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Worksheets

Apply Hot/Cold Pack & Perform Tepid Sponging

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which physiological process is the primary source of ongoing body heat production?

a)

Cellular metabolism in body tissues

b)

Skeletal muscle contraction during exercise

c)

Sympathetic vasoconstriction of skin

d)

Pulmonary ventilation of warm air

2.

Which statement best defines radiation in human heat loss?

a)

Heat transfer by direct skin contact

b)

Heat loss via sweat vapor formation

c)

Heat transfer to cooler objects without contact

d)

Heat carried away by moving air

3.

In a patient lying on a cold metal stretcher, which heat-loss method is most involved?

a)

Conduction from skin to stretcher

b)

Evaporation from insensible loss

c)

Radiation to room surfaces

d)

Convection to circulating air

4.

Which scenario illustrates convection as a heat-loss process?

a)

Heat moving from skin to a blanket

b)

Sweat converting into water vapor

c)

Heat radiating to nearby walls

d)

Warm air rising and cooler air replacing

5.

Which description best explains evaporation in thermoregulation?

a)

Liquid water turning into vapor

b)

Heat carried by air current flow

c)

Heat exchange through physical touch

d)

Heat transfer without direct contact

6.

A febrile patient begins sweating. What mechanism primarily cools them?

a)

Radiation to cooler surroundings

b)

Conduction to bed linen surface

c)

Convection from ceiling fans

d)

Evaporation of sweat on skin

7.

A nurse places a warm pack under a patient’s back. Which mechanism increases patient body heat?

a)

Evaporation from moist skin

b)

Convection from moving air

c)

Radiation from pack to room

d)

Conduction from pack to skin

8.

Which intervention most effectively reduces radiant heat loss in a cool ward?

a)

Increase airflow with oscillating fans

b)

Place insulating blankets over patient

c)

Apply moisture-wicking cool towels

d)

Increase skin contact with metal rails

9.

When prewarming IV fluids for a hypothermic patient, which heat transfer principle is leveraged?

a)

Evaporation across catheter site

b)

Convection via room air currents

c)

Conduction from fluid to blood

d)

Radiation to ambient objects

10.

Which misstatement about heat-loss mechanisms should be corrected?

a)

Evaporation converts liquid water to vapor

b)

Radiation needs direct contact for transfer

c)

Convection replaces warm air with cooler air

d)

Conduction occurs through physical contact

11.

A patient is uncovered beneath an overhead heater. Which two mechanisms mainly affect temperature?

a)

Evaporation and radiation only

b)

Conduction and convection only

c)

Radiation and convection dynamics

d)

Conduction and evaporation rates

12.

Which nursing action best limits convective heat loss in a bedridden patient near an air vent?

a)

Close the vent and reduce drafts

b)

Increase contact with firm surfaces

c)

Expose patient to radiant heat

d)

Promote sweating with warm fluids

13.

Which environmental condition most likely elevates body temperature during routine care?

a)

Mild breeze outdoors

b)

Cool and dry ward air

c)

Temperate and shaded area

d)

Hot and humid room

14.

A postoperative patient begins shivering. Which nursing action best applies the concept of metabolic intake influencing temperature?

a)

Offer cold water quickly

b)

Provide warm carbohydrate-rich broth

c)

Encourage deep breathing exercises

d)

Increase room air movement

15.

During turning and positioning, a patient becomes flushed and tachycardic after arguing with a family member. Which factor is most likely contributing to the temperature change?

a)

Excess fluid administration today

b)

Low ambient humidity levels

c)

Improved circulation from movement

d)

Strong emotions such as anger

16.

Which scenario demonstrates DoK 2 application of fluid intake effects on thermoregulation?

a)

Patient rests in a cool, shaded room

b)

Patient drank 2 L today, feeling energetic

c)

Patient eats low-fat meals consistently

d)

Patient is dehydrated, reduced sweating efficiency

17.

A hypermetabolic state is suspected. Which endocrine finding would most consistently raise body temperature?

a)

Reduced cortisol secretion

b)

Normal insulin secretion

c)

Excessive thyroxine secretion

d)

Decreased thyroxine secretion

18.

Before repositioning a febrile patient, which combined factor pattern most increases heat stress risk?

a)

Temperate room, brief activity, normal hormones

b)

Cool room, gentle turns, low-fat meals

c)

Hot humid room, strenuous turns, poor fluids

d)

Cool environment, adequate fluids, mild activity

19.

Which physiological effect of a hot pack most directly increases local blood flow to tissues?

a)

Reduced cardiac output to peripheral limbs

b)

Enhanced lymphatic drainage systemically

c)

Increased venous constriction near the site

d)

Capillary vasodilation in the heated area

20.

A key benefit of heat therapy for musculoskeletal conditions is its ability to relieve which problem?

a)

Ligament tears in the joint

b)

Acute muscle spasms during movement

c)

Chronic neuropathic pain only

d)

Bone marrow edema formation

21.

Before applying a hot pack, what is the most appropriate first action?

a)

Select the largest pack available for coverage

b)

Place the pack directly on bare skin promptly

c)

Warm the pack to the highest safe temperature

d)

Assess the patient’s need and skin baseline

22.

During application, how often should the patient’s skin be inspected to reduce the risk of thermal injury?

a)

No inspection unless pain is reported

b)

Every 5 to 10 minutes while in place

c)

At the 30-minute mark only

d)

Every hour during the therapy

23.

Which finding during monitoring requires immediate removal of the hot pack?

a)

Redness with blister formation noted

b)

Mild warmth without discomfort

c)

Slight increase in mobility reported

d)

Stable vital signs throughout

24.

What is the maximum recommended therapeutic duration for a single hot pack application?

a)

Thirty minutes per application

b)

Ten minutes per limb segment

c)

Sixty minutes if well tolerated

d)

Fifteen minutes for all patients

25.

After 30 minutes of heat therapy, the nurse should do which next step?

a)

Apply an ice pack immediately for contrast

b)

Massage the area vigorously for circulation

c)

Increase temperature for deeper heating

d)

Remove pack and reassess skin condition

26.

Which rationale best explains limiting heat exposure time during hot pack use?

a)

Long exposure prevents edema formation

b)

Extended heat reduces oxygen delivery

c)

Shorter sessions improve vasoconstriction

d)

Prolonged heat can cause tissue injury

27.

To ensure patient comfort and safety, what should be asked shortly after the pack is placed?

a)

Whether the temperature feels comfortable

b)

Which muscle group needs strengthening

c)

If the patient prefers cold therapy

d)

What exercise they plan to do next

28.

Which therapeutic purpose of a hot pack supports mobility prior to physical activity?

a)

Stimulating sympathetic nervous activity

b)

Improving joint mobility before exercise

c)

Decreasing bone mineral density over time

d)

Increasing systemic blood pressure response

29.

Which sign suggests an adverse reaction requiring prompt nursing intervention during heat therapy?

a)

Normal skin color with mild erythema

b)

Report of relaxation and reduced pain

c)

Slight sweating without discomfort

d)

Excessive warmth compared to baseline

30.

Which step most directly minimizes the risk of burns during hot pack therapy?

a)

Regular skin checks at set intervals

b)

Positioning pack over bony prominences

c)

Using multiple packs for faster heating

d)

Applying heat continuously without breaks

31.

A patient with decreased sensation in the limb is scheduled for heat therapy. What is the safest modification?

a)

Apply the pack directly to skin for better effect

b)

Use maximal temperature for shorter time

c)

Skip baseline skin assessment this time

d)

Increase monitoring frequency and duration limits

32.

Which outcome reflects successful heat therapy without complications?

a)

Reduced pain with intact skin

b)

New blistering after treatment

c)

Worsening inflammation and edema

d)

Persistent spasm despite heating

33.

During heat application, what observation would justify continuing therapy as planned?

a)

Comfortable temperature reported by patient

b)

Rapid formation of localized blisters

c)

Marked redness and burning sensation

d)

Loss of sensation at the treatment site

34.

During heat therapy, which patient sign most clearly indicates a possible systemic complication requiring prompt reassessment?

a)

Slight skin pinkness without symptoms

b)

Mild relaxation and reduced muscle tone

c)

Diaphoresis with lightheadedness reported

d)

Localized warmth at application site only

35.

While observing a patient with a hot pack, which combination of findings should trigger immediate pause of therapy?

a)

No change in pain but calm

b)

Improved range of motion only

c)

Palpitations and dizziness together

d)

Stable vital signs with comfort

36.

What is the primary rationale for close monitoring for diaphoresis, palpitations, flushed face, or discomfort during heat therapy?

a)

To detect systemic or local complications early

b)

To meet billing documentation standards

c)

To ensure linens remain dry and intact

d)

To reduce frequency of nursing rounds

37.

A hot pack has cooled below therapeutic temperature. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Continue use until session ends

b)

Remove and reheat or renew the pack

c)

Apply additional pressure to the pack

d)

Move the pack to a different site

38.

Maintaining the hot pack at the desired temperature primarily supports which outcome?

a)

Increased room ambient temperature

b)

Sustained treatment effectiveness

c)

Improved staff scheduling efficiency

d)

Reduced need for patient education

39.

After heat therapy, which evaluation best assesses effectiveness?

a)

No change in symptoms but warmer skin

b)

Increase in skin redness without discomfort

c)

Reduction in pain, tension, or stiffness

d)

Higher heart rate and mild sweating

40.

Which action ensures continuity of care following heat therapy?

a)

Schedule therapy without charting

b)

Discard the used pack discreetly

c)

Report findings and document per policy

d)

Ask patient to self-monitor at home only

41.

A patient develops palpitations during a hot pack application. Which planned response demonstrates sound clinical reasoning?

a)

Stop therapy, reassess vitals, notify nurse

b)

Tighten the pack to improve contact

c)

Ignore unless pain increases later

d)

Switch to a larger pack immediately

42.

Which initial step best ensures safe hot pack use for a high‑risk inpatient?

a)

Apply heat when the patient requests relief

b)

Apply heat only with a specific provider order

c)

Apply heat whenever vital signs are stable

d)

Apply heat if the skin looks intact without redness

43.

Before placing a hot pack, what should the nurse verify to prevent harm?

a)

Indication and contraindications such as impaired sensation

b)

Availability of additional towels and linens

c)

Patient’s recent meal and hydration status

d)

Presence of a family member at bedside

44.

Which condition is a contraindication or caution for hot pack application?

a)

Impaired sensation or reduced circulation

b)

Elevated appetite after fasting

c)

Mild seasonal allergies without rash

d)

Normal capillary refill under two seconds

45.

Why can patients fail to report pain during heat therapy?

a)

Heat blocks all nociceptors permanently after use

b)

Heat reduces tissue swelling immediately and fully

c)

Heat improves nerve conduction and sensitivity

d)

Cutaneous nerves become numb quickly with heat

46.

What is the best approach to introducing a hot pack to a patient?

a)

Apply the pack tightly to ensure deep penetration

b)

Introduce heat gradually and obtain continuous feedback

c)

Keep the pack in place without asking the patient

d)

Apply full heat intensity immediately and observe

47.

Which action should be performed just before applying a hot pack?

a)

Test the temperature to ensure safe range

b)

Remove all dressings regardless of wound status

c)

Massage the area vigorously for blood flow

d)

Apply ice briefly to precondition the skin

48.

During heat therapy, how should patient comfort be monitored?

a)

Assess comfort only if the patient calls

b)

Ask once at the start then document

c)

Ask regularly if the temperature feels comfortable

d)

Rely on pulse and blood pressure changes only

49.

What rationale supports gradual heat introduction and continuous assessment?

a)

Heat tolerance varies among individuals

b)

Heat effects are identical for all patients

c)

Heat always strengthens cutaneous nerve response

d)

Heat therapy eliminates pain in every case

50.

Which patient group requires heightened caution with hot packs?

a)

Alert adults without comorbidities

b)

Unresponsive or confused individuals

c)

Athletes with normal sensation

d)

Postoperative patients with intact cognition

51.

Why might patients with dementia be at increased burn risk during heat therapy?

a)

They experience hyperalgesia and overreport pain

b)

They refuse all therapies regardless of type

c)

They may not recognise or verbalise discomfort

d)

They have elevated skin thickness and resilience

52.

Which factor primarily raises burn risk in high‑risk groups during heat application?

a)

Inability to communicate when heat becomes painful

b)

Excessive sweating reducing skin resistance

c)

Enhanced peripheral circulation with warming

d)

Rapid metabolism of epidermal cells under heat

53.

A patient with reduced circulation to the lower leg needs heat for cramps. What is the safest nursing action?

a)

Place the pack directly on the bare skin

b)

Verify contraindications and consult the provider

c)

Proceed with full heat since cramps warrant heat

d)

Secure the pack tightly to maintain constant heat

54.

When testing temperature before application, what outcome guides safe practice?

a)

Temperature changes rapidly every two minutes

b)

Temperature is identical across all rooms

c)

Temperature feels very hot to gloved fingers

d)

Temperature feels pleasantly warm, not hot

55.

For an unresponsive patient, which monitoring strategy is most appropriate during heat therapy?

a)

Use time‑limited intervals with frequent skin checks

b)

Increase heat until visible redness appears

c)

Rely solely on patient‑reported comfort levels

d)

Leave the pack unattended for faster warming

56.

Which statement best summarises the overall rationale for strict caution with hot packs?

a)

Tissue damage can occur without reported discomfort

b)

Heat always improves tissue viability and sensation

c)

Burn risk is negligible when packs are commercially made

d)

Pain perception increases with repeated heat exposure

57.

Which statement best defines radiation as a body heat loss mechanism?

a)

Transfer via direct contact with objects

b)

Transfer to cooler objects without contact

c)

Transfer by moving air currents around skin

d)

Transfer by sweat changing into vapor

58.

A patient’s skin warms a cold metal bed rail. Which heat transfer method is illustrated?

a)

Convection from circulating air

b)

Evaporation of skin moisture

c)

Conduction through direct contact

d)

Radiation to nearby surfaces

59.

Which scenario primarily uses convection to cool the body?

a)

Fan moving air across skin

b)

Sweat turning into vapor

c)

Skin touching a cool sheet

d)

Heat emitted to surroundings

60.

During vigorous exercise, which mechanism provides rapid cooling when sweat is present?

a)

Conduction through clothing layers

b)

Convection from warm air rising

c)

Evaporation from skin surface

d)

Radiation from body to room

61.

In the pot diagram, which label indicates heat transfer through direct molecular contact?

a)

4 Evaporation above the pot

b)

1 Conduction at the handle

c)

2 Convection in the liquid

d)

3 Radiation from the flame

62.

In the pot diagram, swirling arrows within the water represent which process?

a)

Conduction through the pot wall

b)

Convection forming circulation

c)

Radiation from hot surfaces

d)

Evaporation into the air

63.

Which nursing action would most increase evaporative cooling for an overheated patient?

a)

Raise ambient room temperature

b)

Mist skin and use a fan

c)

Apply cool packs under arms

d)

Provide a dry blanket overlay

64.

Which endocrine factor raises basal metabolic rate, increasing heat production?

a)

Insulin released after meals

b)

Thyroxine from the thyroid

c)

Aldosterone from adrenal cortex

d)

Cortisol during stress

65.

A febrile patient is placed near a window with cool circulating air but remains covered with a dry sheet. Which dominant cooling pathway is engaged?

a)

Conduction through the sheet

b)

Evaporation from moist skin

c)

Radiation to the window glass

d)

Convection from air currents

66.

Which statement correctly contrasts conduction and radiation in clinical thermoregulation?

a)

Only conduction requires direct bodily contact

b)

Both require moving air currents around skin

c)

Both rely on moisture presence on the skin

d)

Only radiation occurs through sweat evaporation

67.

Which factor most directly raises body temperature during prolonged effort?

a)

Brief meditation with deep breathing

b)

Passive rest in a cool room

c)

Strenuous activity with sustained exertion

d)

Light stretching over short duration

68.

A patient shows elevated temperature after an episode of anger. Which mechanism best explains this change?

a)

Strong emotions block heat production pathways

b)

Strong emotions increase metabolic activity

c)

Strong emotions reduce thyroid hormone release

d)

Strong emotions cause rapid fluid replacement

69.

During hot, humid weather, which nursing action best prevents temperature rise in a dehydrated patient?

a)

Encourage high fat or carbohydrate snacks

b)

Limit fluids to avoid edema risk

c)

Apply additional blankets for warmth

d)

Increase fluid intake for adequate hydration

70.

Which physiological effect is most directly responsible for reducing swelling when a cold pack is applied?

a)

Increased metabolic heat production

b)

Enhanced lymphatic pumping systemically

c)

Arteriolar vasoconstriction at the site

d)

Capillary vasodilation in local tissues

71.

A primary purpose of a cold pack is to reduce pain. Which mechanism best explains this effect?

a)

Accelerated nerve conduction velocity

b)

Reduced inflammatory mediator activity

c)

Expansion of superficial blood vessels

d)

Increased local tissue metabolism

72.

Which outcome is expected within minutes of proper cold pack application to a sprained ankle?

a)

Lower local body temperature

b)

Warmer skin with pink flushing

c)

Rapid increase in perfusion

d)

Visible capillary recruitment

73.

During cold therapy, which early adverse skin change warrants prompt reassessment?

a)

Even, mild erythema throughout

b)

Bluish or purplish discoloration

c)

Slight coolness on palpation

d)

Transient pallor after removal

74.

For patients with diabetic neuropathy, what adjustment is most critical when using a cold pack?

a)

Inspect the skin more frequently

b)

Apply directly without a barrier

c)

Extend application beyond 45 minutes

d)

Increase pack temperature slightly

75.

How often should the patient’s skin be inspected during cold pack application?

a)

Every 20 to 25 minutes

b)

Only before and after

c)

Every 5 to 10 minutes

d)

Every 1 to 2 minutes

76.

What is the maximum recommended continuous duration for a single cold pack application?

a)

Ten minutes per session

b)

Thirty minutes per session

c)

Twenty minutes per session

d)

Sixty minutes per session

77.

A patient reports numbness and burning under a cold pack. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

a)

Increase compression around site

b)

Remove the pack immediately

c)

Rewarm area with hot pack

d)

Document and continue therapy

78.

Which sequence best reflects safe initiation of cold therapy?

a)

Apply pack, ask about pain, then inspect

b)

Verify indication, assess skin baseline, then apply

c)

Warm the area, apply pack, then elevate

d)

Apply pack, set timer for one hour, then leave

79.

Prolonged cold exposure most likely leads to which complication?

a)

Tissue injury from impaired circulation

b)

Stable skin color without changes

c)

Improved microcirculatory perfusion

d)

Enhanced tissue oxygen delivery

80.

Which finding during cold therapy suggests developing cold-induced injury?

a)

Uniform blanching that resolves quickly

b)

Mottling with patchy discoloration

c)

Mild, tolerable cool sensation

d)

Slight decrease in edema size

81.

To ensure appropriateness before applying a cold pack, what must be verified first?

a)

Presence of a companion at bedside

b)

Availability of warmed blankets nearby

c)

Clinical indication and baseline skin status

d)

Patient’s current medication list

82.

Which statement best differentiates vasoconstriction from inflammation reduction during cold therapy?

a)

Vasoconstriction narrows vessels; inflammation reduction limits mediators

b)

Vasoconstriction increases heat; inflammation reduction widens vessels

c)

Vasoconstriction expands capillaries; inflammation reduction raises swelling

d)

Vasoconstriction boosts metabolism; inflammation reduction speeds perfusion

83.

What instruction should be given to a patient during cold pack therapy regarding discomfort?

a)

Continue despite tingling sensation

b)

Report burning or pain immediately

c)

Ignore numbness unless severe

d)

Expect cyanosis to be normal

84.

Which practice helps prevent cold-induced tissue damage while maintaining therapeutic benefit?

a)

Continuous application for sixty minutes

b)

Periodic skin checks and strict time limits

c)

Direct application over compromised skin

d)

Avoiding reassessment after removal

85.

What is the maximum recommended duration for a single cold pack application to minimize tissue injury risk?

a)

Twenty minutes per application

b)

Forty minutes per application

c)

Ten minutes per application

d)

Thirty minutes per application

86.

A patient using a cold pack reports numbness and burning at the site. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

a)

Add insulation and extend application

b)

Continue therapy and reassess later

c)

Loosen the pack and observe longer

d)

Remove the pack and discontinue therapy

87.

Which clinical sign during cold therapy suggests impaired perfusion that warrants stopping the treatment?

a)

Mild erythema only

b)

Slight tingling sensation

c)

Warm, pink skin tone

d)

Cyanosis or blanching

88.

Why should the skin be reassessed promptly after 30 minutes of cold pack use?

a)

To avoid dehydration risk

b)

To improve medication absorption

c)

To maintain patient comfort

d)

To check for circulation impairment

89.

After completing cold therapy, which outcomes should be evaluated to determine effectiveness?

a)

Increase in local redness

b)

Presence of persistent numbness

c)

Greater sensitivity to touch

d)

Reduction in pain or swelling

90.

Which action supports continuity of care following cold pack treatment?

a)

Document findings and report

b)

Discard the cold pack immediately

c)

Ask family to monitor at home

d)

Schedule another 60-minute session

91.

During cold pack application, when should staff nurse assistance be sought?

a)

Whenever the patient falls asleep

b)

Only at the final documentation

c)

If concerns or adverse signs arise

d)

When the pack feels slightly warm

92.

Which practice best prevents cold-induced tissue damage during therapy?

a)

Immediate removal when discomfort occurs

b)

Extending application past thirty minutes

c)

Ignoring blanching unless painful

d)

Applying directly on compromised skin

93.

What does the term tepid most accurately mean in clinical practice?

a)

Room-temperature dry air cooling

b)

Warm water around 40–45°C

c)

Lukewarm water around 30–35°C

d)

Cool water around 20–25°C

94.

Which primary mechanism lowers body temperature during tepid sponging?

a)

Radiation from skin to air

b)

Evaporative cooling from moist skin

c)

Metabolic heat suppression

d)

Vasoconstriction of dermal vessels

95.

Which combination best explains how tepid sponging decreases fever?

a)

Osmosis and filtration

b)

Radiation and photosynthesis

c)

Evaporation and convection

d)

Conduction and fermentation

96.

A 2‑year‑old with 39.8°C fever has a history of febrile seizures. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

a)

Use ice water for rapid cooling

b)

Begin tepid sponging with lukewarm water

c)

Delay all cooling until seizure stops

d)

Apply warming blankets to prevent chills

97.

Which patient group is at higher risk for complications from high fever requiring tepid sponging as adjunct to antipyretics?

a)

Healthy adolescents with mild fever

b)

Infants and toddlers with hyperthermia

c)

Older adults with hypothermia

d)

Athletes with normal temperature

98.

During tepid sponging, which error most likely reduces cooling effectiveness?

a)

Covering the patient tightly with thick blankets

b)

Wiping with lukewarm water over large surfaces

c)

Keeping skin moist to promote evaporation

d)

Allowing air circulation across damp skin

99.

A patient presents with heatstroke after outdoor exertion. Where does tepid sponging fit into management?

a)

Only used after antipyretic medications

b)

Primary therapy replacing all cooling

c)

Adjunct cooling measure among others

d)

Contraindicated due to dehydration

100.

Which statement best differentiates hyperthermia from heatstroke in nursing assessment?

a)

Both are identical conditions requiring ice baths

b)

Hyperthermia is infection‑related; heatstroke is exertional

c)

Hyperthermia is colder skin; heatstroke is warm skin

d)

Heatstroke includes systemic failure risk and CNS injury

101.

Which rationale supports choosing lukewarm rather than cold water for tepid sponging?

a)

Cold water increases vasodilation and heat loss

b)

Cold water risks shivering and reduced cooling

c)

Lukewarm water prevents evaporation entirely

d)

Warm water causes rapid metabolic shutdown

102.

Which sequence outlines a simple procedure for effective tepid sponging?

a)

Keep patient dry, increase room heat, reduce convection

b)

Apply lukewarm water, expose skin, allow airflow

c)

Use hot packs, cover tightly, limit evaporation

d)

Apply ice water, massage vigorously, restrict air

103.

Which water temperature is appropriate for tepid sponging to avoid inducing shivering?

a)

Hot water above bathing temperature

b)

Tepid water around lukewarm temperature

c)

Cold water near 10 degrees Celsius

d)

Room-temperature dry cloth only

104.

During tepid sponging, which action should be taken if the patient begins to shiver?

a)

Reduce water volume but continue

b)

Continue and increase sponging speed

c)

Stop the procedure immediately

d)

Apply hot packs to the abdomen

105.

Where should wet flannels be placed to enhance heat loss during tepid sponging?

a)

Over forehead and cheeks

b)

On axillae and groin areas

c)

Across knees and elbows

d)

Along the spine and neck

106.

What is the recommended duration for tepid sponging when used for fever management?

a)

Until the skin becomes dry

b)

45 to 60 minutes continuously

c)

5 to 10 minutes only

d)

15 to 30 minutes or until effective

107.

Which anatomical areas are specifically sponged in strokes leaving small drops of water on the skin?

a)

Neck, wrists, ankles, ears

b)

Abdomen, chest, palms, soles

c)

Face, scalp, hands, feet only

d)

Upper arms, trunk, lower limbs, back

108.

Why is cold water discouraged for tepid sponging in febrile patients?

a)

It increases skin dryness and cracking

b)

It causes immediate hypotension always

c)

It prevents evaporation from occurring

d)

It adds discomfort and triggers shivering

109.

Which nursing responsibility helps maintain effective heat transfer during the procedure?

a)

Apply ice directly to major arteries

b)

Cover the patient fully with blankets

c)

Change the wet flannel frequently to keep tepid

d)

Massage muscles vigorously for circulation

110.

After completing tepid sponging, what should be done to assess the patient’s status?

a)

Schedule laboratory tests immediately

b)

Recheck vital signs for changes

c)

Record intake of oral fluids only

d)

Ask about sleep quality later

111.

Which rationale best explains leaving small drops of water on the skin during strokes?

a)

Improves absorption through the dermis

b)

Prevents vasoconstriction of vessels

c)

Encourages evaporation for cooling

d)

Promotes convection by air movement

112.

A patient with high fever is restless but not shivering. Plan the initial approach.

a)

Delay sponging until antipyretics act

b)

Place dry towels over axillae and groin

c)

Begin tepid sponging and monitor closely

d)

Start with cold water for faster cooling