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Foundations of Life and Cell Biology

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which prefix means same, like in homogeneous?

a)

Hetero

b)

Homo

c)

Hypo

d)

Hyper

2.

What do all living things do to make more of themselves?

a)

Evaporate

b)

Hibernate

c)

Dissolve

d)

Reproduce

3.

Which group is single-celled and has no nucleus?

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

Plants

d)

Fungi

4.

Which group can be single-celled or multi-celled and has a nucleus?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Prokaryotes

d)

Eukaryotes

5.

What does the cell membrane do?

a)

Digests waste

b)

Controls entry

c)

Makes sugar

d)

Stores water

6.

Which organelle holds DNA?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Vacuole

c)

Golgi body

d)

Ribosome

7.

Which organelle makes proteins?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Mitochondria

8.

What process do plants use chloroplasts for?

a)

Digestion

b)

Fermentation

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Respiration

9.

Which feature gives cells structure, support, and protection?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Golgi

10.

Which two organelles move and package proteins?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Rough ER

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuole

11.

Which group of molecules gives quick energy for the body?

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

12.

What are the building blocks of proteins?

a)

Nucleotide parts

b)

Monosaccharide sugars

c)

Fatty acids chains

d)

Amino acids pieces

13.

Which pair shows a macromolecule and an example of it?

a)

Nucleic acids and olive oil

b)

Proteins and glucose

c)

Carbohydrates and collagen

d)

Lipids and butter

14.

What is the main job of DNA?

a)

Store genetic information

b)

Make cell insulation

c)

Provide short-term energy

d)

Build transport proteins

15.

Select all functions of lipids in living things.

a)

Membrane structure

b)

Chemical reactions as enzymes

c)

Insulation for organisms

d)

Long-term energy storage

16.

Enzymes help reactions by lowering what?

a)

Body temperature

b)

Cell pH

c)

Substrate amount

d)

Activation energy

17.

Which statement best describes how an enzyme fits with its substrate?

a)

They fit like a lock and key

b)

They change DNA information

c)

They connect by random chance

d)

They only work at high heat

18.

Which factors affect enzyme activity? Choose all that apply.

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Type of nucleotide

d)

Concentration

19.

In the Lipid—Triglyceride diagram, what are the long tails?

a)

Fatty acids chains

b)

Amino acids groups

c)

Sugar ring pieces

d)

Nitrogenous bases

20.

Which three parts are found together in a nucleotide?

a)

Glucose, starch links

b)

Glycerol, fatty acids

c)

Phosphate, sugar, base

d)

Collagen, transport protein

21.

Where does photosynthesis occur in a cell?

a)

In mitochondria

b)

In nucleus

c)

In ribosomes

d)

In chloroplasts

22.

Where does cellular respiration mostly happen?

a)

In chloroplasts

b)

In cell wall

c)

In mitochondria

d)

In vacuoles

23.

What do plants use to make sugar during photosynthesis?

a)

Water

b)

Oxygen gas

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Light energy

24.

Which products are made during cellular respiration?

a)

Energy as ATP

b)

Glucose sugar

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Light energy

25.

What does ATP do for cells?

a)

Letting water in only

b)

Carrying genetic code

c)

Storing and giving energy

d)

Building cell walls

26.

What does selectively permeable mean for the plasma membrane?

a)

Lets all substances through

b)

Blocks everything

c)

Allows some substances, blocks others

d)

Moves food

27.

Which phrase best describes the phospholipid bilayer?

a)

No layers

b)

Three layers of proteins

c)

Two layers of phospholipids

d)

One layer of fats

28.

What does the fluid mosaic model say about the membrane?

a)

All parts are fixed

b)

Many parts can move

c)

Only sugars are present

d)

Membranes are made of rocks

29.

Which transport moves things without using energy?

a)

Active transport uses energy

b)

Passive transport uses no energy

c)

Endocytosis uses energy

d)

Exocytosis uses energy

30.

What is diffusion?

a)

Particles move from high to low

b)

Water moves across membranes

c)

Large proteins cross by pumps

d)

Cell parts move into vesicles

31.

What is osmosis mainly about?

a)

Moving oxygen into vesicles

b)

Moving sugars through pumps

c)

Moving waste out by exocytosis

d)

Moving water across membranes

32.

Facilitated diffusion uses what helper to move big molecules like glucose?

a)

Cholesterol makes pores

b)

Vesicles grab molecules

c)

Phospholipids make energy

d)

Transport proteins help carry

33.

What does active transport do that passive transport does not?

a)

Works only for small particles

b)

Moves with concentration gradient

c)

Happens only in water movement

d)

Uses energy to push against gradient

34.

Which is an example of a pump used in active transport?

a)

Simple diffusion pore

b)

Exocytosis vesicle

c)

Osmosis water channel

d)

Sodium–potassium pump

35.

What happens during endocytosis?

a)

Cell moves materials out

b)

Cell moves materials in

c)

Water slips through membrane

d)

Sugars slide down gradient

36.

What happens during exocytosis?

a)

Glucose uses a protein

b)

Cell takes in a vesicle

c)

Cell releases a vesicle

d)

Water moves by osmosis

37.

Homeostasis helps the body do what?

a)

Grow only in warm weather

b)

Stop all changes forever

c)

Make energy from sunlight

d)

Keep inside conditions stable

38.

Which pair shows positive feedback?

a)

Kidneys removing extra water

b)

Sweating to cool the body

c)

Platelets forming bigger clots

d)

Insulin lowering blood sugar

39.

Which pair best shows negative feedback?

a)

Insulin reduces blood sugar

b)

High blood sugar lowers insulin

c)

More platelets make more clots

d)

Cold air increases body heat

40.

Passive transport follows concentration gradients. What does that mean?

a)

Moves from low to high areas

b)

Moves from high to low areas

c)

Moves only through vesicles

d)

Moves only with added energy

41.

Which stage of mitosis shows chromosomes condensing into visible shapes?

a)

Anaphase pulling apart

b)

Telophase membranes reform

c)

Metaphase in the middle

d)

Prophase condensing shapes

42.

In mitosis, during metaphase, what do the chromosomes do?

a)

Turn into organelles

b)

Line up in the middle

c)

Disappear completely

d)

Stick to cell wall

43.

Which stage of mitosis pulls chromosomes to opposite sides?

a)

Metaphase line up middle

b)

Telophase new membranes

c)

Prophase start condense

d)

Anaphase pulled apart

44.

What happens during telophase in mitosis?

a)

Chromosomes condense again

b)

Nuclear membranes reform

c)

Chromosomes line up

d)

Cytoplasm disappears

45.

After mitosis and cytokinesis, how many and what type of cells are produced?

a)

Two identical diploid cells

b)

Two different haploid cells

c)

Four identical haploid cells

d)

Four different diploid cells

46.

Which list shows the correct order of mitosis stages?

a)

AMPT: Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase

b)

MAPT: Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase

c)

PTAM: Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase

d)

PMAT: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

47.

What special event happens during prophase I of meiosis?

a)

Crossing over occurs

b)

Nuclei disappear

c)

Cytokinesis begins

d)

Chromosomes line up

48.

Meiosis is used to make which cells?

a)

Gametes like sperm and eggs

b)

Blood platelets

c)

Bacteria cells

d)

Skin and bone cells

49.

At the end of telophase I, how many and what type of cells are formed?

a)

Four haploid cells

b)

Four diploid cells

c)

Two haploid cells

d)

Two diploid cells

50.

What do chromosomes do during metaphase I of meiosis?

a)

Move out of the cell

b)

Pair with ribosomes

c)

Line up in the middle

d)

Turn into proteins

51.

Which statement about haploid cells is correct for humans?

a)

Haploid cells have no chromosomes

b)

Haploid cells have 46 chromosomes

c)

Haploid cells have 23 chromosomes

d)

Haploid cells have double DNA

52.

What happens during anaphase II of meiosis?

a)

Cells fuse together

b)

Chromosomes condense again

c)

Chromosomes are pulled apart

d)

Crossing over starts

53.

What is the result after cytokinesis in meiosis II?

a)

Two diploid cells

b)

Four haploid cells

c)

Three mixed cells

d)

One big diploid cell

54.

In which stage of meiosis II do chromosomes line up in the middle?

a)

Telophase II

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Prophase II

55.

Which process makes identical cells for growth and repair?

a)

Cytokinesis makes identical

b)

Mitosis makes identical cells

c)

Meiosis makes identical cells

d)

Crossing over makes identical

56.

Which letters pair together in DNA?

a)

G pairs with T

b)

A pairs with C

c)

C pairs with T

d)

A pairs with T

57.

What is the shape of DNA?

a)

A double helix

b)

A single circle

c)

A straight ladder

d)

A triangle rope

58.

What is the first step in DNA replication?

a)

Sugar groups fall off

b)

Bases change their letters

c)

Strands unwind and separate

d)

Chromosomes break apart

59.

DNA replication makes two copies that are:

a)

Completely new letters

b)

Mixed with RNA

c)

Half-size molecules

d)

Identical molecules

60.

Semi-conservative replication means each new DNA has:

a)

Three strands total

b)

Two old strands only

c)

One old strand and one new strand

d)

Two brand-new strands

61.

What do genes do?

a)

Make bones

b)

Stop cells moving

c)

Create food

d)

Control traits

62.

If an individual is homozygous, it has:

a)

Three mixed alleles

b)

Two identical alleles

c)

Two different alleles

d)

No alleles at all

63.

Genotype means:

a)

The alleles someone has

b)

How tall someone is

c)

The color you see

d)

How cells divide

64.

Phenotype is:

a)

The trait you can observe

b)

The letters in genes

c)

The food you eat

d)

The number of cells

65.

Dominant vs. recessive means:

a)

Alleles never change

b)

Both alleles disappear

c)

One allele can hide another

d)

Traits always mix evenly

66.

In co-dominance, both alleles are:

a)

Fully expressed together

b)

Hidden and silent

c)

Broken into pieces

d)

Turned into recessive

67.

Incomplete dominance produces which type of phenotype?

a)

Unchanged by parents

b)

Always recessive

c)

Always dominant

d)

A blend or mix

68.

Sex-linked traits are found on:

a)

Mitochondria only

b)

All chromosomes

c)

Autosomes only

d)

The X chromosome

69.

Polygenic traits are controlled by:

a)

One gene

b)

Y chromosome only

c)

Many genes

d)

No genes

70.

Multiple alleles means a gene has:

a)

One form

b)

No forms

c)

Two forms

d)

More than two forms

71.

Meiosis increases genetic diversity by:

a)

Making identical somatic cells

b)

Crossing over

c)

Random allele assortment

d)

Using only one parent

72.

Mitosis mainly helps the body with:

a)

Growth and repair

b)

Changing blood types

c)

Adding alleles

d)

Making gametes

73.

How many cells are made from one cell during meiosis?

a)

One giant cell

b)

Four haploid cells

c)

Three mixed cells

d)

Two diploid cells

74.

What does DNA do in a cell?

a)

Stores genetic instructions for traits

b)

Makes food for the cell

c)

Cleans waste from the cell

d)

Controls cell movement

75.

Which pair shows the steps of the central dogma in order?

a)

Mutation then transcription

b)

Translation then transcription

c)

Transcription then translation

d)

Replication then translation

76.

Where does transcription occur in the cell?

a)

Golgi

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleus

77.

What is made during transcription?

a)

Chromosomes from ribosomes

b)

mRNA from DNA

c)

Protein from amino acids

d)

Sugar from sunlight

78.

Which base is found in RNA but not in DNA?

a)

Uracil

b)

Guanine

c)

Thymine

d)

Adenine

79.

Where does translation happen?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

At ribosomes in cytoplasm

c)

In lysosomes

d)

In the cell wall

80.

What does a codon code for?

a)

One sugar molecule

b)

One protein

c)

One chromosome

d)

One amino acid

81.

Which codon starts translation?

a)

TTT

b)

CGA

c)

AUG

d)

UAA

82.

Which molecules join during translation to build protein?

a)

DNA joins mRNA and rRNA

b)

mRNA joins tRNA and rRNA

c)

tRNA joins DNA and ribose

d)

Golgi joins mRNA and tRNA

83.

What does an anticodon belong to?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

DNA

d)

Ribosome

84.

What tells translation to stop?

a)

Start codon AUG

b)

Thymine base

c)

Ribose sugar

d)

Stop codon UAA

85.

Which is a point mutation?

a)

Insertion adds a nucleotide

b)

Deletion removes a nucleotide

c)

Substitution swaps one nucleotide

d)

Crossing-over is a point change

86.

What does a frameshift mutation do to a gene?

a)

Shift codon reading frame

b)

Make extra ribosomes grow

c)

Turn DNA into sugar

d)

Stop meiosis completely

87.

Which idea explains how living things change over generations?

a)

Evolution happens over time

b)

Recycling happens every week

c)

Weather changes every season

d)

Planets move in space

88.

Natural selection means individuals with helpful traits are more likely to do what?

a)

Share food with neighbors

b)

Hide and never eat

c)

Sleep and hibernate

d)

Survive and have babies

89.

Genetic drift is best described as changes in a small group caused by what?

a)

Strong muscles

b)

Weather patterns

c)

Planning by adults

d)

Random chance

90.

Gene flow happens when individuals move to a new group and bring what?

a)

New leaders

b)

Extra food

c)

More water

d)

New genes

91.

What can a helpful mutation do?

a)

Make seasons switch faster

b)

Stop animals from eating

c)

Give an advantage to survive

d)

Change rocks into fossils

92.

Homologous structures are similar because of what?

a)

A common ancestor shared

b)

The same daily exercise

c)

Living in identical habitats

d)

Eating the same favorite food

93.

Analogous structures do the same job but are NOT what?

a)

Inherited from a common ancestor

b)

Found on any living thing

c)

Helpful in cold weather

d)

Made of bones and muscles

94.

Vestigial structures are what?

a)

Reduced and no longer useful

b)

Always growing much bigger

c)

Brand new and very helpful

d)

Only found in plants

95.

Which evidence shows that vertebrate embryos look similar early in growth?

a)

Embryological evidence

b)

Weather station records

c)

Map and globe pictures

d)

Sports team charts

96.

When DNA codes are more similar, species are usually what?

a)

Never change at all

b)

More closely related

c)

More far apart

d)

Always exactly the same

97.

Allopatric speciation happens when two groups are separated by what?

a)

A louder animal call

b)

A tasty new food

c)

A physical barrier

d)

A longer summertime

98.

Sympatric speciation means a new species forms without what?

a)

A physical barrier

b)

Any genes in the group

c)

Any parents or babies

d)

Any changes in traits

99.

Which term describes non-living parts of an environment like sand and saltwater?

a)

Trophic factors

b)

Symbiotic factors

c)

Abiotic factors

d)

Biotic factors

100.

Which group makes its own food and is called producers?

a)

Heterotrophs

b)

Autotrophs

c)

Carnivores

d)

Detritivores

101.

A deer eats only plants. What type of consumer is it?

a)

Omnivore

b)

Carnivore

c)

Detritivore

d)

Herbivore

102.

Which statement about energy pyramids is true?

a)

Energy increases at higher trophic levels

b)

Most energy is lost between each level

c)

Consumers gain energy from sunlight

d)

Only producers lose energy in pyramids

103.

Choose all types of symbiosis that benefit both organisms.

a)

Predation

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

104.

Which pair shows commensalism, where one benefits and the other is not harmed?

a)

Cleaner shrimp and fish

b)

Tick and human

c)

Remora fish and shark

d)

Owl and mouse

105.

Which statement best describes a food web?

a)

A single path of energy flow

b)

A chart of abiotic factors

c)

Many connected food chains

d)

A diagram of only producers

106.

Which step shows water falling from clouds to the ground?

a)

Transpiration from green plants

b)

Precipitation as rain drops

c)

Condensation forming clouds

d)

Evaporation from warm lakes

107.

In the water cycle, which arrow shows water vapor turning into clouds?

a)

Transpiration by trees

b)

Runoff to rivers

c)

Condensation in the sky

d)

Precipitation to ground

108.

Which two steps add water vapor to the air in the water cycle? Select both.

a)

Condensation in clouds

b)

Evaporation from surfaces

c)

Transpiration from plants

d)

Precipitation as rain

109.

Which source adds carbon dioxide to the air in the carbon cycle?

a)

Decaying plants only

b)

Photosynthesis in plants

c)

Eating by animals

d)

Burning fossil fuels

110.

Which processes release carbon dioxide to the atmosphere? Select two.

a)

Photosynthesis in leaves

b)

Respiration by living things

c)

Cloud formation

d)

Burning fossil fuels

111.

Who breathes in oxygen?

a)

Only plants at night

b)

Clouds and sunshine

c)

Animals and plants

d)

Only animals in forests

112.

What do plants make using photosynthesis?

a)

Rain for the clouds

b)

Oxygen for the air

c)

Nitrogen for soil

d)

Fossil fuels underground

113.

Which living things change atmospheric nitrogen into forms plants can use?

a)

Denitrifying bacteria

b)

Decomposers only

c)

Animals eating plants

d)

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria

114.

Which two steps in the nitrogen cycle return nitrogen to the air? Select both.

a)

Nitrification by bacteria

b)

Ammonification by decomposers

c)

Assimilation by plants

d)

Denitrifying bacteria action

115.

Which environmental disturbance breaks habitats into smaller pieces?

a)

Overexploitation of species

b)

Fragmentation of habitat

c)

Bio-magnification of toxins

d)

Nonnative species arrival

116.

When too many nutrients enter lakes, what happens first in eutrophication?

a)

Forests spread quickly

b)

Carbon dioxide disappears

c)

Algal blooms grow fast

d)

Oxygen increases greatly

117.

Climate change is long-term changes that affect the biosphere. What do these changes do?

a)

Increase average temperature

b)

Create more fossils fast

c)

Stop the water cycle

d)

Remove all nitrogen

118.

Which sentence best describes a hypothesis?

a)

A guess you cannot test

b)

A testable idea explaining something

c)

A rule that never changes

d)

Steps for an experiment

119.

Which variable does the scientist change in an experiment?

a)

Control group

b)

Independent variable

c)

Dependent variable

d)

Measured result

120.

Which variable changes because of the independent variable?

a)

Unrelated constant

b)

Background factor

c)

Dependent variable

d)

Control condition

121.

Which set lists steps of the scientific method in order?

a)

Test first, conclude, form hypothesis, collect, interpret

b)

Form hypothesis, test, collect data, interpret, conclude

c)

Collect data, test, conclude, form hypothesis, interpret

d)

Interpret data, form hypothesis, conclude, test, collect

122.

Which are smart test-taking tips? Select all that apply.

a)

Leave blanks instead of guessing

b)

Go back to hard questions later

c)

Read carefully for needed info

d)

Eliminate clear wrong answers