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final fms I (manifesting an A++++)

Total questions: 127

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Gout is a disorder associated with abnormal amounts of urates in the body. A drug used primarily to treat this hyperuricemia and its complications prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthin oxidase. The name of this drug is _______

a)

Voltaren

b)

Colchicine

c)

Probenecid

d)

Aspirin

e)

Allopurinol

2.

Endocytosis is a cellular process in which substances are brought into the cell. Which of the following substances is most likely to be brought into a cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis?

a)

A sodium ion

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

LDL particle

e)

An amino acid

3.

The spontaneous loss of amino groups from cytosine (C) results in uracil (U), an uncommon base, opposite guanine in DNA. What combination of enzymes could repair such damage?

a)

Nuclease, telomerase, primase

b)

DNA ligase, helicase, RNAse H

c)

Topoisomerase, helicase, RNA polymerase

d)

Nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase

e)

Topoisomerase, primase, DNA polymerase

4.

Below are two ways to demonstrate pluripotency:

a)

In vitro producing teratoma and in vivo producing allergy

b)

In vitro producing embryoid bodies and in vivo producing teratoma

c)

In vitro producing embryoid bodies and in vivo producing immune rejection

d)

In vitro producing teratoma and in vivo producing embryoid bodies

e)

In vitro producing blastocyst and in vivo producing tetraploid cells

5.

Cancer is often the result of activation of ____ to ____ and the inactivation of ____ genes.

a)

Oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, proto-oncogenes

b)

Oncogenes, proto-suppressor genes, proto-genes

c)

Oncogenes, proto-oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes

d)

Proto-suppressor genes, suppressors, oncogenes

e)

Proto-oncogenes, oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes

6.

Vitamins often function as co-enzyme in a reaction. Which vitamin is essential for the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase to properly function and its deficiency causes disease called beri-beri?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

e)

Vitamin B12 (cobalamine)

7.

Which of the following definitions is NOT properly matched with the respective proteins?

a)

Insulin: Controls glucose metabolism

b)

Antibody: Immune system molecule

c)

Collagen: Structural protein

d)

Actin: Required for muscle contraction

e)

Amylase: Transport/storage protei

8.

In 2012, Prof. Yamanaka from Kyoto University was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology and Medicine for the development of induced pluripotent stem cells or iPS cells. This discovery has been a promise for an unlimited source of pluripotent cells, although there are pros and cons. What is the disadvantage of iPS cells?

a)

iPS cells can provide unlimited reservoir of stem cells minus the ethical controversy of embryonic materials

b)

iPS cells are universally accessible

c)

iPS cells can produce patient-specific or disease-specific cells of any lineage for therapeutic use

d)

Viruses that integrate into the host cell genome have intrinsic risks ?

e)

Autologous iPS cells have reduced chances of immune rejection

9.

Two broad classes of genes - proto-oncogenes and tumor-suppressor genes - play a key role in cancer induction. Of the many known oncogenes, all but a few are derived from normal cellular genes (i.e., proto-oncogenes) whose products participate in cellular growth-controlling pathways. Proto-oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes by all of the following mechanisms except:

a)

During a viral infection cycle

b)

Radiation induced mutation

c)

Elimination of their start signals for translation

d)

Chemically induced mutagenesis

e)

Chromosomal rearrangements

10.

Which of the following statements about the synthesis of fatty acids is correct?

a)

NADH is used for fatty acid synthesis

b)

NADH is formed from fatty acid synthesis

c)

NADPH is used for fatty acid synthesis

d)

NADPH is formed from fatty acid synthesis

e)

None of these

11.

Each of us has enough DNA to reach from here to the sun and back, more than 300 times. Certain proteins compact chromosomal DNA into the microscopic space of the eukaryotic nucleus. What proteins are integral part of human chromosome?

a)

Heterochromatin

b)

Euchromatin

c)

Histones

d)

Solenoid

e)

Nucleosome

12.

Ni Luh Andini (PBL Week 7) was just diagnosed with an aggressive form of breast cancer. The histopathology is interpreted as showing a poorly differentiated carcinoma with negative estrogen-receptor status and HER2-positive. The cancer started because

a)

She has a rare deletion in the BRCA1 gene

b)

Her affected cells have extra genes for epidermal growth factor

c)

Estrogen affects DNA repair

d)

Estrogen receptor is tumor suppresor

e)

Her affected cells have many extra receptors for epidermal growth factor

13.

The heart functions as the motor of the circulatory system, which consists of the heart, blood vessels and blood. A cell from heart muscle would have an unusually high proportion of these organelles:

a)

Golgi bodies

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Lysosomes

e)

mRNA

14.

Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) is a ligand that will stimulate the cell proliferation and differentiation when it is attached to its receptor on cell membrane. FGF receptor is a type of enzyme-linked receptor. Which of following is not the criteria of enzyme-linked receptor?

a)

Autophosphorylation

b)

Consist of 7 pass trans membrane alpha helix

c)

Has ligand binding on extracellular side

d)

For example, receptor serine/threonine kinase

e)

Has kinase domain on cytosol side

15.

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deciency is an inherited disorder that may cause lung disease and liver disease. Individuals with S allele of the gene have moderately low levels, and individuals with Z allele have very little alpha-1 antitrypsin protein in their serum. Individuals with SZ allele have an increased risk of developing lung diseases (such as emphysema), particularly if they smoke. This type of inheritance is also called:

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Co-dominance

d)

Polygenic inheritance

e)

Complete dominance

16.

Which of following statements is TRUE for glucagon?

a)

It is secreted by pancreatic β cells as response to high glucose concentration in blood

b)

It is secreted by pancreatic β cells as response to low glucose concentration in blood

c)

It is secreted by adrenal gland as response to “fight-or flight” condition

d)

It is secreted by pancreatic α cells as response to low glucose concentration in blood

e)

It is secreted by pancreatic α cells as response to high glucose concentration in blood

17.

Which of the following enzyme groups can catalyse oxidation reactions?

a)

Hydrolases

b)

Isomerases

c)

Lyases

d)

Ligases

e)

Dehydrogenases

18.

A woman's body undergoes many transformations during the nine months of pregnancy. Some of these physical changes are visible, such as an expanding belly and weight gain, while others are well known, such as an enlarged uterus. The enlarged uterus of a pregnant woman is an example of which adaptive behavior?

a)

Atrophy

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Dysplasia

d)

Hypertrophy

e)

Hyperplasia

19.

Pentasomy 49, XXXXY incidence is around 1/85000 male births. Signs and symptoms of 49, XXXXY syndrome can vary but may include learning difficulties or intellectual disability; low muscle tone; infertility; delayed growth; distinctive facial features; and a variety of birth defects that may affect the heart, bones, brain and/or kidneys. A 49, XXXXY karyotype is thought to arise from

a)

Maternal non-disjunction in meiosis I and II

b)

Paternal non-disjunction in meiosis I and II

c)

Non-disjunction in meiosis II

d)

Maternal non-disjunction in meiosis I

e)

Paternal non-disjunction in meiosis I

20.

One of challenges in stem cell technology is to produce embryonic stem cells without the creation of embryo. A variation in stem cell technology where cdx2 gene (a gene to form placenta) is turned off in patient’s nucleus before it is transferred to donor egg called as...

a)

Parthenogenesis

b)

ANT

c)

Fusion

d)

SCNT using embryo at mitosis

e)

SCNT

21.

Insulin is a protein that is produced by certain pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstream. Which of the following choices best describes the route of insulin from its production in the rough ER to its exit from the cell?

a)

Golgi apparatus, plasma membrane

b)

Lysosomes, transport vesicles, plasma membrane

c)

Transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, transport vesicles, plasma membrane

d)

Lysosome, plasma membrane

e)

Golgi apparatus, smooth ER, cell membrane

22.

Which of the following is not stem cell characteristics?

a)

Capable to differentiate into adult cells

b)

Finite

c)

Capable to regenerate into other stem cells

d)

One cell can give rise to an entire organ system

e)

Self-renew

23.

One of the cells responses against viral infection is by the secretion of antiviral cytokine. Cytokines may affect the cell itself and its surrounding. Cytokine receptor is usually associated with

a)

Inositol phospholipid

b)

Calmodulin

c)

Protein Serine/Threonine Kinase

d)

Grb protein

e)

Janus Kinase

24.

Which of the following statements about the TCA cycle is true?

a)

Two molecules of carbon dioxides are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle

b)

Three molecules of NADH and one molecule of FADH2 are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle

c)

Two turns of TCA cycles are needed to oxidize one molecule of glucose

d)

The TCA cycle occurs in mitochondrial matrix

e)

All statements are true

25.

Gene therapy is an experimental technique that uses genes to treat or prevent disease. In the future, this technique may allow doctors to treat a disorder by inserting a gene into a patient's cells instead of using drugs or surgery. In order for a gene therapy to work, it needs to be delivered to the affected tissue using:

a)

Vector

b)

Transcription factor

c)

Promoter

d)

Bacteria

e)

Vaccine

26.

Structural abnormalities in chromosomes could occur when chromosomes break and reunite in an abnormal way. Which of the following structural abnormalities involve two chromosomes:

a)

Deletion and Translocation

b)

Inversions and Deletion

c)

Dicentric Chromosome and Deletion

d)

Ring Chromosome and Inversions

e)

Isochromosome and Translocation

27.

A tumor is any abnormal proliferation of cells, which may be either benign or malignant. How do the cells of benign and malignant tumors differ?

a)

Benign cells growth into adjacent tissue; malignant cells displace adjacent tissue

b)

Malignant cells are not encapsulated; benign cells are encapsulated

c)

Benign cells grow fast and are small; malignant cells grow slow but large

d)

Malignant cells have well defned border; benign cells' border are less de ned

e)

All are correct

28.

A simple method to distinguish two types of bacteria is their ability in retaining the crystal violet dye (Gram staining). What is the characteristic of Gram positive bacteria?

a)

Releases endotoxin

b)

A lower peptidoglycan and higher lipid content

c)

A larger periplasmic space

d)

A higher peptidogylcan and lower lipid content

e)

Two outer membranes

29.

What is the genotype of individual II-5?

a)

WW or ww

b)

Ww

c)

ww or Ww

d)

WW

e)

ww

30.

The chemical bonds in DNA by which the sugar components of adjacent nucleotides are linked through the phosphate groups are called _____________ bonds.

a)

Phosphodiester

b)

Hydrophobic

c)

Hydrophilic

d)

Ionic

e)

Hydrogen

31.

During mitosis one cell divides once to form two identical cells. The major purpose of mitosis is for growth and to replace worn out cells. Meiosis is a more specific type of cell division, in which the daughter cells further divide and there are Meiosis I and Meiosis II. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that

a)

Sister chromatids separate during anaphase

b)

Homologous chromosomes form a pair

c)

The chromosome number is reduced

d)

DNA replicates before the division

e)

The daughter cells are diploid

32.

A 21-year-old woman is presented to the Emergency Room with extreme muscle weakness, difculty in swallowing and breathing. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis was made based on the history, examination and laboratory test. Myasthenia gravis is a condition of an improper functioning at the neuromuscular junction. What is blocked at neuromuscular junction in this case?

a)

Blocked acetylcholine receptor

b)

Blocked GABA receptor

c)

Defect in Na+ voltage-gated receptor

d)

Damage in dendrites

e)

Failure to release acetylcholine vesicles

33.

Blastocyst is the source of embryonic stem cell which consists of inner cell mass and trophoblast. Naturally, trophoblast will proliferate/differentiate into which type of cells?

a)

Pluripotent stem cells

b)

Placenta and extraembryonic tissue

c)

Hematopoietic stem cells

d)

Brain stem cells and specialized brain cells

e)

All types of specialized cells

34.

Knowing what you know about phospholipid bilayers; if you wanted to build your own membrane protein, what would your amino acids need to have in order to stay in the membrane?

a)

Glycosylations

b)

Negatively charged groups

c)

Hydrophobic groups

d)

Hydrophilic groups

e)

Positively charged groups

35.

Cell cycle checkpoints are control mechanisms in eukaryotic cells which ensure proper division of the cell. At the center of the cell cycle control system is Cdk, a protein that

a)

Manufactures growth factors

b)

Is dephosphorylated to become active

c)

Binds to different cyclins

d)

Is only active during mitosis

e)

Is degraded before it is active

36.

What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?

a)

The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end

b)

DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand

c)

Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end

d)

DNA ligase works only in the 3 5 direction

e)

Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time

37.

Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON) is an inherited form of vision loss. This inheritance applies to genes contained in mitochondrial DNA. Which of the following pedigree best describes the inheritance of LHON

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

38.

In eukaryotes, there are three different RNA polymerases. The RNA polymerase responsible for synthesis of mRNA is ____

a)

RNA polymerase I

b)

RNA polymerase II

c)

RNA polymerase III

d)

RNA polymerase IV

e)

None of these

39.

A 60 year-old woman suffer from cirrhosis of liver. Toxins such as ammonia are not properly metabolized by the liver and can damage the brain. Which of the following compounds should be in highest concentration in brain as a result of detoxification of ammonia?

a)

Glycine

b)

Alpha ketoglutarate

c)

Glutamate

d)

Glutamine

e)

Asparagine

40.

The proteins that makeup the electron transport chain in animals are located____

a)

In the mitochondrial matrix

b)

On the outer mitochondrial membrane

c)

In the cytoplasm

d)

In the nucleus

e)

On the inner mitochondrial membrane

41.

Which of the following hormones is called “fight-or-flight” hormone and is secreted by the adrenal gland?

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

e)

Epinephrine

42.

A patient has been detected to be homozygous for the mutation 39X in the gene coding for Beta-hemoglobin. Which of the following statements is TRUE.

a)

The patient's blood contains normal Hb

b)

Glutamine at position 39 is changed to asparagine, resulting in a functional protein with slightly different activity

c)

The patient is a carrier for this mutation

d)

It is a silent mutation, it does not have any effects at all

e)

Glutamine at position 39 is changed to a stop codon, no functional Beta-hemoglobin can be synthesized

43.

Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?

a)

Ionic bonds between charged side chains of amino acids

b)

Covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone

c)

Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues

d)

Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds

e)

Peptide bonds between amino acids

44.

The oxidative deamination of the amino acid alanine in muscle produces:

a)

One molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of water

b)

One molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of urea

c)

One molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of carbon dioxide

d)

One molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of ammonia

e)

One molecule of pyruvate and a molecule of oxygen

45.

Glycolysis takes places in the __________ and produces __________, which in the presence of oxygen then enters the __________.

a)

Cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion to complete cellular respiration

b)

Nucleus; acetyl-CoA; cytosol to complete gluconeogenesis

c)

Mitochondrion; pyruvate; chloroplast to complete photosynthesis

d)

Cytosol; glucose; mitochondrion to complete fermentation

e)

Cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion to complete fermentation

46.

Protesting the government's policy, a 25-year-old man went on hunger strike. Which of the following metabolites are the most heavily elevated in his blood plasma after 3 days?

a)

Un-esterified fatty acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Ketone bodies

d)

Triacylglycero

e)

Glycogen

47.

Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC) patients have genes with microsatellite instability, in which many gene regions contain abnormal, small loops of unpaired DNA. These DNA loops are the result of a mutation affecting which of the following:

a)

Non Homologous End Joining repair

b)

Mismatch repair

c)

Nucleotide excision repair

d)

Base Excision repair

e)

Single Strand Break repair

48.

Positron emission tomography (PET) imaging using 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose (18F-FDG) has been a powerful cancer imaging tool for many decades. Of the many hallmarks of cancer that include biological capabilities acquired during the multistep development of human tumors; which one is put to use when imaging cancer using PET:

a)

Sustained angiogenesis

b)

Limitless replicative potential

c)

Evading apoptosis

d)

Reprogramming metabolism

e)

Self-sufficiency in growth signal

49.

Among the common causes of cancer are infection by cancer-causing (oncogenic) viruses. The following statement is true for oncogenic viruses except:

a)

Human Papillomavirus (HPV) expresses E6 oncogenic protein

b)

Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) integrates viral genome into cellular DNA

c)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) increases alternative splicing of angiogenesis-related genes

d)

Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) promotes DNA repair

e)

Epstein Barr Virus oncogene LMP1 inhibits p53 function

50.

In a globular protein the amino acid Valine is localized more likely within the interior of the molecule, because ________ Select one:

a)

It is nonpolar and hydrophobic

b)

Its side chain is positively charged

c)

It is polar and hydrophilic

d)

It is an acidic amino acid

e)

It is a basic amino acid

51.

A researcher made an interesting observation about a protein that was translocated into the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) during its synthesis and eventually ending up in the plasma membrane. Significantly, the protein in the plasma membrane was found to be slightly larger than the related protein in the ER. The protein was probably changed in the _________

a)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Nucleus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Golgi apparatus

52.

Tommy, a 58-year-old man had severe pain in his thoracic region when he was skiing (PBL Case Week 8). The spinal x-ray showed a compression fracture of T4. Tommy is diagnosed to have multiple myeloma (cancer of plasma cell) based on laboratory results i.e. 2-microglobulin of 1966.95 μmol/L, positive Bence-Jones proteins in urine, also high level calcium (12 mg/dL), urea (66 mg/dL) and creatinine (1.9 mg/dL) in serum. Tommy will receive chemotherapy and hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) transplant for the management of the disease. Which of the following is not suitable as the source of hematopoietic stem cell for Tommy?

a)

Inner cell mass

b)

Peripheral blood

c)

iPS cell

d)

Cord blood

e)

Myoblast

53.

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind woman of normal height. The man's father was six feet tall, and both the woman's parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive. What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?

a)

One out of four

b)

None

c)

All

d)

Half

e)

Three out of four

54.

The ribosome is a highly complex cellular machine, found within all living cells. Which of the following statements about ribosomes is true?

a)

They are an integral part of transcription

b)

They are composed of three subunits of unequal size

c)

They are bound together so tightly they cannot dissociate under physiologic conditions

d)

They are composed of RNA, DNA and proteins

e)

They are found in cytoplasm and mitochondria

55.

Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for her child, which out of the following proteins should be recommended?

a)

Wheat

b)

Soy Protein

c)

Vegetables

d)

Milk

e)

Nuts

56.

Mutations can change the overall structure of proteins. Predict the outcome of a harmful mutation that modifies the microfilaments of the cytoskeleton of a white blood cell.

a)

It would improve the structural support of the cell

b)

It would increase the transport of secretory vesicles

c)

It would result in decrease levels of centriole activity

d)

It would increase the spindle formation during mitosis

e)

It would decrease its ability to phagocytose other cells

57.

A 35-year-old Indonesian living in Europe came to his doctor with stomach cramps and diarrhea after drinking milk. What is the most likely cause for this man's problem?

a)

Lack of pancreatic amylase

b)

Excessive growth of bacteria and yeast in the large intestine

c)

Lactase deficiency in the small intestine (lactose intolerance)

d)

Aldolase B deficiency (fructose intolerance)

e)

Lack of sucrose-isomaltase of the small intestine

58.

The process of translation requires the presence of:

a)

mRNA, ribosomes and RNA polymerase

b)

Free nucleotide bases, amino acids and ribosomes

c)

mRNA, tRNA and ribosomes

d)

DNA, mRNA and RNA polymerase

e)

Chromatin, DNA and amino acids

59.

The sequence between 5’ methyl-guanosine cap (5’ cap) and start codon in eukaryotic mRNA is called_____

a)

Last intron

b)

Termination codon

c)

5’ UTR (untranslated region)

d)

Last exon

e)

3’ UTR (untranslated region)

60.

The nuclear envelope (NE) is a highly regulated membrane barrier that separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells. Which of the following statements does not apply to the nuclear envelope?

a)

It is a double membrane

b)

It has pores through which protein enters

c)

It is continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum

d)

It has pores through which material leaves

e)

Its outer layer folds to form cristae

61.

Tommy, a 58-year-old man had severe pain in his thoracic region when he was skiing (PBL Case Week 8). The spinal x-ray showed a compression fracture of T4. Tommy is diagnosed to have multiple myeloma (cancer of plasma cell) based on laboratory results i.e. 2-microglobulin of 1966.95 μmol/L, positive Bence-Jones proteins in urine, also high level calcium (12 mg/dL), urea (66 mg/dL) and creatinine (1.9 mg/dL) in serum. Tommy will receive chemotherapy and hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) transplant for the management of the disease. Which of the following is not true about HSC transplantation?

a)

Donor and recipient must have perfectly matched HLA

b)

Peripheral stem cell collection produces a lower yield compare to bone marrow collection

c)

Allogenic transplantation is when the donor and recipient are the same species

d)

The higher the degree of mismatched HLA the more complications with engraftment and graft versus host syndrome

e)

Immunosuppressant can be used to prevent GVHD

62.

Cells die through either of two distinct processes: necrosis or apoptosis. Necrosis is death due to unexpected and accidental cell damage. Apoptosis is also called programmed cell death. Which of the following events is NOT a change experienced by a typical cell committed to apoptosis?

a)

Nuclear envelope disassembles

b)

Cytoskeleton collapses

c)

DNA breaks into fragments

d)

Cell swells and bursts

e)

Loss of mitochondrial membrane functions

63.

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around…

a)

Short arm

b)

Chromosome

c)

Centromere

d)

Chromatids

e)

Histones

64.

The region of a gene located at -10 and -35 with respect to the start of transcription are termed :

a)

Promoters

b)

Coding region

c)

Termination sequence

d)

Control region

e)

Enhancer/Silencer

65.

Which type of chloride channel protein is defective in Cystic Fibrosis?

a)

Calcium ion sensitive chloride channels

b)

Cation-chloride cotransporters

c)

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator

d)

CLC chloride channels and transporters

e)

None of the above

66.

The synthesis of mRNA occurs in 3 stages. In Transcription, the RNA polymerase replicates the DNA sequence into a complementary sequence of mRNA. This process runs in… direction

a)

5’ to 3’ direction

b)

2’ to 5’ direction

c)

3’ to 5’ direction

d)

A and C are correct

e)

All of the above are wrong

67.

In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base pairing rules?

a)

G = C

b)

G = T

c)

A+T = G+C

d)

A = T

e)

A+G = T+C

68.

There are 3 types of protein transport. One of it requires ATP as the energy. What is it?

a)

RNA polymerase I

b)

ATP-powered pump (ATPase pump)

c)

Ion channel

d)

Transporter

e)

Uniporter

69.

Which one of the following statement that is true about DNA replication?

a)

Occurs in ribosomes

b)

The mechanism of copying DNA parental to make one daughter DNAs

c)

DNA helicase unwinds dsDNA parental at replication forks

d)

RNase H synthesize RNA primers

e)

All of the above are wrong

70.

Daughter strands in a replication are always made of one strand of old DNA and one newly synthesized complementary strand. This nature of DNA replication is referred as :

a)

Bidirectional

b)

Starts from replication forks

c)

Semi-discontinuous

d)

Semiconservative

e)

Conservative

71.

UV radiation can cause DNA damage in form of thymine dimers formation. This DNA damage is usually repaired by the DNA repair mechanism of

a)

MMR

b)

NER

c)

Single-strand damages

d)

BER

e)

Double-strand breaks

72.

Condition at which one or more nucleotides removed from the DNA strand is called

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Silent mutation

c)

Insertion mutation

d)

Deletion mutation

e)

Point mutation

73.

β-Thalassemia, common in Southeast Asia, is due to a point mutation in β-globin. What mutation causes it?

a)

Stop at position 26 with lysine as the last amino acid

b)

Glutamate is swapped with lysine at amino acid no. 26

c)

Aspartate is swapped with lysine at amino acid no. 26

d)

Excessive amount of Protein 𝞫-globin

e)

no protein β-globin is made

74.

Which enzymes remove supercoiling during DNA replication ahead of the replication Fork?

a)

Ligases

b)

Primases

c)

Helicases

d)

DNA polymerases

e)

Topoisomerases

75.

Human Genome Project Objectives. Which of the following was (were) the objective(s) of the Human Genome Project?

a)

Obtain a detailed genetic map of every human chromosome

b)

Determine the sequence of all expressed human genes

c)

Determine the complete DNA sequence of each human chromosome

d)

A and B are true

e)

A, B, and C are true

76.

Which enzymes remove supercoiling during DNA replication ahead of the replication fork?

a)

Primases

b)

Ligases

c)

DNA Polymerases

d)

Helicases

e)

Topoisomerases

77.

A pluripotent stem cell is

a)

A specialized cell that mainly differentiate into blood cell

b)

An undifferentiated cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise to one or more distinct types of specialized cells to make an individua

c)

An undifferentiated cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise to one or more distinct types of specialized cells, except for fetal supporting tissues

d)

Specialized cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise to one or more distinct types of undifferentiated cells

e)

A specialized cell that is capable of dividing and giving rise of central nervous system

78.

Cells fall into one of two broad categories: prokaryotic and eukaryotic. The single-celled organisms of the domains Bacteria and Archaea are classified as prokaryotes. Animal cells, plant cells, fungi, and protists are eukaryotes. Which of the following is a feature found in BOTH prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Extensive array of intermediate filaments

b)

Multiple linear chromosomes in each cell

c)

Mitotic spindles that partition chromosomes into the daughter cells

d)

Ribosomes that accomplish protein synthesis

e)

All of the above are found in both types of cells

79.

Embryonic stem cells are self-renewal, immortal and have an almost unlimited differentiation potential. Those characteristics are results of inhibiting differentiation and apoptosis. Which of the following is the correct network for the regulation of embryonic stem cell self-renewal?

a)

Myc-FGF-LIF

b)

FGF-Nanog-Oct4

c)

cMyc-FGF-Oct4

d)

LIF-Sox2-cMyc

e)

Sox2-Nanog-Oct4

80.

The pathway of a tRNA during polypeptide elongation on the ribosome is:

a)

A site --> P site --> E site

b)

P site --> A site --> E site

c)

A site --> P site --> entry site

d)

P site --> entry site --> exit site

e)

None of the above

81.

Which of the following statements about the role of the pentose phosphate pathway is correct?

a)

The pentose phosphate pathway is directly connected to TCA cycle

b)

The pentose phosphate pathway oxidizes glucose-6-phosphate completely to carbon dioxide and water

c)

The pentose phosphate pathway delivers –NH3 for amino acid synthesis

d)

The pentose phosphate pathway occurs in the mitochondria of most cells

e)

The pentose phosphate pathway produces ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH

82.

p53 (also known as TP53) is a gene whose activation induces apoptosis, cell cycle arrest, or senescence in response to distinct stimuli, including DNA damage (senescence = the process by which cells irreversibly stop dividing and enter a state of permanent growth arrest without undergoing cell death). Which of the following best described the role of p53?

a)

Tumor suppressor gene

b)

DNA repair gene

c)

Oncogene

d)

Proto-oncogene

e)

Proto-suppressor gene

83.

Carcinogenesis involved three steps: Initiation, Promotion and Progression. Chemical carcinogen can initiate cells through mutational inactivation of following pathways, except:

a)

Apoptotic proteins

b)

Tumor suppressors

c)

Growth factor receptors

d)

DNA repair

e)

Anti-oxidant response

84.

Cancer is unchecked cell growth. Mutations in certain genes can cause cancer by accelerating cell division rates. Any drug that blocks the process of cell replication has therefore potential as a treatment for cancer. Which one of the following would be a potential target drug for cancer treatment?

a)

Drug that disrupts microtubule assembly

b)

Drug that disrupts cyclin and cyclin dependent kinase complex

c)

Drug that stabilizes microtubule structure

d)

Drug that inhibits proteasome functionAll options are potential target drug

85.

A father with type A blood and a mother with type B blood have three children with blood of type AB and type O. What is the explanation?

a)

Three different genes cause A, B, and O type

b)

There are multiple alleles for A, B, and O

c)

A and B genes are recessive

d)

Gene is partially expressed

e)

A and B genes are pleiotropic

86.

Which of the following is true of methyl groups' effect in the epigenetic mechanism?

a)

They reduce protein stability

b)

They directly inhibit ribosome assembly

c)

They directly inhibit nuclear pore transport

d)

They directly inhibit transcription

e)

They directly inhibit protein translation

87.

Color blindness is a trait in which the eye fails to distinguish red and green colors. The color blindness is more likely to occur in males than in females because:

a)

The trait is dominant in males and recessive in females

b)

In females colour blindness appears when one of the sex chromosomes expresses the gene

c)

Color blindness is not inherited

d)

Genes for color blindness are located on the Xchromosomes

e)

The Y-chromosome of males have the genes for distinguishing colors

88.

Below are clinical applications of somatic cell nuclear transfer except:

a)

Treat cystic fibrosis disease by injecting patient with pluripotent cell derived from SCNT technique carrying the gene to fix chloride channel

b)

Modify the genetic of Dolly sheep

c)

To bring back dinosaurs alive

d)

To bring back Einstein alive

e)

None of the above

89.

Which of the following statements is not true about cancer stem cells?

a)

Can start from mutated progenitor cells

b)

May be a result of loss of regulation of mutated stem cell

c)

"Tumor initiating cell"

d)

They can self-renew

e)

Not related with changes on niche requirements.

90.

Which of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is correct?

a)

Gluconeogenesis uses all the SAME enzymes that are also used in glycolysis

b)

Gluconeogenesis enables the liver to maintain blood glucose levels during starvation

c)

The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase hydrolyses glucose-6-phosphate and is present in most cells

d)

Fatty acids are plentiful in the blood during starvation and are used for glucose synthesis

e)

Muscles have a large glycogen store which gives rise to blood glucose during prolonged starvation

91.

What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?

a)

It alters the reading frame of the mRNA

b)

It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein

c)

It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA

d)

It prevents introns from being excised

e)

It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein

92.

Signal sequences are

a)

Short peptide sequences attached to a protein that initiates its degradation by digestive enzymes

b)

Short peptide sequences to transport a protein to the nucleus

c)

Short peptide sequences that serve as an address for transporting newly synthesized proteins to the correct location

d)

Glycoproteins that serve as an address for transporting newly synthesized proteins to the correct location

e)

Short peptide sequences that are synthesized by signal peptidase

93.

A phenotypically normal woman with a translocation involving chromosomes 14 and 21 karyotype has a karyotypically normal husband. Among their liveborn offspring, which of the following karyotype is LEAST likely?

a)

Balanced Carrier

b)

Normal

c)

Translocation chr 21 and 14

d)

Monosomy 21

e)

Trisomy 21

94.

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disease which causes mental retardation and reduced hair and skin pigmentation. It involves the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, which is encoded by the PAH gene in chromosome 12. This enzyme converts the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine. Depending on the mutation involved, conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine is reduced or stops entirely. Unconverted phenylalanine builds up in the bloodstream and can lead to levels that are toxic to the developing nervous system of newborn and infant children. Which variation to Mendelian Law best describes the phenotype of PKU?

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Polygenic inheritance

c)

Pleiotropy

d)

Incomplete dominance

e)

Epistasis

95.

a single pass transmembrane protein that acts a self-marker is:

a)

cAMP

b)

ECM

c)

G-protein

d)

MP

e)

MHC

96.

Which one of the following statements describes NON-essential amino acids?

a)

They are less important in cells than essential amino acids

b)

They are stored in adequate amounts so are not needed in the diet

c)

They can be synthesized from metabolic intermediates

d)

They are ingested but not used in protein synthesis

e)

They only can be found in complete proteins

97.

Aneuploidy is the second major category of chromosome mutations in which chromosome number is abnormal. Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual?

a)

47, 21+

b)

47, XXX O

c)

45, X

d)

47, XXY

e)

47, XV

98.

The effect of cell to cell communication may be broad to whole body or limited to certain part of body. Insulin secretion is an example of a way which acts at distance and influence the whole body, as know as

a)

Phosphorylation cascade

b)

Paracrine

c)

Endocrine

d)

Autocrine

e)

Intracrine

99.

Tommy, a 58-year-old man had severe pain in his thoracic region when he was skiing (PBL Case Week 8). The spinal x-ray showed a compression fracture of T4. Tommy is diagnosed to have multiple myeloma (cancer of plasma cell) based on laboratory results i.e. β2-microglobulin of 1966.95 μmol/L, positive Bence-Jones proteins in urine, also high level calcium (12 mg/dL), urea (66 mg/dL) and creatinine (1.9 mg/dL) in serum. Tommy will receive chemotherapy and hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) transplant for the management of the disease. HSC needs to be characterized before transplantation. Which of the following is a characteristic of HSC?

a)

Able to produce embryoid body in vitro

b)

Can be derived from mesenchymal tissue

c)

Cannot undergo apoptosis

d)

CD133+/34

e)

Addition of cytokines such as GM-CSF will cause the cells to differentiate to lymphoid progenitor

100.

A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) refers to any position in the nuclear genome where there is at least one variant nucleotide that occurs at a frequency of 1% or more of within the population. A SNP may alter function of a protein due to

a)

Synonymous change in exon

b)

Non-synonymous change in intron

c)

Non-synonymous change in exon

d)

Synonymous change in intron

e)

Non-synonymous change in promoter

101.

Alpha Antitrypsin (AAT) is a protease inhibitor encoded by SERPINA1 gene on chromosome 14. Over 100 genetic variants of the SERPINA1 gene have been described, although only several are associated with the disease. In the Z allele, the amino acid glutamine (G) in position 342 is substituted for a lysine (A) amino acid, resulting in an incorrectly folded protein. What is the effect of this mutant protein in the cell?

a)

Reduced chronic inflammation

b)

Increased level of AAT in the plasma

c)

Increased level of neutrophil apoptosis

d)

Formation of secretory vesicles

e)

Formation of protein accumulation in the ER

102.

DNA differs from RNA in the following features

a)

DNA is located in nucleus and mitochondria; RNA is found only in cytoplasm

b)

DNA is synthesized by DNA polymerase; RNA is synthesized by RNA polymerase

c)

DNA has deoxyribose residues; RNA has ribose residues

d)

DNA contains the A, C, G and T bases; RNA contains A, C, G, and U

e)

All TRUE, except A

103.

Robertsonian translocation is an unusual type of chromosome rearrangement caused by two acrocentric chromosomes joining together. Which of the following is not possible in the offspring of a translocation carrier (involving acrocentric chromosomes 14 and 21) and a normal individual.

a)

Monosomy 14

b)

normal

c)

Translocation Down syndrome

d)

Monosomy 21

e)

All are possible outcomes

104.

Describe the mode of inheritance of the following pedigree and the genotype of individual 5 and 6.

a)

Autosomal recessive, Rr and Rr

b)

Autosomal dominant, RR and RR

c)

Autosomal recessive, Rr and rr

d)

Autosomal recessive, rr and rr

e)

Autosomal dominant, Rr and Rr

105.

In the nucleus of each cell, the DNA molecule is packaged into thread-like structures called chromosomes. Each chromosome is made up of DNA tightly coiled many times around proteins that support its structure. Which of the following is not part of a human chromosome in any phase?

a)

Centriole

b)

Histone

c)

Nucleosome

d)

Chromatin

e)

Centromere

106.

Women who inherit one mutant BRCA1 gene have a 60% chance of developing breast cancer by the age of 50. The protein produced by the BRCA1 gene has been found to be involved in the DNA double-strand breaks repair. Which of the following processes is most likely to be negatively affected by a deficiency in the BRCA1 protein?

a)

Homologous recombination

b)

Removal of Carcinogen adducts

c)

Correction of mismatch errors

d)

Removal of RNA primers

e)

Removal of thymine dimers

107.

Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?

a)

Temperature

b)

pH

c)

Salt concentration

d)

The addition or removal of phosphate

e)

All of the above

108.

A 7-year old girl was brought to a pediatrician practice with enlarged spleen. As a medical geneticist, you analyze her DNA and find that she is homozygous for thalassemia. Assuming the disease is autosomal recessive, what can you conclude about the genotype of her parents?

a)

Dad is a carrier of the disease, and Mom is normal

b)

Dad is homozygous, and Mom is normal

c)

Both Mom and Dad are carriers of the disease

d)

Mom is a carrier of the disease, and Dad is normal

e)

Mom is homozygous, and Dad is normal

109.

The cytoskeleton is a network of fibers throughout the cells’ cytoplasm that helps the cell to maintain its shape and gives support to the cell. Which of the following is not the function of cytoskeleton?

a)

Intracellular transport

b)

Ion transport

c)

Structural support nuclear envelope

d)

Chromosomal separation in meiosis

e)

Provides mechanical strength

110.

In PBL Week 7, Ms. Wati’s doctor recommend a targeted therapy for her cancer. Targeted therapy is a cancer treatment that uses drugs. Contrary to chemotherapy, targeted therapy works by targeting specific genes or proteins to help stop cancer from growing and spreading. In this case what would be the best treatment for her cancer?

a)

Antibody that binds to epidermal growth facto

b)

Gene therapy to correct her BRCA1 gene

c)

Gene therapy to correct the chromosomal translocation

d)

Antibody that binds to epidermal growth factor receptor

e)

Antigen that inhibits epidermal growth factor

111.

All cells are broadly categorized into prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Examples for Prokaryotes are Bacteria; yeast and plant cells are examples for Eukaryotes. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct?

a)

Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus

b)

Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus

c)

DNA is present in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells

d)

DNA is present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells

e)

Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles

112.

A famous example of variation in Mendelian inheritance is the co-dominance inheritance for ABO blood system. If one of your parents is blood type A while the other is blood type B, which of the following blood types would you likely be?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

AB

e)

any of the above

113.

Cholesterol has many important functions, including its role in membrane permeability, and in metabolism. Cells obtain cholesterol from two sources. They can synthesize cholesterol from Acetyl Co-A and uptake from environment using:

a)

Constitutive Secretion

b)

Fluid Phase Endocytosis

c)

Receptor Mediated Endocytosis

d)

Regulated Secretion

e)

Pinocytosis

114.

Which is TRUE about membrane protein.

a)

Integral protein is also called as peripheral protein

b)

Transmembrane protein spans the plasma membrane

c)

Transmembrane protein is hydrophobic

d)

Membrane protein cannot move laterally across membrane

e)

All the above

115.

Metabolism is divided into 2 classes. __________ is the breakdown of macromolecules (proteins, carbohydrates, fats) to produce energy. This class is characterized by __________ reactions. __________ is the construction of biomolecules from smaller precursors. This requires energy input. This class is characterized by __________ reactions. The energy intermediate is __________.

a)

Anabolism, oxidative, catabolism, reductive, UTP.

b)

Catabolism, oxidative, anabolism, reductive, ATP

c)

Exergonism, exergonic, endergonism, endergonic, GTP

d)

Antithesis, reduction, synthesis, oxidation, CTP

e)

Anabolism, reductive, catabolism, oxidative, AMP

116.

What will happen when solute binds to its pump in active transport?

a)

Na+ influx

b)

Pump does not change conformation

c)

Flow of solute down its gradient concentration

d)

Phosphorylation of pump

e)

Movement of water toward lower water concentration area

117.

Which of the following statements about the TCA cycle is true?

a)

Two molecules of carbon dioxides are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle

b)

Three molecules of NADH and one molecule of FADH2 are produced in one turn of the TCA cycle

c)

Two turns of TCA cycles are needed to oxidize one molecule of glucose

d)

The TCA cycle occurs in mitochondrial matrix

e)

All statements are true

118.

What is the function of anti-Cholinesterase for Myasthenia gravis patient?

a)

Hydrolyzes the anti-Acetylcholine receptor

b)

Prolongs acetylcholinesterase presence and effect in the synapse

c)

Restores the Acetylcholine receptor

d)

Reduces the inflammation caused by autoimmunity

e)

Inhibits the enzyme that breaks acetylcholine

119.

Nancy, five months pregnant, agrees to a routine genetic test that indicates she carries the mutation for the fatal disease, cystic fibrosis. She convinces her husband to get tested and discovers that he too is a carrier. Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder due to a mutation of cystic fibrosis transmembrane protein (CFTR) gene. Which of the following is the correct characteristic of cystic fibrosis?

a)

Sweat test shows low chloride content

b)

Cl-, HCO3- and water secretion into the lumen of biliary duct is impaired

c)

Dysfunctional NaCl absorption in sweat gland duct causes hypertonic sweat

d)

Defective mucociliary clearance in nasal

e)

When it affects the vas deferens, it may cause kidney stone

120.

A 48-year-old woman has a malignant lymphoma involving lymph nodes near the aorta. She is treated with a chemotherapeutic agent which results in the loss of individual neoplastic cells through fragmentation of individual cell nuclei and cytoplasm. Over the next 2 months, the lymphoma decreases in size, as documented on abdominal CT scans. By which of the following mechanisms has her neoplasm primarily responded to therapy?

a)

Acute inflammation

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Necrosis

d)

Phagocytosis

e)

Autophagocytosis

121.

Metastasis is the movement or spreading of cancer cells from one part of the body/ organ or tissue to another. Cancer cells usually spread through the bloodstream or the lymph system. Which one of the following is the correct order of Metastasi

a)

Invasion, Intravasation, Transport, Extravasation, Colonization

b)

Invasion, Intravasation, Extravasation, Transport, Colonization

c)

Intravasation, Extravasation, Invasion, Transport, Colonization

d)

Intravasation, Extravasation, Transport, Colonization, Invasion

e)

Intravasation, Extravasation, Transport, Invasion, Colonization

122.

Biochemical mechanism responsible for "transmitting" extracellular signals inside the cell, which ultimately lead to the activation of target proteins that control metabolic pathways or regulate gene expression, called as

a)

Signal transmission

b)

Signal transduction

c)

Metabolic regulation

d)

Signal transformation

e)

Gene expression regulation

123.

A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of more than 200 mg/dL. Patient has associated symptoms such as polyuria and polydipsia. Further test showed that patient's pancreas has a defect in glucose transport thus affects the insulin production and release process. Pancreas takes up glucose from blood through

a)

GLUT 2

b)

GLUT 5

c)

GLUT 3

d)

GLUT 1

e)

GLUT 4

124.

A 57-year-old man receives radiation therapy for a squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Despite therapy, the tumor progressively increases in size, and he dies 6 months later. His tumor cells contain a point mutation in the p53 gene (TP53), leading to an inactive gene product. Based on this finding, the progressive tumor growth despite irradiation therapy is most likely to be related to a defect in cell cycle arrest in which of the following phases of the cell cycle?

a)

G1

b)

G0

c)

S

d)

M

e)

G2

125.

DNA replication is discontinuous due to

a)

Trinucleotide repeats

b)

Polymerase slippage

c)

Topoisomerases cutting the DNA in a random fashion

d)

Being restricted to synthesis in the 5' to 3' direction

e)

Sister chromatid exchange

126.

One of the hallmarks of cancer is sustained Angiogenesis. Angiogenesis is a physiological process in which new blood vessel is formed from existing blood vessel. Which process does not happen in Angiogenesis?

a)

Migration of epithelial cells

b)

Activation of epidermal growth factor

c)

Capillary sprouting formation

d)

Regulation by hypoxia inducible factor 1 alpha

e)

Degradation of extracellular matrix

127.

A child with physical features suggestive of Down syndrome is born to a 39-year-old mother. A blood karyotype is performed and reveals a 47, XX, +21 chromosome pattern. What does this chromosome pattern likely indicate?

a)

There was a chromosomal translocation event in one of the parents

b)

Cannot be determined with the data provided

c)

There was a mitotic non-disjunction event in one of the parents

d)

There was a mixoploidy event in one of the parents

e)

There was a meiotic non-disjunction event in one of the parents