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Visual Acuity Disorders: Pathophysiology

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which refractive error results when the eye focuses parallel light rays anterior to the retina due to a relatively long eyeball or excessive corneal curvature?

a)

Hyperopia with short axial length

b)

Myopia with elongated axial length

c)

Astigmatism with irregular meridians

d)

Presbyopia from lens stiffness

2.

Fill in the blank: Age-related loss of accommodation caused by decreased lens elasticity is called (a)   .

3.

A patient reports blurred vision at distance but clear near vision. Which nursing action best aligns with the likely pathophysiology?

a)

Suggest convex lenses to shift focus posteriorly

b)

Suggest concave lenses to shift focus posteriorly

c)

Recommend cylindrical lenses to align multiple foci

d)

Recommend reading glasses to increase accommodation

4.

In astigmatism, light rays do not converge to a single focal point. Which optical correction principle addresses this?

a)

Spherical lens to uniformly bend rays

b)

Cylindrical lens to correct specific meridians

c)

Prismatic lens to displace image laterally

d)

Convex lens to increase lens power globally

5.

A 48-year-old nurse notices difficulty focusing on near tasks at the end of shifts. Using evidence from refractive physiology, which plan most appropriately addresses this change?

a)

Concave lenses for reduced near power

b)

Convex add for near accommodation support

c)

Cylindrical lenses to equalize corneal curves

d)

No correction because symptoms are transient

6.

Which option is a non-surgical method to maximize sight in visual acuity disorders?

a)

Corrective lenses used daily

b)

Radial keratectomy incisions

c)

LASIK corneal reshaping

d)

Conductive keratoplasty

7.

Orthokeratology primarily involves wearing specially designed rigid lenses overnight to temporarily reshape the cornea. Identify its management category.

a)

Medical management approach

b)

Surgical management approach

c)

Pharmacologic management approach

d)

Rehabilitative management approach

8.

Which procedure uses a laser to create a corneal flap and reshape stromal tissue for refractive correction?

a)

Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis

b)

Radial keratectomy incisions

c)

Laser thermal keratoplasty

d)

Conductive keratoplasty

9.

Name the procedure that places radial incisions in the cornea to alter its curvature.

(a)  

10.

A patient prefers noninvasive correction without surgery and without overnight lens wear. Which option fits best?

a)

Corrective lenses spectacles

b)

Orthokeratology overnight

c)

LASIK surgical reshaping

d)

Conductive keratoplasty

11.

Which two listed options are classified under surgical management rather than medical management?

a)

LASIK and keratoplasty

b)

Orthokeratology and LASIK

c)

Corrective lenses and LASIK

d)

Orthokeratology and keratoplasty

12.

Conductive keratoplasty modifies corneal curvature using radiofrequency energy rather than excimer laser. Which similar-sounding laser-based option is different in energy type?

a)

Laser thermal keratoplasty

b)

Radial keratectomy method

c)

Orthokeratology technique

d)

Corrective lenses method

13.

Which nursing action most directly supports safe use of corrective lenses for a patient with decreased visual acuity?

a)

Confirm correct lens fit and hygiene

b)

Schedule annual dilated eye exams

c)

Encourage breaks during near work

d)

Assess for color vision deficiencies

14.

A patient with myopia asks how to reduce eyestrain at home. What practical environmental adjustment should you recommend?

a)

Use adequate, evenly distributed lighting

b)

Increase screen refresh rate only

c)

Wear sunglasses indoors routinely

d)

Close one eye to improve focus

15.

Fill in the blank: Patients who perform high‑risk tasks should be taught the importance of wearing (a)   lenses to prevent ocular injury.

16.

Which patient report requires prompt follow‑up because it may indicate changes in visual acuity?

a)

New visual changes or chronic headaches

b)

Occasional tearing after wind exposure

c)

Mild dryness relieved with blinking

d)

Temporary blurriness after waking

17.

After cataract surgery, which teaching point is most appropriate to reduce complications?

a)

Avoid eye rubbing and follow drop regimen

b)

Use cosmetic lenses for appearance

c)

Resume contact sports immediately

d)

Sleep exclusively on operative side

18.

Which outcome best reflects effective nursing management for visual acuity disorders?

a)

Maintained optimal functional vision

b)

Stable intraocular pressure only

c)

Absence of conjunctival redness

d)

Reduced need for reading glasses

19.

A patient frequently forgets to wear safety glasses at work. What strategy could help improve adherence?

a)

Link eyewear to task start routines

b)

Increase prescription strength

c)

Switch exclusively to contact lenses

d)

Recommend blue‑light filtering only

20.

You are planning care for a client with new corrective lenses. Which combination of interventions aligns with best practice?

a)

Verify proper lens wear and ensure adequate lighting

b)

Encourage eye patching and dim room lighting

c)

Limit reading and avoid outdoor activities

d)

Teach to ignore mild headaches at first

21.

Which statement best defines the pathophysiology of a corneal abrasion?

a)

Inflammation of retina by autoimmune attack

b)

Disruption of corneal epithelium from trauma

c)

Bacterial ulceration of the scleral tissue

d)

Detachment of lens due to aging changes

22.

Select the most common etiologic categories causing corneal abrasion.

a)

Metabolic deficiency and viral load

b)

Physical trauma and chemical trauma

c)

Autoimmune vasculitis and glaucoma

d)

Nutritional deficit and dehydration

23.

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of corneal abrasion-related photophobia?

a)

Bright light improves visual acuity

b)

Light exposure triggers eye discomfort

c)

Dark rooms provoke ocular itching

d)

Colored lights enhance tear production

24.

A patient with corneal abrasion reports tearing, squinting, and blurred vision. These symptoms most likely result from what mechanism?

a)

Iris dilation causing dry eye surface

b)

Corneal nerve irritation leading spasm

c)

Retinal swelling reducing acuity

d)

Lacrimal gland obstruction by mucus

25.

Fill in the blank: Patients with corneal abrasion often describe a sensation of (a)   in the eye.

26.

You are triaging a worker exposed to cleaning chemicals who now has eye pain and photophobia. Which initial concern aligns with corneal abrasion pathophysiology?

a)

Chemical trauma disrupting corneal surface

b)

Neural pathway injury in the optic tract

c)

Retinal detachment after pressure changes

d)

Lens opacity from protein aggregation

27.

Which intervention is a common medical management step for a simple corneal abrasion to reduce infection risk and discomfort?

a)

Lubricating eye drops with antibiotic

b)

Continuous warm compress application

c)

Daily systemic corticosteroid tablets

d)

Oral antihistamines for pruritus

28.

Identify the purpose of eye patching in corneal abrasion care.

a)

Reduce corneal movement and promote healing

b)

Prevent systemic spread of infection

c)

Dilate the pupil for better examination

d)

Increase tear production through stimulation

29.

Fill in the blank: For traumatic corneal abrasions, nurses should verify the patient’s (a)   status as part of initial management.

30.

Which discharge instruction best minimizes further corneal irritation during recovery?

a)

Avoid rubbing or touching the affected eye

b)

Use contact lenses to protect the cornea

c)

Limit blinking to reduce ocular strain

d)

Apply makeup to conceal redness

31.

A patient has persistent pain and suspected deeper injury after a corneal abrasion. Which step is most appropriate next?

a)

Surgical exploration of the ocular surface

b)

Increase frequency of artificial tears

c)

Begin over-the-counter oral antibiotics

d)

Discontinue eye patching immediately

32.

During repair of a corneal laceration, what is the role of suture placement?

a)

Approximate corneal tissue for healing

b)

Enhance aqueous humor production

c)

Prevent pupil constriction during light

d)

Stabilize eyelid to reduce blinking

33.

Plan the sequence for managing an uncomplicated corneal abrasion presenting to urgent care. Choose the best initial set of actions.

a)

Assess, apply eye drops, consider patching, review tetanus, give discharge instructions

b)

Schedule elective surgery, start oral steroids, remove eyelashes, apply cold packs

c)

Immediate suturing, restrict fluids, start anticoagulants, advise bed rest

d)

Order MRI, initiate chemotherapy, place nasal cannula, encourage coughing

34.

Which nursing action directly addresses symptom relief for a corneal abrasion?

a)

Applying comfort measures such as cool compresses

b)

Scheduling elective vision screening next month

c)

Teaching contact lens insertion techniques

d)

Encouraging increased screen time for distraction

35.

Fill in the blank: Coordinating services with ophthalmology and pharmacy for a corneal abrasion is an example of (a)   .

36.

A patient with a corneal abrasion asks why an eye shield is recommended instead of an eye patch. Which rationale best supports using an eye shield?

a)

Protects the eye from external trauma while allowing observation

b)

Applies pressure to reduce corneal edema and pain

c)

Improves vision by refracting incoming light evenly

d)

Prevents blinking to speed epithelial cell turnover

37.

You are planning care for a patient with a corneal abrasion. Which combination best aligns with evidence-based nursing interventions?

a)

Topical pharmacological therapy, comfort measures, and collaborative care

b)

Systemic steroids, strict bedrest, and dark room isolation

c)

Frequent eye irrigation with tap water every hour

d)

Warm compresses only without medications or referrals

38.

Which factor most directly contributes to cataract formation by increasing lens proteins?

a)

UV light exposure over many years

b)

Advanced age causing protein changes

c)

Family history with genetic variants

d)

Environmental toxins affecting the eye

39.

Select the single best nursing counseling point to reduce modifiable cataract risk in an outdoor worker.

a)

Wear UV-blocking sunglasses consistently

b)

Increase alcohol intake on cold days

c)

Avoid all aerobic exercise weekly

d)

Stop eating foods rich in proteins

40.

Which combination describes two nonmodifiable cataract risk factors?

a)

Advanced age and family history

b)

Smoking and elevated blood pressure

c)

Obesity and environmental exposure

d)

Alcohol use and chronic conditions

41.

A patient with obesity and poorly controlled hypertension asks about cataracts. What is the most accurate nurse response?

a)

Both conditions increase cataract risk

b)

Neither condition affects cataract risk

c)

Only obesity increases cataract risk

d)

Only hypertension increases cataract risk

42.

Which pathophysiologic change defines a cataract at the lens level?

a)

Increase in lens proteins causing clouding

b)

Decreased aqueous humor production

c)

Retinal detachment with photoreceptor loss

d)

Corneal ulceration and stromal thinning

43.

A patient smokes daily and drinks heavily on weekends. What is the priority prevention advice related to cataract risk?

a)

Reduce tobacco and alcohol use

b)

Add high-protein supplements

c)

Limit screen time at night

d)

Use artificial tears frequently

44.

Which scenario best reflects an environmental cataract risk?

a)

Long-term work near industrial pollutants

b)

Occasional indoor reading with dim lights

c)

Short vacation at a shaded beach

d)

One-time exposure to loud machinery

45.

Which symptom most specifically suggests cataracts in a patient complaining of problems with lights at night?

a)

Seeing halos around light sources while driving

b)

Complete loss of peripheral visual fields at dusk

c)

Sudden flashes of light without pain at bedtime

d)

Intermittent black curtain over vision in sunlight

46.

A patient reports colors looking less vibrant over months. Which cataract manifestation does this describe?

a)

Fading or yellowing of colors over time

b)

Acute color inversion with headaches

c)

Selective loss of blue color discrimination

d)

Color changes only when wearing sunglasses

47.

Name the bedside assessment used to quantify clarity of central vision when evaluating for cataracts.

(a)  

48.

During an eye exam, which instrument allows direct viewing of a clouded lens characteristic of cataracts?

a)

Direct ophthalmoscope used at close distance

b)

Tonometer measuring intraocular pressure

c)

Automated perimetry field analyzer

d)

Fluorescein angiography camera

49.

Which cluster of symptoms best fits a typical early presentation of cataracts?

a)

Clouded vision with glare sensitivity and halos

b)

Sudden eye pain with nausea and redness

c)

Itchy eyes with watery discharge and sneeze

d)

Central scotoma with color vision completely lost

50.

You are triaging a patient who reports double vision in one eye and difficulty driving at night. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

a)

Arrange a prompt visual acuity assessment today

b)

Advise rest and reassess vision next month

c)

Provide lubricating drops for suspected dryness

d)

Recommend immediate emergency stroke evaluation

51.

A person with cataracts often struggles most with which real‑world task under bright conditions?

a)

Driving due to glare sensitivity and halos

b)

Reading because letters appear to jump

c)

Tracking moving balls due to nystagmus

d)

Color matching because colors reverse

52.

Which finding on examination most directly supports the diagnosis of a cataract rather than a retinal disorder?

a)

Visible clouding of the crystalline lens on exam

b)

Defects in peripheral visual fields bilaterally

c)

Normal lens with hemorrhages near macula

d)

Painful eye with elevated intraocular pressure

53.

Which intervention most directly removes the cause of vision opacity in cataracts?

a)

Topical antibiotic eye drops

b)

Surgical removal of opaque lens

c)

Elevating the head of bed

d)

Applying an eye patch

54.

After cataract surgery, why is the head of bed elevated?

a)

To reduce intraocular pressure

b)

To improve corneal oxygenation

c)

To prevent lens displacement

d)

To enhance medication absorption

55.

Which nursing action primarily prevents accidental injury for a patient with temporary postoperative visual changes?

a)

Administer prescribed eye drops

b)

Implement safety measures

c)

Maintain the eye patch

d)

Provide stool softeners

56.

Select the most appropriate non-surgical correction for residual refractive error after cataract removal.

a)

Warm compress therapy

b)

Corrective lenses

c)

Oral anti-inflammatory drugs

d)

Daily eye patching

57.

A patient strains during bowel movements after cataract surgery. Which ordered measure addresses this risk?

a)

Increase fluid restriction

b)

Administer stool softeners

c)

Apply bilateral eye patches

d)

Discontinue all eye drops

58.

Fill in the blank: Postoperative care for cataract removal commonly includes maintaining an (a)   to protect the operative eye.

59.

You are planning the first 24 hours of postoperative care for a patient after cataract extraction. Which combination of actions best supports recovery?

a)

Flat bed positioning, frequent ambulation, no eye drops

b)

Elevate HOB, administer eye drops, maintain eye patch

c)

Apply cold compresses, encourage coughing, low HOB

d)

Discontinue safety measures, remove patch, high activity

60.

Which patient profile represents a major modifiable risk factor for glaucoma progression that nurses should monitor closely?

a)

Long-term corticosteroid therapy for asthma

b)

Family history in a first-degree relative

c)

Age older than sixty years

d)

Congenital myopia since childhood

61.

Fill in the blank: Elevated (a)   can lead to optic nerve damage in glaucoma.

62.

A client has normal intraocular pressure but progressive optic nerve damage. Which glaucoma type best fits this presentation?

a)

Primary open-angle glaucoma

b)

Angle-closure glaucoma

c)

Normal-tension glaucoma

d)

Secondary traumatic glaucoma

63.

Which condition increases glaucoma risk and is commonly comorbid with other endocrine disorders?

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Hyperlipidemia

d)

Peptic ulcer disease

64.

During patient education, which statement correctly describes the pathophysiology of glaucoma?

a)

Retinal detachment reduces macular perfusion

b)

Optic nerve damage from pressure impairs vision

c)

Corneal abrasion increases aqueous humor outflow

d)

Lens opacification obstructs the drainage canal

65.

Which scenario requires urgent action due to the possibility of rapidly rising intraocular pressure?

a)

Primary open-angle glaucoma symptoms slowly worsen

b)

Angle-closure glaucoma suspected with acute pain

c)

Normal-tension glaucoma found on routine exam

d)

Pediatric glaucoma monitored over several months

66.

A patient with eye injury later develops glaucoma. Which type is most consistent with this history?

a)

Secondary glaucoma

b)

Pediatric glaucoma

c)

Normal-tension glaucoma

d)

Primary open-angle glaucoma

67.

Select the most complete list of established glaucoma risk factors for an older adult.

a)

Age over sixty, diabetes, myopia

b)

Family history, hypothyroidism, peptic ulcer

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis, hyperlipidemia, astigmatism

d)

Age under forty, cataract, seasonal allergies

68.

Which visual change is most characteristic of progressive glaucoma?

a)

Sudden central vision loss with halos

b)

Gradual peripheral vision loss over time

c)

Intermittent double vision during reading

d)

Acute total blindness after eye strain

69.

A patient describes tunnel vision developing slowly. Which nursing action is the best initial priority?

a)

Teach eye patching for symptom relief

b)

Encourage rest and warm compresses

c)

Assess for glaucoma and refer promptly

d)

Advise increased screen time breaks

70.

Which medication class directly lowers aqueous humor production to reduce intraocular pressure?

a)

Topical antihistamine drops for allergies

b)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors for glaucoma

c)

Lubricating artificial tears for dryness

d)

Oral antibiotics for ocular infections

71.

Complete the statement: In glaucoma, patients often experience gradual loss of (a)   vision.

72.

You are reviewing a regimen aimed at reducing fluid and pressure in the eye. Which outcome best indicates the therapy’s mechanism?

a)

Increased aqueous humor formation daily

b)

Reduced aqueous humor volume and pressure

c)

Enhanced retinal blood flow during exercise

d)

Improved corneal thickness after treatment

73.

A client with advanced glaucoma asks what ‘tunnel vision’ means. Choose the best explanation.

a)

Seeing only central objects while edges darken

b)

Seeing bright halos around lights at night

c)

Seeing fluctuating blurriness with eye movement

d)

Seeing double images that overlap centrally

74.

Which surgical option aims to enhance aqueous humor outflow by applying laser energy to the trabecular meshwork?

a)

Laser trabeculoplasty of the meshwork

b)

Filtering surgery creating a scleral flap

c)

Drainage implant with a tube shunt

d)

Cyclodestructive ciliary body ablation

75.

Name the procedure that creates a new pathway under a scleral flap to lower intraocular pressure.

(a)  

76.

A patient has refractory glaucoma despite medications. Choose the most appropriate next-step intervention from the surgical options listed.

a)

Laser trabeculoplasty to improve outflow

b)

Punctal occlusion to retain eye drops

c)

Orbital decompression to reduce pressure

d)

Retinal photocoagulation for ischemia

77.

In a case of angle scarring where filtration surgery has failed, which device-based approach can provide an alternate outflow route?

a)

Drainage implants with tube shunt

b)

Corneal transplant for clarity

c)

Iridectomy to widen the pupil

d)

Vitrectomy to remove vitreous

78.

Which item is a modifiable risk factor for macular degeneration that nurses should target in counseling?

a)

Advancing age over sixty years

b)

Being female compared to male

c)

Elevated blood pressure levels

d)

Caucasian racial background

79.

Select the nonmodifiable risk factor most strongly associated with macular degeneration incidence.

a)

High LDL cholesterol levels

b)

Current cigarette smoking status

c)

Patient age over sixty years

d)

Obesity with high body mass index

80.

A patient asks what lifestyle change could reduce macular degeneration risk. Which recommendation is most appropriate?

a)

Change genetic family history

b)

Lower high blood pressure

c)

Alter female sex hormones

d)

Switch racial identification

81.

Fill in the blank: Decreased (a)   blood levels are listed among modifiable risk factors for macular degeneration.

82.

Which combination best represents two nonmodifiable risk factors for macular degeneration?

a)

Smoking and high cholesterol

b)

Age and family history

c)

Obesity and hypertension

d)

Zinc deficiency and smoking

83.

A 58-year-old obese smoker with high cholesterol seeks prevention advice. Which risk factor in this case is NOT modifiable?

a)

Cigarette smoking habit

b)

Elevated cholesterol level

c)

Obesity with excess adiposity

d)

Chronological age at fifty-eight

84.

A community program aims to lower macular degeneration risk. Which priority target will yield preventable impact across participants?

a)

Reduce population smoking rates

b)

Adjust racial demographic balance

c)

Decrease proportion of women

d)

Alter familial genetic patterns

85.

Which process best characterizes dry macular degeneration?

a)

Breakdown of light-sensitive macular cells

b)

Rapid retinal detachment from choroid

c)

Inflammatory edema of the optic disc

d)

Occlusion of central retinal artery

86.

In wet macular degeneration, what abnormal change occurs?

a)

Fragile vessels grow beneath the macula

b)

Corneal neovascularization obscures vision

c)

Iris hemorrhage blocks the pupil

d)

Lens opacities scatter incoming light

87.

Which symptom most directly reflects central vision disruption from macular degeneration?

a)

Straight lines appear wavy or distorted

b)

Peripheral field loss without central blur

c)

Photophobia without acuity change

d)

Night blindness with normal daytime

88.

Complete the statement: The macula primarily supports (a)   vision.

89.

A patient reports new dark, blurry spots in the center of vision and colors seem less vivid. Which condition is most consistent?

a)

Macular degeneration affecting central vision

b)

Open-angle glaucoma affecting peripheral vision

c)

Cataract causing uniform hazy vision

d)

Diabetic retinopathy sparing color perception

90.

Which finding would most suggest progression from dry to wet macular degeneration?

a)

Onset of subretinal neovascular growth

b)

Gradual drusen accumulation only

c)

Stable acuity with mild metamorphopsia

d)

Improved color discrimination over time

91.

You are screening with an Amsler grid. Which patient comment requires urgent referral for wet AMD evaluation?

a)

The central squares look missing today

b)

The outer edges seem slightly dimmer

c)

The lines look crisp and unchanged

d)

The grid appears brighter than usual

92.

Which nursing explanation correctly contrasts dry and wet macular degeneration?

a)

Dry involves photoreceptor breakdown; wet involves subretinal neovascularization

b)

Dry is acute hemorrhagic; wet is slow degenerative drusen

c)

Dry affects peripheral fields; wet spares central acuity

d)

Dry changes color first; wet never alters color

93.

Which medical intervention targets abnormal macular vessels using light-activated dye?

a)

Thermal laser coagulation therapy

b)

Photodynamic therapy with photosensitizer

c)

Intravitreal corticosteroid injection

d)

Vitrectomy with membrane peeling

94.

Name one common medical treatment used to manage wet macular degeneration.

(a)  

95.

A patient asks if treatments can completely cure macular degeneration. Choose the best nursing response.

a)

Yes, cure is expected after laser

b)

No, there is no complete cure

c)

Only injections provide full cure

d)

Cure occurs after two therapies

96.

Which outcome best indicates effective nursing management for macular degeneration over time?

a)

Rapid reversal of central vision loss

b)

Stable or slower symptom progression

c)

Elimination of drusen deposits

d)

Permanent restoration of macular tissue

97.

You are planning care for a client receiving intravitreal therapy. What is the primary aim of this treatment plan?

a)

Prevent all future visual disorders

b)

Slow progression of macular changes

c)

Strengthen extraocular muscles

d)

Improve peripheral visual fields

98.

Select the intervention that directly delivers medication into the eye to manage neovascularization.

a)

Topical antibiotic drops

b)

Systemic antivascular tablets

c)

Intravitreal injections

d)

Transscleral cryotherapy

99.

Which factor most increases risk for retinal detachment in adults?

a)

Extreme myopic refraction disturbances

b)

Long-term contact lens hygiene

c)

Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis

d)

Occasional computer eye strain

100.

Identify the anatomical event that defines retinal detachment.

a)

Separation of inner retinal layers from retinal pigment epithelium

b)

Inflammation of the optic nerve fibers and sheath

c)

Obstruction of central retinal artery blood flow

d)

Degeneration of macular photoreceptors over time

101.

Fill in the blank: A prior (a)   in one eye increases risk of detachment later.

102.

A patient post–cataract surgery presents with flashes and floaters. Which reasoning best supports urgent evaluation for detachment?

a)

Cataract surgery is a known detachment risk factor

b)

Floaters always indicate harmless vitreous aging

c)

Flashes are typical of corneal surface irritation

d)

Detachment risk is reduced after lens replacement

103.

Which mechanism most plausibly initiates the separation of retinal layers in rhegmatogenous detachment?

a)

Vitreous flowing behind retina through a retinal tear

b)

Aqueous humor accumulating within anterior chamber

c)

Lens capsule fibrosis drawing the macula forward

d)

Iris sphincter spasm pulling ciliary body posteriorly

104.

You are triaging two patients for detachment risk. Who warrants the earliest dilated exam?

a)

High myope with family history of detachment

b)

Emmetropic teen with mild seasonal allergies

c)

Presbyopic adult with stable dry eye symptoms

d)

Astigmatic patient with normal fundus exams

105.

Which part is #1?

a)

sclera

b)

cornea

c)

retina

d)

lens

106.

Diagram 1 shows the cross section of a human eye.

Name the parts X

a)

Pupil

b)

Cornea

c)

Iris

d)

Optic nerve

107.

What is the best synonym for "photoreceptive?"

a)

Tissue-covered

b)

Camera-like

c)

Color-detecting

d)

Light-sensitive

108.

She is pointing to this structure which will be cut and then what happened?

a)

pointing to the cornea, aqueous humor comes spilling out of the eye and deflates the eye

b)

pointing to the lens, cuts the eye in half and sets it on the table

c)

pointing to the fat/muscles of the eye, she sat the eye in her palm

109.
You actually do 'have eyes in the back of your head' because this region of the brain responsible for visual processing is right above the cerebellum!
a)
temporal lobe
b)
sensory cortex
c)
occipital lobe
d)
gyri
110.

The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant object distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly is called --------------

a)

Long-sightedness

b)

Far-sightedness

c)

Hypermetropia

d)

All above

111.

_______ cell sense colours in retina

a)

Rods

b)

Cones

c)

Both a and b

d)

Optic nerve

112.
The layer of receptor cells that lines the back of the eye where nerve impulses begin.
a)
Iris
b)
Lens
c)
Retina
d)
Pupil
113.

This eye disease is marked an increased pressure within the eye.

a)

glaucoma

b)

cataracts

c)

color blindness

d)

astigmatism

114.

What condition is the person experiencing based on the image below?

a)

Farsightedness

b)

Nearsightedness

c)

Blindness

115.

Blurry at all distances.

a)

Nearsightedness

b)

Farsightedness

c)

Astigmatism

d)

Optical Illusion