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Human Anatomy and Physiology Study Guide – Extracted Questions

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Choose the correct order of the human body’s basic structural organization.

a)

atoms → molecules → organelles → cells → tissues → organs → organ system → organism

b)

atoms → cells → tissues → molecules → organelles → organs → organism → organ system

c)

molecules → atoms → cells → organelles → tissues → organs → organ system → organism

d)

cells → molecules → atoms → organelles → tissues → organs → organism → organ system

2.

Which body plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into a top half and a bottom half?

a)

Transverse plane

b)

Midsagittal plane

c)

Frontal/Coronal plane

d)

Oblique plane

3.

Which body plane divides the body into right and left sides?

a)

Transverse

b)

Midsagittal

c)

Frontal/Coronal

d)

Sagittal-but-not-midline

4.

Which directional term describes body parts away from the midline?

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Proximal

d)

Caudal

5.

When describing extremities relative to the point of reference (main trunk of the body), which term refers to body parts close to the point of reference?

a)

Distal

b)

Proximal

c)

Inferior

d)

Posterior

6.

Which cavity is located in the chest and contains the esophagus, trachea, bronchi, lungs, heart, and large blood vessels?

a)

Dorsal cavity

b)

Thoracic cavity

c)

Abdominal cavity

d)

Pelvic cavity

7.

Which abdominal cavity division contains the stomach, small intestine, most of the large intestine, appendix, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and spleen?

a)

Pelvic cavity

b)

Cranial cavity

c)

Abdominal cavity

d)

Spinal cavity

8.

Which cavity contains the eyes?

a)

Orbital cavity

b)

Buccal cavity

c)

Nasal cavity

d)

Pericardial cavity

9.

Which cavity contains the heart?

a)

Orbital cavity

b)

Nasal cavity

c)

Pericardial cavity

d)

Buccal cavity

10.

Select all valid ways the abdomen is divided according to the worksheet.

a)

4 quadrants

b)

6 quadrants

c)

9 regions

d)

5 regions

11.

According to the labeled skin diagram, which layer is the outermost layer of the skin?

a)

Dermis

b)

Subcutaneous tissue

c)

Epidermis

d)

Muscle

12.

According to the labeled skin diagram, which structure produces sebum?

a)

Sweat gland

b)

Sebaceous gland

c)

Capillary

d)

Sensory nerve ending

13.

In the cardiac cycle list, which chamber first receives deoxygenated blood entering from the superior and inferior vena cava (SVC/IVC)?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right ventricle

14.

Which valve controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle?

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Mitral/Bicuspid valve

d)

Aortic valve

15.

Which vessels carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium?

a)

Pulmonary arteries

b)

Pulmonary veins

c)

Superior vena cava

d)

Aorta

16.

Which valve prevents backflow from the pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Mitral/Bicuspid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

17.

In the pathway of respiration list, where is O2O_2 and CO2CO_2 exchanged?

a)

Bronchi

b)

Pharynx

c)

Alveoli

d)

Larynx

18.

According to the pathway of respiration list, which structure comes immediately after the larynx?

a)

Pharynx

b)

Trachea

c)

Bronchi

d)

Bronchioles

19.

Which endocrine gland produces melatonin according to the labeled diagram?

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Pineal gland

c)

Thyroid gland

d)

Adrenal gland

20.

Which organ produces erythropoietin (EPO) according to the labeled diagram?

a)

Heart

b)

Kidney

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreatic islets

21.

Which hormones are produced by the pancreatic islets according to the labeled diagram?

a)

Insulin and glucagon

b)

Thyroxine and calcitonin

c)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

Estrogens and progesterone

22.

Which digestive process refers to swallowing?

a)

Ingestion

b)

Deglutition

c)

Absorption

d)

Egestion

23.

Which digestive process describes the elimination of non-digested substances out of the body?

a)

Absorption

b)

Chemical digestion

c)

Egestion (defecation)

d)

Mechanical breaking down

24.

Which digestive process involves chemical breaking down using enzymes released by accessory glands?

a)

Mechanical breaking down

b)

Deglutition

c)

Chemical digestion

d)

Absorption

25.

Diseases and Disorders: TB – Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection of the lungs transmitted by being airborne. What precautions are required when caring for a patient with TB?

a)

Droplet and airborne precautions

b)

Contact precautions only

c)

Protective (reverse) isolation

d)

No special precautions beyond standard

26.

Diseases and Disorders: Symptoms of Diabetes listed include polydipsia, polyuria, and hypoglycemia. Which set below correctly lists symptoms of diabetes from the worksheet?

a)

Polydipsia

b)

Polyuria

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hemoptysis

e)

Bradycardia

27.

Diseases and Disorders: CVA refers to cerebrovascular accident; stroke. What does CVA stand for?

a)

Cardiovascular arrhythmia

b)

Cerebrovascular accident

c)

Chronic venous aneurysm

d)

Cranial vascular abrasion

28.

Diseases and Disorders: Preventative behaviors for heart disease include exercise, low fat and salt intake, reduction of stress, healthy diet, and controlling blood pressure. Which behaviors from the options are preventative for heart disease? Select all that apply.

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Low fat and salt intake

c)

Reducing stress

d)

Smoking to reduce appetite

e)

Controlling blood pressure

29.

Calculate intake for baby using oz -> mL (example: drank 16 oz – how many mL?). How many milliliters are in 16 ounces? No calculator available. (hint: 1oz = 29.57 mL)

a)

240 mL

b)

355 mL

c)

473 mL

d)

500 mL

30.

A doctor prescribes 90 mg of medication. The available concentration is 30 mg/mL. How many mL should you administer? No calculator available.

a)

2.0 mL

b)

2.5 mL

c)

3.0 mL

d)

3.5 mL

31.

24‑Hour Clock (Military Time) Conversion Chart: Convert each standard time to its 24‑hour (military) time equivalent.

a)

9:30 am

1.

09:30

b)

11:00 pm

2.

23:00

c)

1:00 pm

3.

13:00

d)

2:00 pm

4.

14:00

e)

4:00 am

5.

04:00

32.

Concepts of Effective Communication: Methods of effective communication include that the message must be clear, the sender must deliver in a clear, concise manner, the receiver must be able to hear and understand, and interruptions and distractions must be avoided. Which statement best reflects these methods?

a)

Ensure the message is clear and delivered concisely, the receiver can hear and understand, and avoid interruptions

b)

Speak as quickly as possible to save time

c)

Let the receiver decide how to interpret the message

d)

Encourage side conversations to verify attention

33.

Listening is an essential part of effective communication. Good listening skills include showing interest, being alert and maintaining eye contact, avoiding interrupting, paying attention, eliminating prejudices, removing distractions, and asking for clarification. Which actions are examples of good listening? Select all that apply.

a)

Maintain eye contact with the speaker

b)

Avoid interrupting the speaker

c)

Move to a quiet area to reduce distractions

d)

Think about how you will respond instead of listening

e)

Ask for clarification if you do not understand

34.

Subjective Observations are symptoms reported by the patient in the patient’s own words. Objective Observations are signs that can be observed or measured. Which example is subjective?

a)

Patient states they feel dizzy

b)

Blood pressure measured at 120/80120/80

c)

Visible bruise on the forearm

d)

Temperature of 38C38\,^\circ\mathrm{C}

35.

Vital signs are important because they are measurable, objective data. Which best explains why vital signs are recorded?

a)

They provide measurable, objective data about the patient’s condition

b)

They are based solely on patient feelings

c)

They are optional unless the patient requests them

d)

They are only for documentation and have no clinical use

36.

If a patient calls and is complaining about scheduling, what should the receptionist do according to the worksheet?

a)

Listen to patient concerns

b)

Refer the patient to social media

c)

Tell the patient to call back later without explanation

d)

Ignore the complaint

37.

Medical Terminology and abbreviations: Oophorectomy – surgical removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries; Algia – pain; PRN – as needed or desired. Match the term to its definition.

a)

Oophorectomy

1.

Surgical removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries

b)

Algia

2.

Pain

c)

PRN

3.

As needed or desired

38.

Health Care Delivery Systems: Deductibles are amounts paid by the patient before the policy begins to pay; Co‑Insurance shares percentages between patient and company; Co‑Payment is a specific amount paid for a particular service; PPO is a preferred provider organization; Medicare provides insurance for the elderly and disabled; Medicaid provides insurance to aid the less fortunate and needy. Which pairing is correct?

a)

Co‑Insurance: a fixed dollar amount per service

b)

Medicaid: insurance for the elderly and disabled

c)

Deductible: amount paid by patient before policy pays

d)

PPO: patients receive care at increased rate when using preferred providers

39.

Additional Health Care Delivery Systems: TRICARE provides insurance to US military personnel and families; Worker’s Compensation covers injuries at work; AHA/Affordable Care Act provides insurance despite preexisting conditions. Which statement is accurate?

a)

TRICARE serves US military members and families

b)

Worker’s Compensation only pays for time off, not medical bills

c)

Affordable Care Act denies coverage for preexisting conditions

d)

TRICARE is for senior citizens only

40.

Personal Traits of the Healthcare Professional: Health involves promoting health and preventing disease. A healthy appearance includes diet, rest, exercise, good posture, and avoidance of tobacco, alcohol, and drugs. Which combination below reflects these factors?

a)

Balanced diet

b)

Adequate rest

c)

Regular exercise

d)

Poor posture

e)

Avoidance of tobacco, alcohol, and drugs

41.

Desirable Personal Traits and Attitudes include empathy, honesty, dependability, flexibility, patience, acceptance of criticism, initiative, tact, competence, responsibility, discretion, and being a team player. Which is the best example of dependability?

a)

Shows up to work on time

b)

Keeps private information private

c)

Relates to others’ feelings

d)

Takes classes to earn CEUs

42.

Career Decision Making: Which credential requires completion of two or more years beyond a bachelor’s or master’s degree, totaling 8 years?

a)

Associate’s Degree

b)

Bachelor’s Degree

c)

Master’s Degree

d)

Doctorate/Doctoral/Doctor’s degree

43.

Licensure is a process whereby a government agency authorizes individuals to work in a given occupation. Which statement best describes licensure?

a)

Recognition by a professional society

b)

Government authorization to practice in a specific occupation

c)

Completion of a short training course

d)

Volunteer certification

44.

A biomedical science major would have what type of job according to the worksheet?

a)

Lab technician

b)

Paramedic

c)

Hospital administrator

d)

Billing clerk

45.

Western Medicine is the traditional medical model using doctors/PAs/NPs for treatment and diagnoses. Eastern Medicine uses nontraditional therapies such as acupuncture, massage therapy, and chiropractic. Which statement is correct?

a)

Eastern Medicine relies on nontraditional therapies such as acupuncture and massage

b)

Western Medicine avoids diagnosing conditions

c)

Eastern Medicine prohibits manual therapies

d)

Western Medicine primarily uses herbal remedies

46.

Chiropractor believes misalignment of the spine causes physical problems; Homeopathy treats disease with minute doses of natural substances that would produce similar symptoms in a healthy person. Which description matches homeopathy?

a)

Manual realignment of the spine

b)

Treatment using minute doses of natural substances that mimic disease symptoms

c)

Electrical stimulation of muscles

d)

High‑dose vitamin therapy

47.

A portfolio highlights knowledge, ability, and skills. Which items are components of a personal portfolio according to the worksheet? Select all that apply.

a)

Introductory Letter

b)

Resume

c)

Skill List and Competency Level

d)

Letters of Recommendation

e)

Copies of Work Evaluation

48.

Legal Implications: Malpractice is being trained and educated on providing care and making careless mistakes; Negligence is failing to care for a patient. Which situation is negligence?

a)

Leaving a sponge inside a patient during surgery

b)

Failing to assist a patient who needs help to the restroom and going home anyway

c)

Performing a procedure outside your scope of practice

d)

Providing incorrect medication due to misreading a label

49.

Before performing procedures, obtain patient permission; Assault is threatening to harm; Battery is touching without permission. Which action is battery?

a)

Telling a patient you will harm them

b)

Moving a patient in a wheelchair without consent

c)

Explaining a procedure and obtaining signed consent

d)

Refusing to perform a task outside your scope

50.

Informed consent: the doctor provides information to the patient about a procedure and obtains a signed consent. Which statement best describes informed consent?

a)

Consent is implied when the patient is competent

b)

Doctor explains the procedure and the patient signs consent

c)

Consent is unnecessary for minors

d)

Consent is verbal only and does not require documentation

51.

Libel is written false information; Slander is spoken false information. Which is an example of slander?

a)

Posting false statements about a patient in a chart

b)

Telling coworkers false information about a patient verbally

c)

Misfiling a patient record

d)

Failing to sign an incident report

52.

HIPAA: A friend wants you to take a picture of her in the ED and post it on social media. What should you do?

a)

Do not do it

b)

Post it with the patient’s approval only

c)

Post it if no identifiers are visible

d)

Share only with friends and relatives

53.

Ethical Boundaries: Ethics provide a standard of conduct or code of behavior to analyze information and make decisions about what people believe is right or good conduct. Which principle is part of the ethical code listed in the worksheet?

a)

Promote comfort and preserve life whenever possible

b)

Favor certain patients based on social status

c)

Share patient information with family without permission

d)

Decide based on personal profit

54.

Cultural, Social, and Ethnic Diversity: To show respect for an individual’s beliefs and practices, the health care worker should be a willing listener, provide support for spiritual and religious practices, respect religious symbols and books, allow privacy during religious customs, and refrain from imposing personal beliefs. Which actions demonstrate respect? Select all that apply.

a)

Allow privacy during prayer or meditation

b)

Respect religious symbols and books

c)

Impose personal beliefs to guide the patient

d)

Be a willing listener

e)

Provide support for spiritual practices

55.

Health care workers must learn to appreciate and respect personal characteristics of others. Which practice helps achieve this goal?

a)

Recognize and avoid bias, prejudice, and stereotyping

b)

Assume all patients share the same beliefs

c)

Ignore cultural differences to save time

d)

Decide on care based solely on provider preferences

56.

Cultural Diversity definitions: Culture is the values, beliefs, attitudes, languages, symbols, rituals, behaviors, and customs unique to a particular group; Ethnicity is classification of people based on national origin. Which pairing is correct?

a)

Culture: national origin classification; Ethnicity: shared rituals and behaviors

b)

Culture: shared values and customs; Ethnicity: national origin classification

c)

Culture: genetic traits; Ethnicity: dietary needs

d)

Culture: language only; Ethnicity: religion only

57.

Some people do not allow certain medications, procedures, blood transfusions due to cultural and religious beliefs. Bias is defined as preference. Which statement aligns with this note?

a)

Bias refers to a preference that can affect care decisions

b)

Bias means equal treatment for all patients

c)

Cultural beliefs never affect medical decisions

d)

Providers should ignore all patient preferences

58.
Question Image

Chain of Infection diagram shows six linked stages with brief descriptions in circles. Match each stage to its correct description.

a)

Infectious Microbe

1.

Bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa

b)

Reservoir

2.

Place where the microbe lives and multiplies (such as people, food, animals)

c)

Portal of Exit

3.

Place where the microbe leaves the host (such as coughing, sneezing, feces)

d)

Modes of Transmission

4.

Contact, droplet, airborne, vehicle, vector

e)

Portal of Entry

5.

Entry point such as mouth, nose, eyes, a break in the skin, or mucous membranes

59.

If a bottle of cleaner is dropped and splashes into eyes, what should you do?

a)

Flush eyes with water, read the Safety Data Sheet (SDS), contact poison control, notify supervisor

b)

Wipe eyes with a dry cloth and return to work

c)

Wait for redness to subside, then report at end of shift

d)

Call 911 immediately and avoid rinsing until told otherwise

60.

What is this type of procedure? (Image shows a grayscale abdominal study with a probe using sound waves.)

a)

Ultrasound

b)

X-ray

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI