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Types of Leadership and Emotional Intelligence

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Authoritarian/autocratic leader:

a)
An individual who is flexible and adapts to group input.
b)
An individual who is task-oriented and who prefers to make decisions independently.
c)
A leader who focuses on team collaboration and shared decision-making.
d)
A person who prioritizes emotional intelligence over task completion.
2.

Democratic/participative leader-

a)
A leader who focuses solely on individual performance.
b)
A leader who makes decisions without consulting others.
c)
A leader who avoids collaboration and teamwork.
d)
A leader who encourages participation and collaboration in decision-making.
3.

Emotional intelligence - 

a)
The ability to perceive and express your emotions.
b)
The talent for controlling your reactions.
c)
The capacity to analyze others' emotions.
d)
The skill to ignore your feelings.
4.

Formal leader - 

a)
A formal leader is an individual with a title and job description that denotes leadership.
b)
A formal leader is a person recognized for their informal influence and guidance.
c)
A formal leader is an individual who has no specific role in leadership.
d)
A formal leader is someone who leads without a title or job description.
5.

Informal leader - 

a)
A person with a formal title who leads based on authority.
b)
An individual who does not have a title but is looked to for leadership based on experience and wisdom.
c)
An individual who is recognized for their popularity and charisma.
d)
A leader who is appointed and has official responsibilities.
6.

Leadership - 

a)
The ability to establish vision and goals, and to influence others to meet the goals.
b)
The talent to define strategies and discourage collaboration among peers.
c)
The capacity to set objectives and direct others towards failure.
d)
The skill to create plans and motivate teams to achieve success.
7.

 The ability to plan, organize, and manage the resources of an organization  

a)
Coordination
b)
Leadership
c)
Management
d)
Supervision
8.

An individual who seeks and values input from others but who chooses to make the final decision  

a)
Multicratic leader
b)
Laissez-faire leader
c)
Autocratic leader
d)
Democratic leader
9.

Permissive/laissez-faire leader -

a)
A permissive/laissez-faire leader avoids leadership responsibilities, leaving employees without direction.
b)
A permissive/laissez-faire leader provides strict guidelines for employees.
c)
A permissive/laissez-faire leader actively supervises all tasks closely.
d)
A permissive/laissez-faire leader encourages constant oversight and control.
10.

Servant leader- 

a)

prioritizes company profits

b)

places a priority on leaders by providing opportunities and resources that assist employees to reach their own goals  

c)

places a priority on staff by providing opportunities and resources that assist employees to reach their own goals  

d)

emphasizes strict hierarchy.

11.

An individual who understands the importance of interpersonal relationships and who encourages the empowerment of others  

a)
Transformational leader
b)
Laissez-faire leader
c)
Autocratic leader
d)
Transactional leader
12.

Active listening - 

a)

is a type of listening that focuses attention on the speaker and on observing nonverbal cues.

b)

ignores the speaker and focuses on distractions.

c)

involves only hearing parts of the conversation.

d)

evaluates the speaker's arguments without engagement.

13.

Aggressive communication 

a)
Aggressive communication is an inappropriate method of communication that violates the rights of others.
b)
Aggressive communication promotes understanding and cooperation.
c)
Aggressive communication is a respectful way to express feelings.
d)
Aggressive communication encourages open and honest dialogue.
14.

A communication style in which an individual expresses herself and protects her rights without violating the rights of another person  

a)
Passive communication
b)
Aggressive communication
c)
Manipulative communication
d)
Assertive communication
15.

 A dynamic process in which two or more people create shared meaning using verbal or nonverbal processes  

a)
Communication
b)
Expression
c)
Interaction
d)
Dialogue
16.

 Something done or said that breaks the communication process  

a)

communication block

b)
interruption
c)
miscommunication
d)
distraction
17.

A communication tool used to convey safety concerns  

a)

C.U.S.

b)

D.A.T.

c)

A.P.B.

d)

P.T.M.

18.

 A step in the communication process that assists in preventing or correcting failed communications  

a)
Clarification
b)
Interpretation
c)
Transmission
d)
Feedback
19.

A communication style that features the use of visual, auditory, and sensory clues, such as movement, spatial relationships, the appearance of a person, tone of voice, and touch  

a)
Digital communication
b)
Nonverbal communication
c)
Written communication
d)
Verbal communication
20.

Occurs when the communicator does not express his or her thoughts and feelings and leaves the interaction feeling as though personal needs have not been met  

a)

Passive communication

b)

ineffective communication

c)
Clear expression of thoughts
d)
Effective communication techniques
21.

A communication style in which an individual seems agreeable during the communication process but responds negatively afterward  

a)
Direct communication style
b)
Passive-aggressive communication style
c)
Assertive communication style
d)
Submissive communication style
22.

A communication tool that focuses on the situation, background, assessment, and recommendations  

a)
CUBE
b)
SBAR
c)
SOAP
d)
PEAR
23.

 A communication tool used to ensure that a message is heard and acknowledged by the receiver

a)
Response
b)
Acknowledgment
c)

effective communication

d)

two-challenge rule

24.

A cognitive process used to select a course of action  

a)
Choice selection
b)
Decision making
c)
Problem solving
d)
Action planning
25.

Personal value system- 

a)
A summary of past experiences and achievements.
b)

A sentence or paragraph that identifies a person’s values

c)
A collection of random thoughts and ideas.
d)
A list of personal goals and aspirations.
26.

The process of designating something more important or determining the order in which to deal with a task  

a)
Classification
b)
Prioritization
c)
Organization
d)
Assessment
27.

Power based on fear accomplished through the use of punishment or threat  

a)
Coercive power
b)
Persuasive power
c)
Manipulative power
d)
Legitimate power
28.

Power based on a high level of knowledge and experience

a)
Expert power
b)
Coercive power
c)
Referent power
d)
Authority power
29.

Power based on the amount of information an individual has access to

a)
Knowledge power
b)
Data power
c)
Information power
d)
Resource power
30.

Power based on a position or title

a)
Authority power
b)
Influence power
c)
Control power
d)

Legitimate power

31.

The ability to influence others through the use of energy and strength  

a)
Power
b)
Authority
c)
Control
d)
Influence
32.

Types of power through which power comes

a)

power tripods

b)

power bases

c)

power portals

d)

power lanes

33.

Powerlessness - 

a)
A sense of helplessness
b)
A state of confusion
c)
An overwhelming sense of joy
d)
A feeling of control
34.

A type of competition that occurs when two people want different outcomes and refuse to compromise 

a)
Conflict resolution
b)
Mutual agreement
c)
Power struggle
d)
Disagreement scenario
35.

Referent power-

a)
Referent power is based on wealth and resources.
b)
Referent power is derived from authority and control.
c)

Referent power is based on respect and admiration for the person with power.

d)
Referent power relies on fear and intimidation.
36.

Reward power- 

a)
Reward power is based on the ability to punish others.
b)
Reward power is based on the ability to reward others.
c)
Reward power relies on the capacity to control resources.
d)
Reward power is derived from the ability to influence decisions.
37.

 Self-empowerment -

a)
Self-empowerment is the development of personal strength.
b)
Self-empowerment is the absence of personal strength.
c)
Self-empowerment is the denial of personal growth.
d)
Self-empowerment is the rejection of personal power.
38.

Codependency - 

a)
Codependency is the ability to work independently without support.
b)
Codependency refers to a mutual reliance between two people.
c)
Codependency is the desire for occasional help to achieve goals.
d)
Codependency is the need for continuous assistance and support to accomplish an objective.
39.

Herzberg’s two-factor theory- 

a)
Herzberg’s theory focuses on employee satisfaction.
b)
Herzberg’s two-factor theory emphasizes financial incentives.
c)
Herzberg’s two-factor theory addresses hygienic and motivational factors.
d)
Herzberg’s model highlights only motivational factors.
40.

 Hygiene factors -  

a)
Hygiene factors include employee recognition, flexible hours, and team bonding activities.
b)
Hygiene factors are primarily about career advancement and personal development.
c)
Hygiene factors are job security, good working conditions, appropriate salary, and effective administration.
d)
Hygiene factors consist of company culture, employee benefits, and training opportunities.
41.

Lateral violence- 

a)
Lateral violence is verbal or nonverbal aggression toward colleagues.
b)
Lateral violence is a form of teamwork enhancement.
c)
Lateral violence refers to positive feedback among peers.
d)
Lateral violence is a method of conflict resolution.
42.

A management theory that supports the understanding that people dislike work, lack ambition, and need continual direction  

a)

McGregor’s Theory W

b)

McGregor’s Theory Z

c)

McGregor’s Theory Y

d)

McGregor’s Theory X

43.

A management theory that supports the understanding that people like to work and can be self-disciplined  

a)

 McGregor’s Theory Z

b)

 McGregor’s Theory A

c)

 McGregor’s Theory X

d)

 McGregor’s Theory Y

44.

The general desire to do something or to behave in a certain manner 

a)
inspiration
b)
ambition
c)
determination
d)
motivation
45.

Motivation factors- 

a)
Autonomy, advancement, and recognition are key motivation factors.
b)
Training opportunities, social events, and workload management drive motivation.
c)
Work-life balance, office location, and benefits are key motivators.
d)
Teamwork, salary increases, and job security are motivation factors.
46.

Oppressed group behavior- 

a)
Actions taken by those in power.
b)
Responses from individuals in control.
c)
Conduct displayed by dominant groups.
d)
Behavior exhibited by individuals who feel powerless.
47.

Collaboration - 

a)
The capacity to work independently
b)
The skill to lead effectively
c)
The ability to work together
d)
The talent for managing conflicts
48.

The first stage in team development during which members get to know each other

a)
Storming
b)
Norming
c)
Forming
d)
Adjourning
49.

Norming -

a)
Norming is the third stage in team development where team norms are identified.
b)
Norming is the second stage in team development focused on conflict resolution.
c)
Norming is the first stage in team development where roles are assigned.
d)
Norming is the fourth stage in team development that emphasizes performance evaluation.
50.

The fourth stage in team development during which the team is most productive and is able to successfully meet goals  

a)
Performing
b)
Norming
c)
Storming
d)
Forming
51.

Principled leadership -

a)
Principled leadership is the maintenance of high standards for personal and professional conduct.
b)
Principled leadership focuses solely on team performance metrics.
c)
Principled leadership is about achieving personal success at any cost.
d)
Principled leadership involves strict adherence to financial regulations.
52.

An environment that provides support to teams by providing needed resources as well as quality assurance checks to ensure goals are met  

a)
Goal-oriented framework
b)
Team-centric environment
c)
Resource-limited structure
d)
Results-driven structure
53.

 The second stage in team development during which members work out differences in thoughts and ideas  

a)
Storming
b)
Forming
c)
Norming
d)
Adjourning
54.

 Individuals brought together to achieve a common goal  

a)
Team
b)
Squad
c)
Group
d)
Crew
55.

The process of identifying the severity of a patient’s illness and the level of services she or he will need from nursing personnel  

a)
Health diagnosis
b)
Patient evaluation
c)
Care planning
d)

Acuity system

56.

Coaching- 

a)
Coaching involves assessing others' skills without providing guidance.
b)
Coaching is primarily about evaluating performance metrics.
c)
Coaching focuses on personal achievements rather than skill development.
d)
Coaching is the process of helping others develop or improve their skills, tasks, or behaviors.
57.

Delegation- 

a)
Delegation means transferring authority without retaining any accountability.
b)
Delegation is the transfer of responsibility for a task while retaining accountability for its outcome.
c)
Delegation involves assigning tasks without accountability for results.
d)
Delegation is the act of sharing tasks without any responsibility.
58.

A method used to judge or calculate the quality, importance, amount, or value of something  

a)
Review
b)
Evaluation
c)
Analysis
d)
Assessment
59.

The act of considering employees’ behaviors, personalities and skills, and how the differences in these among employees can have a positive effect on patient outcomes  

a)
Team collaboration
b)
Employee engagement
c)
Workplace harmony
d)

Inclusion

60.

A comprehensive evaluation that promotes communication, provides useful feedback about job performance, facilitates better working relationships, provides a historical record of performance, and promotes goal setting for workplace satisfaction  

a)
Workplace feedback session
b)

Performance analysis

c)
Job performance review
d)
Employee evaluation
61.

Real or perceived differences between individuals with differing values, ideas, or goals  

a)
Compromise
b)
Collaboration
c)
Conflict
d)
Agreement
62.

A method for resolving conflict in a way that promotes conflict resolution and optimal solutions for all parties  

a)
Competitive negotiation
b)

Conflict management

c)
Adversarial tactics
d)
Avoidance strategies
63.

The process by which two or more parties engage in a disagreement, dispute, or debate to reach an agreed-on consensus  

a)
Mediation
b)
Arbitration
c)
Facilitation
d)

Conflict resolution

64.

Behavior by which an individual keeps others at a distance 

a)
Emotional detachment
b)
Social withdrawal
c)
Isolation tactic
d)

Distancing

65.

A process by which two or more persons from differing professional backgrounds work together with patients and families to improve health outcomes and deliver the highest quality of patient care  

a)
Collaborative health planning
b)
Patient-centered care
c)
Multidisciplinary teamwork
d)
Interprofessional collaboration
66.

A type of health care that recognizes the patient or designee as a partner in providing care based on the patient’s individual needs  

a)
Community-based care
b)
Family-oriented care
c)
Disease-focused care
d)
Patient-centered care
67.

Incivility in the workplace that leaves a person feeling harmed by the experience  

a)
Workplace hostility
b)
Office rudeness
c)
Workplace disrespect
d)

Workplace violence

68.

The movement away from order  

a)
Chaos
b)
Stability
c)
Structure
d)
Order
69.

A period of time during which the focus was on the parts rather than the whole, with a strong sense of organization  

a)
Holism
b)

Newtonian age (scientific age) 

c)
Fragmentation
d)
Integration
70.

 A period of time starting with the beginning of the 20th century during which people began looking at entire experiences, relationships, and processes rather than focusing only on parts of each experience, relationship, or process 

a)
Component evaluation
b)
Fragmented thinking
c)
Holistic analysis
d)

Quantum mechanics (new science)- 

71.

strange attractor-

a)
A method of chaotic behavior.
b)
A type of mathematical model.
c)
An example of random motion.
d)
The phenomenon of natural organization.
72.

Change- 

a)
The power to modify the sequence of occurrences.
b)
The opportunity to alter the flow of events in any situation.
c)
The ability to change the course of actions.
d)
The chance to influence the outcome of events.
73.

 An individual who acts as a catalyst for change, through a methodical process, including identifying needs, planning, implementing, and evaluating its effectiveness  

a)
Change agent
b)
Change manager
c)
Change facilitator
d)
Change strategist
74.

Also known as accidental change, this is an unplanned change that occurs because of an imbalance in the system  

a)
Intentional alteration
b)

Change by drift

c)
Systematic modification
d)
Planned adjustment
75.

The concept that the practice of nursing should be based on firm data and patient/family preferences rather than anecdote, tradition, intuition, or belief  

a)

Evidence-based practice

b)
Patient-centered care model
c)
Traditional nursing practices
d)
Intuitive decision-making in healthcare
76.

A well-thought-out and deliberate effort to make a change  

a)
tactical plan
b)
operational strategy
c)
project proposal
d)

planned change

77.

A significant process of change that revolves around human experience and can be developmental, situational, or organizational  

a)

Strategy

b)

Analysis

c)

Implementation

d)

Transition

78.

Bioethics -  

a)
Bioethics is the moral inquiry into issues raised by advances in medicine and life sciences.
b)
Bioethics examines historical practices in medicine and life sciences.
c)
Bioethics focuses solely on legal issues in healthcare.
d)
Bioethics is the study of economic impacts of medical advancements.
79.

An ethical theory about decision making that is based on duty or responsibility  

a)
Deontology
b)
Utilitarianism
c)
Virtue Ethics
d)
Moral Relativism
80.

Laws written and passed by a formal law-making body, such as state and national legislatures  

a)

Enacted laws

b)
Bylaws
c)
Ordinances
d)
Regulations
81.

General guides for actions that provide a common ground for decision making, which includes autonomy, beneficence, nonmaleficence, justice, fidelity, and veracity  

a)
Ethical principles for decision making
b)
Legal standards for conduct
c)
Moral guidelines for behavior
d)
Social norms for interaction
82.

Ethical reasoning-

a)
Ethical reasoning excludes any form of political influence or beliefs.
b)
Ethical reasoning involves only personal opinions and feelings.
c)
Ethical reasoning is based solely on legal standards and regulations.
d)
Ethical reasoning is the use of values, morals, and political beliefs to guide ethical decision making.
83.

Rules and regulations set by a governing body that include statutory law and common law  

a)

 Regulatory laws

b)
Legal Guidelines
c)
Regulatory Standards
d)
Judicial Principles
84.

An ethical theory that is based on decision making that provides the greatest benefit for the greatest number of individuals

a)
Deontology
b)
Utilitarianism
c)
Egoism
d)
Virtue Ethics
85.

Infections acquired in health-care settings while seeking care for other conditions  

a)
Surgical site infections
b)
Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)
c)
Preventable hospital infections
d)
Community-acquired infections
86.

A nurse who uses abuses alcohol or medications, causing harm to patients  

a)
distracted nurse
b)
overworked nurse
c)
untrained nurse
d)
impaired nurse
87.

An approach to health care with the focus on diagnosing and curing disease  

a)
Holistic model
b)

Medical model

c)
Preventive care
d)
Patient-centered approach
88.

Nursing model- 

a)
An approach to health care focusing on human responses to disease.
b)
An approach to health care emphasizing medical technology advancements.
c)
A strategy for managing hospital resources effectively.
d)
A method for treating physical injuries in patients.
89.

A national initiative to prepare nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes needed to provide safe, quality care to their patients  

a)
National healthcare training program.
b)
State nursing certification project.
c)
Local nursing skills development plan.
d)

 Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) 

90.

Caritas- 

a)
Caritas refers to a type of charity.
b)
Caritas signifies compassion for the needy.
c)
Caritas is a Greek term for friendship.
d)
Caritas means love or caring for all.
91.

Transpersonal caring, in which the nurse respects the whole person and his or her existence in the world?  

a)

 High-touch nursing care 

b)
Empathetic communication
c)
Patient-centered care
d)
Holistic nursing
92.

Holistic nursing-

a)
Holistic nursing focuses solely on physical health.
b)
Holistic nursing ignores emotional well-being.
c)
Holistic nursing is only about treating diseases.
d)
Holistic nursing is about caring for the whole person.
93.

Paradigm -  

a)
A framework for understanding concepts
b)
A set of rules or guidelines
c)
A pattern, model, or example of something
d)
An abstract idea or theory
94.

 Human-to-human caring; for example, the patient and the nurse or the patient, nurse, and family with an acceptance of the uniqueness of the other person(s) ?

a)

Transpersonal caring

b)
Patient-centered approach
c)
Standardized care
d)
Compassionate treatment
95.

Ageism- 

a)
Ageism is the celebration of youth culture exclusively.
b)
Ageism is discrimination based on age, especially against older adults.
c)
Ageism is a form of respect for older adults.
d)
Ageism refers to favoritism towards younger individuals.
96.

Caring intentionality-   

a)
The responsibilities of the nurse in managing patient records.
b)
The methods of the nurse in delivering routine treatment.
c)
The goals of the nurse in providing general care.
d)
The intentions of the nurse in giving personalized care.
97.

The ability to use gathered clinical information to address specific patient needs  

a)
Clinical evaluation
b)
Patient assessment
c)

Clinical judgement

d)
Health diagnostics
98.

A way of thinking that addresses the processes used by nurses to make clinical judgements 

a)
Nursing evaluation
b)
Patient analysis
c)
Clinical assessment
d)
Clinical reasoning
99.

The ability to interpret an argument, evidence, or raw information in a logical and unbiased fashion

a)
Emotional intelligence
b)
Logical reasoning
c)
Critical thinking
d)
Data analysis
100.

An arrangement or classification of things according to their relative importance  

a)
Arrangement
b)
Hierarchy
c)
Organization
d)
Classification
101.

A review board that serves to protect patients from inappropriate research  

a)
Clinical Oversight Board
b)
Institutional Review Board (IRB)
c)
Patient Safety Council
d)
Research Ethics Committee
102.

 A situation in which the nurse serves as a guide to assist the patient in achieving the level of health the patient desires 

a)
Disease management
b)
Symptom relief
c)
Health education
d)

Patient advocacy

103.

An ally, supporter, and source of information for the patient and the patient’s significant others 

a)

Advocate

b)
Social Worker
c)
Patient Advocate
d)
Nurse
104.

A health-care professional who provides direct patient care, such as personal care, administers medications, provides dressing changes, assists with ambulation, and gathers vital signs  

a)
Physician
b)
Pharmacist
c)
Physical Therapist
d)

Clinician

105.

A professionally trained individual who helps patients and their families explore their feelings and attitudes about wellness and illness  

a)
wellness advisor
b)
medical therapist
c)
healthcare counselor
d)
patient advocate
106.

An individual who teaches the patient or family about health-care–related matters such as medications, wound care, and patient safety  

a)
Medical assistant
b)
Patient advocate
c)
Pharmacy technician
d)
Health educator or nurse
107.

An individual, such as a team leader, unit manager, or charge nurse, who supervises other health-care team members 

a)
Coordinator
b)
Administrator
c)

Manager

d)
Facilitator
108.

Services that emphasize health promotion and the prevention of illness and disability  

a)

Primary healthcare

b)
Emergency health services
c)
Rehabilitative health services
d)
Curative health services
109.

Services that emphasize the detection and early treatment of illness in order to prevent or minimize serious illness and disability 

a)
Diagnostic services
b)

Secondary healthcare

c)
Curative services
d)
Rehabilitative services
110.

Services that provide restorative and rehabilitative care for people with chronic or irreversible conditions  

a)
therapy programs
b)
supportive care
c)

tertiary healthcare

d)
long-term nursing
111.

An educational process used to complete further education without duplication of content  

a)
Content duplication
b)
Course repetition
c)

Career ladder learning

d)
Program overlap
112.

-Additional short-term training or education used to enhance current knowledge or skills  

a)
Job training
b)
Skill enhancement
c)

Certifications

d)
Career advancement
113.

Knowledge experienced nurses learn while practicing nursing  

a)

“Knowing how” information

b)
Medication administration and charting.
c)
Basic hygiene and patient comfort.
d)
Emotional support and patient education.
114.

Basic foundational knowledge used by novice nurses?  

a)

"Knowing why" information

b)

"Knowing that" information

c)

"Knowing who" information

d)

"Knowing how" information

115.

An experienced individual who provides coaching and support to others  

a)
guide
b)
trainer
c)
consultant
d)
mentor
116.

A process used to develop contacts and exchange information to further one’s career  

a)
Networking
b)
Career planning
c)
Job hunting
d)
Socializing
117.

A law that defines nursing practice and that varies by state 

a)
Nursing Standards Code
b)
Healthcare Regulation Act
c)
Patient Care Guidelines
d)
Nurse Practice Act