

d)

Emotions

86.

According to behaviorism, personality primarily develops through what?

a)

Innate archetypes

b)

A system of punishments and rewards

c)

Free association with therapists

d)

Unresolved dream symbolism

87.

Humanistic theory says a self‑actualized person has done what?

a)

Brought to life the full potential of their skills

b)

Mastered every psychosexual stage twice

c)

Rejected social rules completely

d)

Eliminated all desires

88.

Erikson’s Generativity versus Stagnation stage emphasizes what adult task?

a)

Develop basic trust in caregivers

b)

Explore identity through peer groups

c)

Resolve autonomy through toilet training

d)

Expand and give something important to the world

89.

Which method did Freud first use to study and treat his patients?

a)

Psychoanalysis

b)

Hypnosis

c)

Behavioral conditioning

d)

Humanistic counseling

90.

Free association in therapy is intended to help patients do what?

a)

Perfect observational skills

b)

Suppress all emotions

c)

Strengthen moral reasoning

d)

Reveal unconscious wishes and desires

91.

What concise definition captures “personality” in psychology?

a)

A single dominant emotional trait

b)

A momentary mood swing

c)

An individual’s characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting

d)

A list of favorite hobbies and skills

92.

What does the persona often express?

a)

A fixed biological temperament

b)

A mask people wear to hide what they really are or feel

c)

A strict moral code learned in childhood

d)

A set of innate instincts shared by all

93.

Freud believed childhood conflicts primarily affect what later outcome?

a)

Dream symbolism

b)

Adult behavior

c)

Academic performance only

d)

Physical health exclusively

94.

Which factors can contribute to developing schizophrenia?

a)

Only traumatic events and social isolation

b)

Age of father, maternal health, dopamine levels, family history

c)

High sugar intake, lack of exercise, poor sleep, loud music

d)

Exclusive exposure to television and social media

95.

Approximately what percentage of the total population becomes schizophrenic?

a)

1%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

5%

96.

About what percentage of U.S. prison inmates suffer from schizophrenia or bipolar disorder?

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

1%

d)

25%

97.

Would someone with a personality disorder usually exhibit high levels of guilt?

a)

Only during therapy sessions

b)

Always fluctuating unpredictably

c)

No, typically not high guilt

d)

Yes, typically high guilt

98.

Would someone with a personality disorder usually exhibit high levels of anxiety?

a)

Only during psychosexual stages

b)

Yes, typically high anxiety

c)

No, typically not high anxiety

d)

Only in late adulthood