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WorksheetsFOH Exam #2 Practice
Total questions: 115
Worksheet time: 59mins
Which factor is part of a comprehensive safety assessment focusing on functional ability?
Mobility and sensory perception
Socioeconomic and cultural status
Insurance coverage eligibility
Dietary preferences at home
Which environment domain is typically included when assessing patient safety contexts?
Home, work, social settings
Laboratory, pharmacy, billing
Genetic, epigenetic, prenatal
Sports, recreation, entertainment
Which statement best describes developmental considerations in patient safety?
Safety risks evolve across the lifespan
Safety risks remain constant after adolescence
Safety risks depend only on diagnoses
Safety risks are uniform across communities
Match each developmental stage with a prominent safety risk.
Neonate and Infant
Improper car seat use
Toddler and Preschooler
Poisoning and asphyxiation
Adolescent
Driving-related accidents
Older Adult
Falls leading to fatal injury
Which risk is commonly emphasized for school-aged children?
Accidents and bullying
Polypharmacy concerns
Orthostatic hypotension
Vitamin D deficiency
Which safety plan component is recommended for intimate partner violence?
Detailed plan for leaving safely
Immediate firearm purchase
Permanent relocation without notice
Avoidance of medical care visits
Which factor is NOT a common contributor to falls in older adults?
Strong lower-limb strength
Poor gait and balance
Visual impairment
Problems with footwear
Which item belongs in a fall risk assessment for older adults?
History of falls or accidents
Favorite leisure activities
Preferred food and beverages
Blood type and Rh factor
Match each fall risk contributor with the most related intervention.
Visual impairment
Regular vision testing
Footwear problems
Assess fit and tread of shoes
Strength issues
Resistance and balance training
Home hazards
Modify environmental risks
Which medication-related condition increases fall risk in older adults?
Polypharmacy and sedatives
Routine multivitamin use
Topical emollient creams
Short antibiotic courses
Which step aligns with defensive driving safety for older adults?
Encourage formal driving courses
Prohibit all night driving
Require annual car replacement
Avoid highway travel entirely
In the RACE protocol for fire response, what does C represent?
Confine the fire by closing doors
Call the hospital administrator
Control panic among visitors
Check equipment for damages
Which action is prioritized under RACE after confining the fire?
Evacuate patients to a safe area
Inventory combustible supplies
Update electronic health records
Test the sprinkler system
Which statement about restraints in healthcare is accurate?
Use restraints judiciously due to hazards
Routinely use restraints for agitation
Side rails always count as restraints
Restraints prevent all fall injuries
Match each restraint hazard with its clinical consequence.
Skin breakdown
Pressure injuries
Contractures
Permanent joint stiffness
Aspiration risk
Respiratory difficulties
Psychological impact
Depression, delirium, anxiety
Which condition is a physiologic risk associated with restraint use?
Incontinence and aspiration
Improved mobility
Enhanced autonomy
Reduced anxiety
Which statement about safety event reports is correct?
Internal quality tool, not a medical record
Public-facing document for families
Used only in legal proceedings
Documented directly in progress notes
Which assessment element supports identifying neglect or abuse in older adults?
Objective documentation and reporting
Reliance on family assurances
Avoidance of sensitive questions
Delaying reports until discharge
Match each environment domain with an example consideration.
Home environment
Smoke detectors operational
Work environment
Occupational safety policies
Social environment
Peer influences and supports
Which category is a major threat in emergency preparedness planning?
Biologic threats
Financial threats
Sports-related threats
Architectural threats
Which item is listed as a chemical used for mass destruction?
Nerve agents
Dietary supplements
Water purifiers
Vitamin complexes
Asphyxiation most accurately refers to which condition?
Suffocation, being deprived of air
Excessive fluid intake
Rapid heartbeat during exercise
Chronic joint inflammation
Bioterrorism is best defined as which action?
Deliberate release of viruses or bacteria
Routine vaccination of populations
Natural spread of seasonal influenza
Accidental lab contamination
Intimate Partner Violence (IPV) involves which type of harm?
Physical, sexual, or psychological harm
Financial fraud by strangers
Workplace disciplinary actions
Verbal disputes between colleagues
Match each major threat category with a concise example.
Biologic threats
Release of infectious pathogens
Chemical threats
Use of toxic industrial agents
Radiation threats
Exposure to radioactive materials
Cyber terror
Attacks using information technology
Which agent group targets the lungs and airways causing choking?
Choking/lung agents
Long-acting anticoagulants
Organic solvents
Toxic alcohols
Cyber terror primarily uses which domain to attack civilians?
Information technology
Chemical engineering
Agricultural supply chains
Genetic modification labs
Which statement best describes a Safety Event Report?
Confidential document about incidents compromising safety
Public newsletter on hospital achievements
Patient satisfaction survey results
Inventory list of medical supplies
Which term describes a facility offering immediate, expert advice for poison exposures?
Poison Control Center (PCC)
Sentinel Event office
Culture of Safety committee
Radiation Triage Unit
Match each chemical agent class to its typical effect or use.
Blister agents/vesicants
Cause severe skin and mucous membrane burns
Blood agents
Disrupt oxygen use in tissues
Nerve agents
Inhibit neurotransmission leading to paralysis
Riot control agents/tear gas
Used for crowd dispersal causing irritation
Vomiting agents
Induce nausea and emesis
Which term refers to an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious injury?
Sentinel Event
Routine check
Annual audit
Minor incident
Which statement best reflects a Culture of Safety?
Organizational commitment to a blame-free safety attitude
Strict punishment for any errors by staff
Focus on productivity over safety protocols
Delegating safety solely to senior leaders
Which device category is used to limit a patient's movement?
Restraints
Prosthetics
Diagnostics
Orthotics
Which best defines a Chemical Emergency?
Event caused by release of a harmful chemical
Routine disposal of lab reagents
Scheduled maintenance of ventilators
Nutrition counseling for patients
Which threat category emphasizes planning for widespread disease outbreaks?
Pandemic preparation
Sports medicine expansion
Dietary program rollout
Routine vaccination drive
Which statement accurately defines Safety in patient care?
Prevention of harm to patients
Ensuring rapid discharge timelines
Maximizing hospital revenue streams
Promoting competitive staff rankings
Which factor most directly increases disease potential in a healthcare setting?
Higher organism count on surfaces
Shorter incubation period length
Lower patient immune competence
Greater distance during contact
During which stage is a person most infectious despite vague symptoms?
Incubation period stage
Prodromal stage period
Full illness stage phase
Convalescent period stage
Which bacterial classification is based on oxygen requirement?
Cocci versus bacilli shapes
Gram-positive versus negative
Aerobic versus anaerobic
Spirochetes versus rods
Match each bacterial classification criterion to its example category.
By shape
Cocci, bacilli, spirochetes
By Gram stain
Gram-positive, Gram-negative
By oxygen need
Aerobic, anaerobic
Which statement best describes the incubation period?
Recovery after symptoms resolve
Time from invasion to first symptoms
Vague early signs most infectious
Presence of specific disease signs
Which stage of the inflammatory response involves vasodilation and increased permeability?
Humoral immunity stage
Cellular response stage
Vascular response stage
Convalescent recovery phase
Which cells primarily move into tissue to consume debris and pathogens during inflammation?
Erythrocytes in plasma
Leukocytes white cells
Platelets thrombocytes
Endothelial lining cells
Match each immune response type with its defining feature.
Humoral immunity
Antibody production to antigens
Cell-mediated immunity
Lymphocytes destroy harmful cells
Inflammatory response
Neutralize and eliminate offending agent
Which practice exemplifies medical asepsis?
Maintaining sterile field instruments
Performing hand hygiene regularly
Using antibiotics prophylactically
Autoclaving surgical equipment
Which practice exemplifies surgical asepsis?
Wearing clean nonsterile gloves
Keeping areas free of microorganisms
Disinfecting high-touch surfaces
Closing patient room doors
According to the WHO Five Moments, when should hand hygiene occur after body fluid exposure risk?
Before touching a patient
Before aseptic procedures
After body fluid exposure
After touching surroundings
Which statement about alcohol-based handrubs is accurate for routine care?
Less effective than antimicrobial soap
More effective at reducing hand counts
Equal effectiveness to plain water
Only effective against bacteria
Match each precaution category to its typical use.
Standard Precautions
Applied to all patients broadly
Transmission-Based Precautions
Added for suspected specific routes
Personal Protective Equipment
Includes gloves, gowns, masks
Which situation requires adding Transmission-Based Precautions to Standard Precautions?
Patient with intact skin injury
Suspected airborne infection case
Routine blood draw procedure
Noninfectious chronic condition
Which component is part of PPE for contact with body fluids?
Caps surgical headwear
Gloves protective barrier
Boots non-skid footwear
Eyeglasses personal lenses
Which set lists the four core vital signs assessed in routine clinical practice?
Temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure
Temperature, pain, oximetry, blood pressure
Pulse, pain, oximetry, capillary refill
Respiration, pain, blood glucose, pulse
When should vital signs be assessed for a patient undergoing an invasive diagnostic procedure?
Only before the procedure
Before and after the procedure
Only after the procedure
Only if the patient loses consciousness
What is the normal oral temperature range for adults?
35.8°C to 37.5°C
34.0°C to 36.0°C
36.5°C to 38.5°C
37.2°C to 39.0°C
Which primary source contributes most to body heat production at rest?
Metabolism in tissues
Evaporation of sweat
Warming inspired air
Skin radiation loss
Which mechanism is the primary source of heat loss from the body?
Skin surface transfer
Hormonal release
Muscle shivering
Thyroid stimulation
Match each fever type with its defining pattern.
Intermittent
Returns to normal at least daily
Remittent
Fluctuates but never normal
Sustained
Above normal with minimal variation
Relapsing
Returns to normal for days, episodic
What adult pulse rate range is considered normal?
60 to 100 beats per minute
40 to 60 beats per minute
80 to 120 beats per minute
50 to 90 beats per minute
Which autonomic influence decreases heart rate?
Parasympathetic stimulation
Sympathetic stimulation
Baroreceptor activation
Thyroid hormone surge
Match the pulse amplitude grade with its description.
Grade 0
Absent, not palpable
Grade +1
Diminished, weaker than expected
Grade +2
Normal, brisk, expected
Grade 3+
Bounding
What is the normal adult respiratory rate?
12 to 20 breaths per minute
8 to 12 breaths per minute
20 to 28 breaths per minute
10 to 16 breaths per minute
Which component of respiration refers to gas movement in and out of the lungs?
Ventilation process
Diffusion process
Perfusion process
Oxygen saturation
Which respiratory component describes gas exchange between alveoli and blood?
Diffusion mechanism
Ventilation mechanism
Perfusion mechanism
Respiratory drive
What is the most powerful respiratory stimulant?
Increase in carbon dioxide
Increase in oxygen
Decrease in nitrogen
Increase in pH
Match the respiratory pattern to its definition.
Eupnea
Normal, unlabored breathing
Tachypnea
Increased respiratory rate
Bradypnea
Decreased respiratory rate
Apnea
No breathing occurs
A patient reports difficulty breathing when lying flat that improves when sitting. What term best describes this?
Orthopnea condition
Dyspnea complaint
Apnea episode
Eupnea pattern
Which statement best defines systolic pressure?
Maximum pressure during ventricular contraction
Lowest pressure between heartbeats
Average pressure over one minute
Pressure within venous circulation
Which adult blood pressure is considered within normal range?
Less than 120/80 mm Hg
Exactly 130/85 mm Hg
Greater than 140/90 mm Hg
Less than 100/60 mm Hg
Match each factor with its likely effect on blood pressure.
Exercise
Transient increase in pressure
Body position change to standing
Potential drop with orthostatic response
Emotional stress
Sympathetic-mediated elevation
Circadian rhythm (night)
Lower readings during sleep
What threshold defines hypotension in adults?
Below 90/60 mm Hg
Below 100/70 mm Hg
Below 110/75 mm Hg
Below 120/80 mm Hg
A dehydrated patient becomes dizzy when rising to stand. Which condition is most consistent with this scenario?
Orthostatic hypotension
Essential hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension
Malignant hypertension
Which statement best describes allopathic medicine in modern healthcare?
Focuses on treating symptoms with drugs and surgery
Emphasizes unified mind-body-spirit interactions
Combines conventional and complementary modalities
Uses energy channels to balance yin and yang
Holism primarily views health as which of the following?
Absence of disease from pathogens
Balance of mind, body, and spirit
Spinal alignment and nerve flow
Dose-response effects of remedies
Integrative Health Care is best characterized by what approach?
Exclusive use of conventional biomedicine
Coordinated combination of multiple modalities
Isolated alternative therapy use only
Sequential replacement of standard treatments
Match each modality with its defining principle or focus.
Acupuncture
Qi flow along meridians and acupoints
Chiropractic health care
Spinal adjustments with adjunct therapies
Ayurveda
Integration of body, mind, and spirit using lifestyle
Traditional Chinese Medicine (TCM)
Balance of yin and yang with five elements
Which is an example of a mind-body practice used within complementary health approaches?
Botanical agents like herbs
Guided imagery techniques
Medical cannabis products
Nutritional supplements
In TCM, which concept explains illness as an imbalance requiring restoration?
Pathogen elimination only
Yin-yang dynamics balance
High-dose pharmacology
Placebo conditioning effects
Homeopathy’s theory of "like cures like" implies which mechanism?
A disease is cured by opposite effects
A substance causing symptoms treats similar symptoms
Higher doses increase therapeutic efficacy
Nerve manipulation restores organ function
Select the category that groups relaxation, meditation, yoga, and Tai Chi.
Mind-Body Practices category
Natural Products category
Other CHAs category
Pharmacologic Therapies category
A patient seeks nonpharmacologic pain reduction via thin needles at specific points. Which modality aligns with this choice?
Aromatherapy with essential oils
Acupuncture targeting acupoints
Ayurvedic dietary counseling
Chiropractic spinal adjustment
Which factor most directly shapes a patient's hygiene practices in a culturally diverse population?
Personal preferences shaped by habit
Culture and customary practices
Developmental level across lifespan
Health state during acute illness
During oral cavity assessment, which finding most specifically indicates periodontal disease risk?
Gingivitis with gum inflammation
Dental caries with enamel decay
Stomatitis with mucosal redness
Tongue coating with poor hygiene
Match each scheduled hygiene care time with its typical focus.
Early Morning Care
Prepare for the day with face and oral care
Morning Care (AM Care)
Post-breakfast toileting, bathing, and tidying
Afternoon Care (PM Care)
After lunch handwashing and oral care
Hour of Sleep (HS) Care
Pre-sleep comfort, repositioning, and oral care
Which purpose of bathing best explains its role in cardiovascular support?
Promotes circulation through warmth
Cleanses and conditions the skin
Improves self-image with grooming
Strengthens the nurse–patient relationship
When providing eye care, what is the correct wiping direction to reduce infection risk?
From inner to outer canthus
From outer to inner canthus
Circular motion around eyelids
Vertical strokes over eyelashes
Which statement reflects safe ear care during hygiene?
Use cotton-tipped swabs gently
Wash external ear with cloth-covered finger
Irrigate canal daily for wax removal
Insert soft probe to dislodge cerumen
For a patient on anticoagulant therapy, which hair removal method minimizes bleeding risk?
Single-blade safety razor
Electric razor with guarded head
Chemical depilatory cream
Tweezers for coarse hairs
Match each skin layer with its primary characteristic.
Epidermis
Waterproof outer protective layer
Dermis
Contains nerves, follicles, and vessels
Subcutaneous tissue
Anchors skin to underlying tissues
Which finding during a hygiene assessment most specifically suggests pediculosis?
Scalp lesions with pruritus
Hair texture coarse and dry
Nail ridging with brittleness
Foot swelling with erythema
A bedridden patient becomes diaphoretic in the afternoon. Which scheduled care category supports changing damp linens promptly?
Morning Care (AM Care)
As Needed Care (PRN Care)
Hour of Sleep (HS) Care
Early Morning Care
Which skin layer provides most mechanical strength through dense connective tissue and collagen?
Epidermis with stratified squamous cells
Dermis with dense connective tissue
Hypodermis with adipose cushioning
Stratum corneum with keratinized layer
What is the primary function of the hypodermis in maintaining skin integrity?
Barrier against pathogens and chemicals
Cushioning and thermal insulation
Production of melanin and keratin
Capillary exchange for nutrition
Place the phases of wound healing in the correct chronological order.
Hemostasis
First after injury
Inflammatory
Second lasting 2–3 days
Proliferation
Third lasting weeks
Maturation
Fourth remodeling stage
During hemostasis, which event directly contributes to stopping bleeding?
Vasodilation increases perfusion
Platelet aggregation and clotting
Fibroblast collagen synthesis
Keratinocyte migration and closure
Which hallmark of the inflammatory phase supports debris removal and growth factor release?
Capillary sprouting into the wound
White blood cell infiltration
Collagen remodeling and scar
Keratin layer thickening
Which local factor most likely delays epithelialization by overhydrating tissues?
Pressure causing ischemia
Maceration of the wound
Desiccation of the wound
Trauma from dressing changes
Which systemic factor would most directly impair collagen deposition during healing?
Advanced age with frailty
Corticosteroid medication use
Poor nutritional protein intake
Immunosuppression therapy
Match the pressure injury stage to its defining feature.
Stage 1
Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
Stage 2
Partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis
Stage 3
Full-thickness loss with visible fat
Stage 4
Full-thickness loss exposing muscle, bone, tendon
Which mechanism primarily initiates tissue ischemia leading to pressure injuries?
External pressure compressing vessels
Microclimate increasing moisture
Friction tearing superficial layers
Shear displacing deeper tissues
A wound bed shows healthy granulation tissue and minimal exudate. Which color classification is appropriate and what is the management goal?
Yellow, cleanse necrotic debris
Black, debride eschar promptly
Red, protect granulating tissue
Mixed, compress to reduce edema
Which description best differentiates an unstageable pressure injury?
Partial-thickness loss with dermis exposed
Full-thickness loss where fat is visible
Full-thickness loss obscured by slough or eschar
Persistent deep red or maroon discoloration
Persistent nonblanchable deep red or purple discoloration most likely indicates which classification?
Stage 1 superficial erythema
Stage 2 partial-thickness loss
Deep tissue pressure injury
Unstageable obscured defect
Match the wound dressing purpose to its rationale.
Absorb drainage
Reduce exudate accumulation
Maintain moist environment
Enhance epithelial migration
Protect surrounding skin
Prevent maceration from exudate
Debride necrotic tissue
Remove devitalized eschar or slough
Which intervention best mitigates friction and shear forces to prevent pressure injury?
Use moisture-wicking linens
Elevate head of bed 45 degrees
Employ trapeze or slide sheets
Apply petrolatum barrier ointment
Which statement about maturation in wound healing is accurate?
It lasts about two to three days
It builds granulation tissue
It remodels collagen forming scar
It initiates platelet clot formation
Which local factor directly increases infection risk in a wound bed?
Edema impairing perfusion
Desiccation causing dryness
Pressure reducing sensation
Psychosocial stress response
A patient on high-dose corticosteroids presents with delayed wound healing. Which mechanism best explains this delay?
Enhanced fibroblast proliferation
Suppressed inflammation and collagen
Increased neovascularization rate
Accelerated epithelial migration
Which management principle most directly prevents further tissue injury at a wound site?
Stimulate healing response
Protect the wound from trauma
Absorb moderate serous drainage
Optimize patient comfort level
Which combination of factors most increases risk for pressure injury over a bony prominence?
External pressure and ischemia
Adequate nutrition intake
High oxygenation saturation
Dry microclimate exposure
This diagram represents ___________________
Aseptic Technique
Chain of infection
Stages of Infection
Process of Colonization
Which micro organisms cause communicable diseases?
Pathogens
Pathogerms
Partitions
Which of the following recommendations reflects proper infection control practices in health care settings?
artificial nails should be no longer than 1.27 cm (0.5 in) in length
Use an alcohol-based hand rub if there is visible contamination on the hands
Remove soiled gloves prior to touching uncontaminated surfaces
Wear the same gloves while performing different procedures on the same patient
What distance from the edges of the sterile field should the PCT consider contaminated?
1/4 inch
1/2 inch
3/4 inch
1 inch
A client admitted to the hospital is diagnosed with a pressure injury on the coccyx and has a wound vac. The wound culture results indicate that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is present. The wound dressing and wound vac foam are due to be changed. The nurse would employ which protective precautions to prevent contraction of the infection during care?
Glove & mask
Contact precautions
Airborne precautions
Face shield & gloves
