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Anemia: Definition and Development

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes anemia?

a)

A decrease in the blood’s ability to carry and deliver oxygen to tissue, resulting in hypoxia.

b)

An increase in the blood’s ability to carry and deliver oxygen to tissue, resulting in hyperoxia.

c)

A decrease in the blood’s ability to fight infections, resulting in immunodeficiency.

d)

An increase in the blood’s ability to clot, resulting in thrombosis.

2.

Anemia is clinically identified by which of the following?

a)

A decreased hemoglobin and/or erythrocytes.

b)

An increased platelet count and/or leukocytes.

c)

A decreased plasma volume and/or increased red cell mass.

d)

An increased hemoglobin and/or erythrocytes.

3.

Which formula is used to determine total erythrocyte mass?

a)

Production (mL/day) x Survival (days)

b)

Production (g/day) x Hemoglobin concentration

c)

Survival (days) x Plasma volume

d)

Production (mL/day) + Survival (days)

4.

What happens if increased erythrocyte production cannot compensate for decreased survival, or if production cannot maintain a normal erythrocyte mass?

a)

Anemia develops.

b)

Polycythemia develops.

c)

Leukopenia develops.

d)

Thrombocytopenia develops.

5.

The bone marrow can produce additional erythrocytes to a level of 5-8 times normal. What limits this compensatory response?

a)

The amount of iron available for hemoglobin synthesis.

b)

The amount of vitamin B12 available for DNA synthesis.

c)

The amount of oxygen available in the lungs.

d)

The amount of glucose available for energy production.

6.

Which unit is used to measure hemoglobin (Hb) in blood?

a)

Grams per deciliter (g/dL)

b)

Liters per minute (L/min)

c)

Milligrams per liter (mg/L)

d)

Units per milliliter (U/mL)

7.

What effect does hypervolemia have on hemoglobin and hematocrit measurements?

a)

It causes a dilution effect, making hemoglobin and hematocrit appear lower than they are.

b)

It causes a concentration effect, making hemoglobin and hematocrit appear higher than they are.

c)

It does not affect hemoglobin and hematocrit measurements.

d)

It increases erythrocyte mass, raising hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

8.

During acute blood loss, why might anemia develop even if initial hemoglobin and hematocrit measurements are normal?

a)

Compensatory plasma volume increases faster than red blood cell (RBC) production, leading to anemia.

b)

Red blood cells are replaced immediately, preventing anemia.

c)

Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels remain unchanged regardless of blood loss.

d)

Plasma volume and RBCs decrease at the same rate, so anemia does not occur.

9.

How do normal reference ranges for hemoglobin and hematocrit change at higher altitudes?

a)

They are higher at higher altitudes.

b)

They are lower at higher altitudes.

c)

They remain the same regardless of altitude.

d)

They fluctuate unpredictably with altitude.

10.

Why is baseline hemoglobin and hematocrit higher in smokers?

a)

Because carbon monoxide exposure increases these levels.

b)

Because smoking increases plasma volume.

c)

Because smokers have lower erythrocyte mass.

d)

Because smoking decreases blood loss.

11.

Which of the following factors influences the body's response to the development of anemia?

a)

Rate of anemia onset

b)

Type of medication used

c)

Amount of dietary fat

d)

Level of physical activity

12.

During anemia, which physiological change helps increase oxygen delivery to tissues?

a)

Increased cardiac rate and cardiac output

b)

Decreased respiratory rate and cardiac output

c)

Reduced rate of circulation and vasodilation

d)

Lowered oxygen utilization by tissues

13.

What is the role of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) in erythrocytes during anemia?

a)

It facilitates easier oxygen extraction from hemoglobin by shifting the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

b)

It increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, making oxygen extraction more difficult.

c)

It decreases glycolysis in erythrocytes, reducing energy production.

d)

It causes vasoconstriction in the heart and brain, limiting oxygen delivery.

14.

Based on the sequence of metabolic changes in anemia, what is the effect on hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen? Use the following sequence: Anemia leads to decreased oxygen, increased glycolysis, decreased pH, and decreased hemoglobin affinity for oxygen.

a)

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases, allowing more oxygen to be released to tissues.

b)

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen increases, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues.

c)

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen remains unchanged, maintaining normal oxygen delivery.

d)

Hemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly, preventing its release to tissues.

15.

Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly used in the diagnosis of anemia?

a)

Complete blood count (CBC) including hemoglobin and hematocrit

b)

Assessment of dietary preferences only

c)

Measurement of blood pressure exclusively

d)

Observation of skin color without laboratory tests

16.

A patient presents with fatigue, dyspnea, and palpitations. Which aspect of the diagnostic process does this information belong to when evaluating for anemia?

a)

Patient history

b)

Physical exam

c)

Laboratory findings

d)

Treatment planning

17.

Which physical exam finding is most directly associated with hemolysis in a patient suspected of having anemia?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Pallor

c)

Hypotension

d)

Bruising

18.

When reviewing a patient's history for anemia, which of the following is most relevant?

a)

Exposure to drugs or toxins

b)

Presence of a cough

c)

Recent travel history

d)

Height and weight measurements

19.

Which of the following best describes the role of a reticulocyte count in the diagnosis of anemia?

a)

It helps assess bone marrow response to anemia by measuring immature red blood cells.

b)

It is used to measure blood pressure changes in anemia.

c)

It determines the presence of jaundice in anemia.

d)

It is only used to detect bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract.

20.

Which laboratory index is calculated using the formula: (hematocritx1012/L)/(RBCcountx1000)(hematocrit x 10^{12}/L)/(RBC count x 1000) ?

a)

Mean cell volume (MCV)

b)

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC), which is calculated as Hb/Hct

c)

Red cell distribution width (RDW), which is the coefficient of variation of the MCV

d)

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH), which is calculated as [Hb (g/dL) x 10]/(RBC count x 10^{12}/L)

21.

What is the reference interval for mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) in g/dL?

a)

32-36 g/dL

b)

28-34 g/dL

c)

80-100 g/dL

d)

11.5-14.5 g/dL

22.

Which erythrocyte index has a standard reference interval of 11.5 – 14.5%?

a)

Red cell distribution width (RDW)

b)

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)

c)

Mean cell volume (MCV)

d)

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

23.

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH) is calculated using which formula?

a)

[Hb(g/dL)x10]/(RBCcountx1012/L)[Hb (g/dL) x 10]/(RBC count x 10^{12}/L)

b)

(hematocritx1012/L)/(RBCcountx1000)(hematocrit x 10^{12}/L)/(RBC count x 1000)

c)

Hb/Hct

d)

Coefficient of variation of the MCV

24.

Which laboratory finding provides an indication of the bone marrow response to erythrocyte loss?

a)

Reticulocyte count

b)

Mean cell volume (MCV)

c)

Red cell distribution width (RDW)

d)

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

25.

Reticulocytes normally take a day to finish maturing in the peripheral blood. When anemia is present, what happens to their maturation time?

a)

Reticulocytes may be released earlier, leading to longer maturation times peripherally

b)

Reticulocytes mature faster in the bone marrow and peripheral blood

c)

Reticulocytes are not affected by anemia and mature at the same rate

d)

Reticulocytes are destroyed before maturing in the peripheral blood

26.

What does a reticulocyte production index (RPI) greater than 2 indicate?

a)

Adequate bone marrow response to anemia

b)

Inadequate bone marrow response to anemia

c)

No bone marrow response to anemia

d)

Excessive destruction of reticulocytes

27.

Which laboratory test uses automated flow cytometry to assess reticulocyte maturity and adequacy of bone marrow response to anemia?

a)

Immature reticulocyte fraction (IRF)

b)

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

c)

Red cell distribution width (RDW)

d)

Blood smear examination

28.

Which morphologic change in erythrocyte size is commonly associated with iron-deficiency anemia?

a)

Microcytosis

b)

Macrocytosis

c)

Anisocytosis

d)

Spherocytosis

29.

Macrocytosis is associated with which of the following conditions?

a)

Megaloblastic anemias, hemolytic anemia with reticulocytosis, recovery from acute hemorrhage, liver disease, asplenia, aplastic anemia, myelodysplasia, endocrinopathies, alcoholism

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia, thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia, long-term anemia of chronic disease

c)

Immune hemolytic anemia, early iron, B12 or folate deficiency, concurrent iron and folate deficiency, sideroblastic anemia, myelofibrosis, sickle cell anemia/trait, chronic liver disease, myelodysplastic syndrome

d)

Sickle cell anemia, hereditary spherocytosis, autoimmune hemolytic anemia

30.

Anisocytosis is most likely to be seen in which condition?

a)

Immune hemolytic anemia, early iron, B12 or folate deficiency, concurrent iron and folate deficiency, sideroblastic anemia, myelofibrosis, sickle cell anemia/trait, chronic liver disease, myelodysplastic syndrome

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia, thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia, long-term anemia of chronic disease

c)

Megaloblastic anemias, hemolytic anemia with reticulocytosis, recovery from acute hemorrhage, liver disease, asplenia, aplastic anemia, myelodysplasia, endocrinopathies, alcoholism

d)

Hereditary spherocytosis, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, malaria

31.

Which abnormal erythrocyte shape is commonly reported in blood smear examinations and is associated with fragmented red cells?

a)

Schistocytes

b)

Dacrocytes

c)

Spherocytes

d)

Acanthocytes

32.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an abnormal erythrocyte shape to report in blood smear examination?

a)

Elliptocytes

b)

Schistocytes

c)

Dacrocytes

d)

Target cells

33.

Blood smear examination is not always required, but what is its main benefit in the context of anemia diagnosis?

a)

It can help determine possible causes of anemia by identifying morphologic changes in erythrocyte size and shape

b)

It is the only way to diagnose anemia

c)

It provides the reference interval for erythrocyte indices

d)

It measures the reticulocyte production index

34.

Where is iron primarily found in the human body?

a)

Iron is primarily found in erythrocytes (functional), macrophages and hepatocytes (storage), and enterocytes (absorption).

b)

Iron is mainly located in the kidneys and pancreas, with minor amounts in the skin.

c)

Iron is only present in the liver and not in blood cells.

d)

Iron is distributed equally throughout all body tissues.

35.

What is the major fraction of functional iron in the body?

a)

Hemoglobin is the major fraction of functional iron in the body.

b)

Ferritin is the major fraction of functional iron in the body, stored in the liver.

c)

Transferrin is the major fraction of functional iron in the body.

d)

Iron in enterocytes is the major fraction of functional iron in the body.

36.

Which process allows macrophages to recycle iron, and how much more iron do they recycle compared to gut absorption?

a)

Macrophages recycle iron by degrading hemoglobin from red blood cells, recycling 10-20 times more iron than is absorbed in the gut.

b)

Macrophages recycle iron by absorbing it from the diet, recycling twice as much iron as the gut.

c)

Macrophages recycle iron by storing it in the liver, recycling less iron than the gut.

d)

Macrophages recycle iron by excreting it through urine, recycling 5 times more iron than the gut.

37.

Which protein carries iron to the bone marrow for heme synthesis?

a)

Transferrin carries iron to the bone marrow for heme synthesis.

b)

Ferritin carries iron to the bone marrow for heme synthesis.

c)

Hemoglobin carries iron to the bone marrow for heme synthesis.

d)

Albumin carries iron to the bone marrow for heme synthesis.

38.

Iron homeostasis requires regulation of iron absorption by which cells?

a)

Iron homeostasis requires regulation of iron absorption by enterocytes.

b)

Iron homeostasis requires regulation of iron absorption by hepatocytes.

c)

Iron homeostasis requires regulation of iron absorption by erythrocytes.

d)

Iron homeostasis requires regulation of iron absorption by leukocytes.

39.

What happens to iron absorption when erythropoietic activity increases or iron stores are decreased?

a)

Iron absorption increases when erythropoietic activity increases or iron stores are decreased.

b)

Iron absorption decreases when erythropoietic activity increases or iron stores are decreased.

c)

Iron absorption remains unchanged regardless of erythropoietic activity or iron stores.

d)

Iron absorption stops completely when erythropoietic activity increases.

40.

Which form of dietary iron is most prevalent in vegetables and whole grains?

a)

Non-heme ferric form (Fe3+) is most prevalent in vegetables and whole grains.

b)

Ferrous form (Fe2+) is most prevalent in vegetables and whole grains.

c)

Heme form is most prevalent in vegetables and whole grains.

d)

Elemental iron is most prevalent in vegetables and whole grains.

41.

How is ferric iron (Fe3+) converted for absorption in the intestine?

a)

Ferric iron is converted to ferrous form (Fe2+) by an enzyme at the duodenal brush border (duodenal cytochrome B) and transported into the enterocyte by divalent metal transporter 1.

b)

Ferric iron is absorbed directly without conversion in the intestine.

c)

Ferric iron is converted to elemental iron by stomach acid before absorption.

d)

Ferric iron is converted to heme iron by liver enzymes before absorption.

42.

What is the role of ferroportin in iron metabolism?

a)

Ferroportin transports iron across the basal membrane of enterocytes into plasma.

b)

Ferroportin stores iron in the liver for future use.

c)

Ferroportin binds iron to hemoglobin in red blood cells.

d)

Ferroportin converts ferric iron to ferrous iron in the stomach.

43.

Before iron can be bound to transferrin for transport, what must happen to it?

a)

Iron must be re-oxidized to ferric form before being bound to transport protein transferrin.

b)

Iron must be reduced to ferrous form before being bound to transferrin.

c)

Iron must be converted to heme form before being bound to transferrin.

d)

Iron must be stored in ferritin before being bound to transferrin.

44.

What is the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) in plasma?

a)

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is the amount of iron that can be bound by transferrin in plasma, usually 250-450 ug Fe/dL.

b)

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is the amount of iron stored in the liver.

c)

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is the amount of iron absorbed from the gut per day.

d)

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) is the amount of iron recycled by macrophages.

45.

How is transferrin saturation calculated?

a)

Transferrin saturation is calculated as serum iron divided by TIBC, multiplied by 100.

b)

Transferrin saturation is calculated as serum iron divided by serum ferritin, multiplied by 100.

c)

Transferrin saturation is calculated as TIBC divided by serum iron, multiplied by 100.

d)

Transferrin saturation is calculated as serum iron multiplied by TIBC, divided by 100.

46.

Where is most of the iron delivered by transferrin used?

a)

Most of the iron delivered by transferrin is used in the bone marrow for erythroblast use.

b)

Most of the iron delivered by transferrin is stored in the liver.

c)

Most of the iron delivered by transferrin is excreted in urine.

d)

Most of the iron delivered by transferrin is absorbed by enterocytes.

47.

What are the two main types of transferrin receptors on cell surfaces?

a)

The two main types of transferrin receptors on cell surfaces are transferrin receptor 1 and transferrin receptor 2.

b)

The two main types of transferrin receptors on cell surfaces are ferritin receptor and hemoglobin receptor.

c)

The two main types of transferrin receptors on cell surfaces are iron receptor and albumin receptor.

d)

The two main types of transferrin receptors on cell surfaces are erythrocyte receptor and hepatocyte receptor.

48.

Is there a physiologic mechanism for excretion of excess iron in the human body?

a)

There is no physiologic mechanism for excretion of excess iron in the human body.

b)

Excess iron is excreted through urine by the kidneys.

c)

Excess iron is excreted through sweat glands.

d)

Excess iron is excreted through the digestive tract.

49.

Which of the following is the main storage form of iron in normal circumstances?

a)

Ferritin

b)

Hemosiderin with high cellular iron levels

c)

Iron bound to hemoglobin

d)

Iron in plasma

50.

Ferritin is a spherical protein shell that can hold up to how many molecules of ferric iron?

a)

4500

b)

1000, but only when iron levels are low

c)

200, which is the minimum required for storage

d)

9000

51.

Why is serum ferritin not a reliable indicator of iron stores during inflammation or tissue damage?

a)

Ferritin is an acute phase reactant and its levels can increase independently of iron stores during inflammation or tissue damage.

b)

Ferritin is only found in plasma during inflammation, making it unreliable.

c)

Serum ferritin is always a reliable indicator regardless of inflammation.

d)

Ferritin is not present in the blood during tissue damage.

52.

Hemosiderin is primarily found in which type of cell, and how is it formed?

a)

Macrophages; formed by partial degradation of ferritin when cellular iron levels are high

b)

Red blood cells; formed by direct absorption of dietary iron

c)

Liver cells; formed by oxidation of plasma iron

d)

Plasma cells; formed by breakdown of hemoglobin

53.

Which organ is primarily responsible for regulating iron balance in the body and serves as the main iron storage site?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Spleen

d)

Pancreas

54.

What is the main function of hepcidin in iron metabolism?

a)

It regulates how much iron is absorbed and released into plasma by enterocytes, hepatocytes, and macrophages.

b)

It transports iron in the blood to various tissues.

c)

It stores iron in the liver for future use.

d)

It breaks down excess iron in the body.

55.

Hepcidin synthesis is increased by which of the following conditions?

a)

Excess iron stores

b)

Increased erythropoiesis

c)

Low levels of IL-6

d)

Decreased iron absorption

56.

Which protein binds to and induces degradation of ferroportin, thereby blocking iron export from cells?

a)

Hepcidin

b)

Transferrin

c)

Ferritin

d)

HFE

57.

Which of the following factors decreases hepcidin synthesis?

a)

Increased erythropoiesis

b)

Excess iron stores

c)

Inflammation

d)

High IL-6 levels

58.

What is the role of HFE in iron metabolism?

a)

It acts as a transmembrane protein that helps regulate hepcidin synthesis by interacting with transferrin receptors.

b)

It stores iron in the liver for future use.

c)

It transports iron in the blood to various tissues.

d)

It breaks down excess iron in the body.

59.

During which physiological state is the daily iron requirement approximately 3.4 mg?

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Menstruation

c)

Infancy

d)

Adulthood

60.

Which group is at increased risk for iron deficiency anemia due to higher iron requirements?

a)

Young children

b)

Elderly men

c)

Postmenopausal women

d)

Middle-aged men

61.

What happens to HFE when transferrin levels increase?

a)

It is displaced from transferrin receptor 1 and binds to transferrin receptor 2.

b)

It remains bound to transferrin receptor 1.

c)

It is degraded in the liver.

d)

It binds to ferroportin.

62.

Which of the following statements about menstruation and iron requirements is correct?

a)

Average daily iron loss during menstruation is up to 2.5% more than in men or non-menstruating females, requiring 2 mg of iron daily to maintain balance.

b)

Menstruation does not affect daily iron requirements.

c)

Menstruating females require less iron than non-menstruating females.

d)

Iron loss during menstruation is negligible and does not impact iron balance.

63.

Which laboratory test is most likely to show a decrease when storage iron increases?

a)

Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

b)

Serum ferritin

c)

Serum transferrin receptor (sTfR)

d)

Percent saturation of transferrin

64.

What does a serum ferritin concentration below 12 ug/L indicate, assuming absence of inflammation?

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Iron overload

c)

Normal iron stores

d)

Inflammation

65.

If the percent saturation of transferrin is above 50%, what does this suggest?

a)

Iron overload

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Normal iron metabolism

d)

Low transferrin levels

66.

Which laboratory finding is an early indicator of iron deficiency, even before iron stores are depleted?

a)

Low serum ferritin

b)

High total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

c)

Low percent saturation of transferrin

d)

High serum transferrin receptor (sTfR)

67.

What type of erythrocytes are formed as a result of iron deficiency, according to a complete blood count (CBC)?

a)

Hypochromic, microcytic erythrocytes

b)

Normochromic, macrocytic erythrocytes

c)

Hyperchromic, normocytic erythrocytes

d)

Microcytic, hyperchromic erythrocytes

68.

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Dietary deficiency

b)

Blood loss

c)

Chronic kidney disease

d)

Excessive iron absorption

69.

What is the primary change in red blood cell morphology during stage 1 of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Red blood cells become microcytic and hypochromic

b)

Red cell RDW may be increased but morphology is normal

c)

Red blood cells show poikilocytosis

d)

Red blood cells become macrocytic

70.

Which of the following findings is most specifically associated with iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Koilonychia and glossitis

b)

Jaundice and splenomegaly

c)

Petechiae and ecchymosis

d)

Polycythemia and cyanosis

71.

Pica syndrome, characterized by cravings for eating ice, clay, dirt, or starch, is most commonly seen in which condition?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

c)

Hemolytic anemia

d)

Sickle cell anemia

72.

If iron is not present in the gut, which of the following may occur?

a)

Other metals are absorbed in increased amounts, which may be toxic

b)

Calcium absorption is increased

c)

Protein absorption is decreased

d)

Fat absorption is increased

73.

Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells

b)

Macrocytic and hyperchromic red blood cells

c)

Normocytic and normochromic red blood cells

d)

Spherocytes and schistocytes

74.

Which of the following is a typical finding in iron studies for iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Serum iron less than 30 ug/dL

b)

TIBC decreased

c)

Transferrin saturation increased

d)

Ferritin increased

75.

What is the recommended first-line therapy for iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Oral ferrous sulfate

b)

Intravenous vitamin B12

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

High-dose corticosteroids

76.

Which bone marrow finding is associated with iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Mild to moderate erythroid hyperplasia

b)

Increased peripheral blood reticulocytes

c)

Presence of stainable hemosiderin in macrophages

d)

Severe lymphoid hyperplasia

77.

Which of the following is a possible consequence of chronic kidney disease in the context of iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Decreased erythropoietin production

b)

Increased iron absorption

c)

Enhanced red blood cell production

d)

Decreased risk of anemia

78.

Which of the following statements about the progression of iron deficiency anemia is correct?

a)

Blood loss can shorten the time to progress to stage 3, where all lab iron studies become abnormal and RBCs are microcytic and hypochromic.

b)

Stage 1 is characterized by abnormal RBC morphology and severe anemia.

c)

Stage 2 shows macrocytic RBCs and increased hemoglobin.

d)

Stage 3 is marked by normal iron studies and normal RBCs.

79.

Which of the following is a risk when iron is not present in the gut and there is exposure to toxic metals?

a)

Increased absorption of lead and cadmium

b)

Decreased absorption of calcium

c)

Increased absorption of vitamin B12

d)

Decreased absorption of copper

80.

Which of the following laboratory findings may appear before the onset of anemia in iron deficiency?

a)

Microcytosis and increased RDW

b)

Macrocytosis and decreased RDW

c)

Normocytosis and normal RDW

d)

Spherocytosis and increased RDW

81.

Which of the following is a sign of ineffective erythropoiesis in the bone marrow during iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Lack of increased peripheral blood reticulocytes

b)

Presence of stainable hemosiderin in macrophages

c)

Severe lymphoid hyperplasia

d)

Increased megakaryocytes

82.

Which of the following is a possible morphologic abnormality seen in peripheral blood in iron deficiency anemia?

a)

Elliptocytes and teardrop cells

b)

Spherocytes and schistocytes

c)

Target cells and macrocytes

d)

Blasts and lymphocytes

83.

Which of the following best describes anemia of chronic disease?

a)

It usually occurs in the setting of chronic infections, chronic inflammatory conditions, trauma, organ failure, or malignancies, and is not due to hemolysis, bleeding, or marrow failure.

b)

It is primarily caused by acute blood loss and hemolysis.

c)

It is a result of vitamin B12 deficiency and neurological symptoms.

d)

It is exclusively seen in patients with bone marrow failure.

84.

What is the main effect of inflammatory cytokines (such as IL-6) on iron metabolism in anemia of chronic disease?

a)

They upregulate hepcidin, which traps iron in macrophages and enterocytes.

b)

They increase iron absorption in the gut, leading to iron overload.

c)

They decrease hepcidin production, allowing more iron release from macrophages.

d)

They stimulate erythropoiesis directly, increasing red blood cell production.

85.

Why does blocking macrophages from releasing iron lead to anemia more quickly than changes in absorption by enterocytes?

a)

Most iron is recycled via macrophages, so blocking their release leads to anemia faster than changes in absorption.

b)

Iron absorption by enterocytes is the primary source of iron for erythropoiesis.

c)

Macrophages do not play a significant role in iron metabolism.

d)

Iron recycling by enterocytes is faster than by macrophages.

86.

Which of the following is a contributing factor to anemia of chronic disease?

a)

Cytokine inhibition of erythropoietin (EPO) production.

b)

Increased vitamin B12 absorption.

c)

Enhanced erythrocyte survival.

d)

Decreased inflammatory cytokine levels.

87.

What are the typical clinical findings in anemia of chronic disease?

a)

Signs and symptoms related to the underlying chronic disorder; anemia is usually not severe and correlates with the severity of the underlying condition.

b)

Severe neurological symptoms and rapid progression of anemia.

c)

Acute hemolysis and jaundice.

d)

Profound anemia with no relation to underlying conditions.

88.

In peripheral blood, what is the usual appearance of anemia in chronic disease?

a)

Mild anemia, usually normochromic and normocytic, but variable; reticulocyte production index is less than 2.

b)

Severe anemia with microcytic and hypochromic cells.

c)

Macrocytic anemia with increased reticulocyte count.

d)

Normocytic anemia with reticulocyte production index greater than 2.

89.

Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of anemia of chronic disease in iron studies?

a)

Decreased serum iron, decreased to normal total iron-binding capacity (TIBC), normal to low transferrin saturation, and normal to increased serum ferritin.

b)

Increased serum iron, increased TIBC, and decreased serum ferritin.

c)

Normal serum iron, increased transferrin saturation, and decreased ferritin.

d)

Decreased serum iron, increased TIBC, and decreased ferritin.

90.

What is a typical bone marrow finding in anemia of chronic disease?

a)

Increased myeloid-to-erythroid (M:E) ratio; macrophages generally have increased hemosiderin.

b)

Decreased M:E ratio with reduced hemosiderin in macrophages.

c)

Normal M:E ratio with no change in hemosiderin.

d)

Increased erythroid precursors and decreased macrophage activity.

91.

What is the primary therapy for anemia of chronic disease?

a)

Treat the underlying disease, if possible.

b)

Administer high doses of iron supplements.

c)

Provide blood transfusions as the first-line treatment.

d)

Use erythropoietin injections in all cases.

92.

A patient presents with mild anemia, decreased serum iron, normal to increased serum ferritin, and increased hemosiderin in bone marrow macrophages. Which diagnosis is most likely?

a)

Anemia of chronic disease.

b)

Iron deficiency anemia.

c)

Megaloblastic anemia.

d)

Hemolytic anemia.

93.

Which enzyme is impaired in the hereditary form of sideroblastic anemia, leading to abnormal heme synthesis?

a)

5-aminolevulinate synthase (ALAS2)

b)

Ferrochelatase

c)

Delta-aminolevulinic acid dehydratase

d)

Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

94.

What is a key laboratory finding in the bone marrow of patients with sideroblastic anemia?

a)

Ring sideroblasts constituting more than 40% of erythroblasts

b)

Decreased iron stores

c)

Absence of erythroid hyperplasia

d)

Low cellularity

95.

Which of the following is a common acquired cause of sideroblastic anemia?

a)

Lead poisoning

b)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

c)

Thalassemia

d)

Sickle cell disease

96.

What is the effect of hereditary sideroblastic anemia on iron metabolism?

a)

Increased iron uptake in the gut leading to iron overload

b)

Decreased iron absorption resulting in iron deficiency

c)

Normal iron metabolism

d)

Iron excretion is increased

97.

Which gene is most commonly mutated in hereditary sideroblastic anemia?

a)

ALAS2

b)

HBB

c)

G6PD

d)

SLC40A1

98.

In peripheral blood smears of sideroblastic anemia, which of the following features is commonly observed?

a)

Dimorphic cells with normochromic and hypochromic populations

b)

Uniformly normocytic cells

c)

Absence of poikilocytosis

d)

No evidence of Pappenheimer bodies

99.

Which laboratory finding is prominent in lead poisoning associated with sideroblastic anemia?

a)

Coarse basophilic stippling

b)

Increased reticulocyte production index

c)

Decreased bone marrow cellularity

d)

Absence of iron in erythrocytes

100.

Alcohol can cause acquired sideroblastic anemia by affecting which process?

a)

Inhibiting uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase and ferrochelatase

b)

Increasing erythroid hyperplasia

c)

Enhancing iron excretion

d)

Stimulating ALAS2 gene expression

101.

What is the reticulocyte production index typically found in the bone marrow of patients with sideroblastic anemia?

a)

Less than 2

b)

Greater than 5

c)

Equal to 10

d)

More than 20

102.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of acquired sideroblastic anemia?

a)

Thalassemia

b)

Lead poisoning

c)

Alcohol use

d)

Myelodysplastic syndromes

103.

Which enzyme defect is responsible for congenital erythropoietic porphyria (CEP)?

a)

Defect in uroporphyrinogen III synthase

b)

Defect in ferrochelatase with accumulation of protoporphyrin

c)

Defective ALA synthase

d)

Defect in heme oxygenase

104.

What is a common clinical sign in infancy for congenital erythropoietic porphyria (CEP)?

a)

Pink to brown urine

b)

Severe jaundice with pale stools

c)

Blue discoloration of the skin

d)

Persistent cough

105.

Which of the following is true about erythropoietic porphyria (EPP)?

a)

Adequate heme is produced and no anemia develops

b)

It results in severe hemolytic anemia

c)

It causes extreme photosensitivity with scarring

d)

It is caused by a defect in uroporphyrinogen III synthase

106.

What happens to erythrocytes in peripheral blood in patients with EPP?

a)

They fluoresce but are otherwise morphologically normal

b)

They show severe hemolysis and fragmentation

c)

They are abnormally large and pale

d)

They do not fluoresce under UV light

107.

Which substance accumulates in tissues and is excreted in urine and feces in congenital erythropoietic porphyria (CEP)?

a)

Uroporphyrin I and coproporphyrin I

b)

Protoporphyrin

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Heme

108.

What is the effect of excess porphyrins in the skin in CEP?

a)

Extreme photosensitivity leading to vesicular and bullous eruptions, scarring, and disfigurement

b)

Mild rash with no scarring

c)

No effect on the skin

d)

Increased skin pigmentation

109.

How does exposure to sunlight affect individuals with EPP?

a)

It causes erythema and urticaria

b)

It leads to severe blistering and scarring

c)

It has no effect

d)

It causes increased melanin production

110.

Which of the following best describes the anemia seen in CEP?

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

No anemia develops

c)

Microcytic anemia

d)

Megaloblastic anemia

111.

What is the approximate number of reported cases for erythropoietic porphyria (EPP)?

a)

About 300 reported cases

b)

About 130 reported cases

c)

About 1,000 reported cases

d)

About 50 reported cases

112.

What is the main difference in clinical severity between CEP and EPP?

a)

CEP has more severe photosensitivity with scarring, while EPP has milder photosensitivity and usually no scarring

b)

EPP has more severe photosensitivity with scarring, while CEP has milder photosensitivity

c)

Both have equally severe photosensitivity and scarring

d)

Neither condition causes photosensitivity

113.

Which of the following best describes hemochromatosis?

a)

A condition characterized by excessive absorption of iron, leading to its deposition in the liver, pancreas, heart, and other organs.

b)

A disorder caused by insufficient iron absorption, resulting in anemia and fatigue.

c)

A disease that only affects the kidneys due to iron deficiency.

d)

A genetic condition that prevents any iron from being absorbed in the intestines.

114.

Hemochromatosis is most commonly caused by which of the following?

a)

A hereditary mutation in the HFE gene, resulting in loss or impairment of regulatory control of intestinal iron absorption.

b)

Acute infection leading to increased iron absorption in the intestines.

c)

Iron deficiency due to poor dietary intake.

d)

Excessive exercise causing increased iron demand.

115.

What is a possible consequence of tissue deposition of hemosiderin in organs?

a)

Gradually increasing fibrosis in affected organs.

b)

Immediate improvement in organ function.

c)

Reduction in skin pigmentation only.

d)

Rapid healing of damaged tissues.

116.

Iron deposition in organs can lead to which of the following outcomes?

a)

Fibrosis and atrophy of organs, as well as changes in skin pigmentation.

b)

Increased muscle mass and strength.

c)

Complete prevention of organ damage.

d)

Permanent immunity to iron-related disorders.