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Microquiz 1: Breaking Down Words: Arthrology

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In arthrology, the root arthro- means:

a)

Bone

b)

Joint

c)

Cartilage

d)

Movement

2.

The suffix -logy in arthrology means:

a)

Study of

b)

Inflammation of

c)

Structure of

d)

Function of

3.

The literal meaning of arthrology is:

a)

Study of bones

b)

Study of muscles

c)

Study of joints

d)

Study of ligaments

4.

What is the scientific study of joints called?

a)

Arthrology

b)

Neurology

c)

Myology

d)

Osteology

5.

Which statement best describes a joint (articulation)?

a)

A place where two bones meet to allow movement only

b)

A place where two bones meet, a bone meets cartilage, or a tooth meets bone, supporting stability or movement

c)

A pad of cartilage between bones that produces fluid

d)

A site where ligaments attach muscles to bones

6.

Which relationship between mobility and stability is most accurate?

a)

Mobility and stability are unrelated

b)

The more mobile a joint, the more stable it is

c)

The more mobile a joint, the less stable it is

d)

The less mobile a joint, the less stable it is

7.

Which joint type is always functionally diarthrotic?

a)

Cartilaginous joints

b)

Synovial joints

c)

Sutures

d)

Fibrous joints

8.

Which classification scheme matches structure rather than function?

a)

Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

b)

Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

c)

Immobile, slightly mobile, freely mobile

d)

Stable, semi-stable, mobile

9.

Which statement correctly distinguishes structural and functional joint classifications?

a)

Structural classification is based on binding material and presence of a cavity; functional classification is based on movement permitted.

b)

Structural classification is based on movement; functional on structure.

c)

Both use the same categories.

d)

Functional classification refers only to fibrous joints.

10.

The root fibro- in fibrous means:

a)

Fiber

b)

Bone

c)

Ligament

d)

Cartilage

11.

The suffix -ous in fibrous indicates:

a)

Pertaining to or composed of

b)

Capable of moving

c)

Type of growth

d)

Causing inflammation

12.

The literal meaning of fibrous is:

a)

Pertaining to or composed of fibers

b)

Joined by bone

c)

Containing cartilage

d)

Growing together

13.

In cartilaginous, the root cartilag- refers to:

a)

Fiber

b)

Ligament

c)

Cartilage

d)

Joint

14.

The suffix -inous (or -ous) in cartilaginous means:

a)

Capable of

b)

Pertaining to or composed of

c)

Binding of

d)

Inflammation of

15.

The literal meaning of cartilaginous is:

a)

Pertaining to or composed of cartilage

b)

Joined by bone

c)

Capable of motion

d)

Containing ligaments

16.

In synovial, the prefix syn- means:

a)

Separate

b)

With/together

c)

Between

d)

Inside

17.

The root ov- in synovial comes from Latin ovum, meaning:

a)

Egg

b)

Oil

c)

Circle

d)

Fluid

18.

The suffix -al in synovial means:

a)

Pertaining to

b)

Condition of

c)

Study of

d)

Inflammation of

19.

The literal meaning of synovial is:

a)

Pertaining to egg-like fluid

b)

Joined by cartilage

c)

Bone joint fusion

d)

Structure of a ligament

20.

The term synostosis most literally refers to:

a)

A state of cartilage growth

b)

A joint bound by a ligament

c)

A condition of bone union/fusion

d)

A cavity within a joint

21.

In interosseous membrane, inter- and -osseous together mean:

a)

Within cartilage

b)

Between bones

c)

Around tendons

d)

Inside ligaments

22.

In synarthrosis, the prefix syn- means:

a)

Against

b)

Together/with

c)

Around

d)

Apart

23.

The suffix -arthrosis means:

a)

Growth

b)

Joint or articulation

c)

Cartilage

d)

Bone fusion

24.

The literal meaning of synarthrosis is:

a)

Joint together (immovable joint)

b)

Joint apart (freely movable joint)

c)

Joint with cartilage

d)

Joint with bone fusion

25.

In amphiarthrosis, the prefix amphi- means:

a)

Single

b)

Both sides or around

c)

Partial

d)

Flexible

26.

The literal translation of amphiarthrosis is:

a)

Joint with slight movement

b)

Bone connection

c)

Muscle linkage

d)

Joint fully fused

27.

The prefix dia- in diarthrosis means:

a)

Through/apart

b)

Toward

c)

Within

d)

Around

28.

The literal meaning of diarthrosis is:

a)

Freely movable joint

b)

Slightly movable joint

c)

Immovable joint

d)

Joint fused with cartilage

29.

Which suffix identifies a functional classification of joints?

a)

-logy

b)

-arthrosis

c)

-desmo-

d)

-chondro-

30.

What connective tissue primarily links bones in fibrous joints?

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Dense regular connective tissue

d)

Hyaline cartilage

31.

The collagen fibers in fibrous joints are typically arranged as:

a)

Dense regular connective tissue

b)

Dense irregular connective tissue

c)

Elastic connective tissue

d)

Reticular connective tissue

32.

Which is a correct example of a gomphosis?

a)

Radius–ulna at proximal joint

b)

Teeth anchored in alveoli

c)

Tibia–fibula at the knee

d)

Cranial base synchondrosis

33.

What is the functional classification of a gomphosis?

a)

Synarthrosis

b)

Amphiarthrosis

c)

Diarthrosis

d)

Synostosis

34.

Sutures are structurally fibrous and functionally:

a)

Diarthroses

b)

Amphiarthroses

c)

Synarthroses

d)

Synchondroses

35.

As a person ages, cranial sutures typically become synostoses, meaning they:

a)

Remain flexible indefinitely

b)

Dissolve, leaving gaps

c)

Form new bones

d)

Progressively ossify, fusing adjacent bones

36.

During childhood, the primary function of sutures is to:

a)

Permit skull growth with brain expansion

b)

Provide major muscle attachment sites

c)

Allow wide motion between skull bones

d)

Cushion the brain during impact

37.

Syndesmoses are structurally:

a)

Cartilaginous joints

b)

Fibrous joints

c)

Synovial joints

d)

Ball-and-socket joints

38.

What mobility do syndesmoses typically allow?

a)

None

b)

Slight mobility

c)

Full multiaxial mobility

d)

Rotation only

39.

A classic location for a syndesmosis is between the:

a)

Femur and patella

b)

Radius and ulna (interosseous membrane)

c)

Humerus and scapula

d)

Vertebral bodies

40.

Which is another typical location for a syndesmosis?

a)

Distal tibiofibular joint

b)

Humeroulnar joint

c)

Carpometacarpal joint of thumb

d)

Glenohumeral joint

41.

Functionally, syndesmoses are:

a)

Synarthroses

b)

Amphiarthroses

c)

Diarthroses

d)

Synostoses

42.

In a synchondrosis, bones are united by:

a)

Elastic cartilage

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Articular cartilage

43.

Which location commonly features synchondroses?

a)

Pubic symphysis

b)

Intervertebral discs

c)

Epiphyseal plates in growing bones

d)

Knee menisci

44.

Functional classification of synchondroses:

a)

Synarthroses

b)

Amphiarthroses

c)

Diarthroses

d)

Synostoses only

45.

The spheno-occipital synchondrosis lies between the:

a)

Epiphysis and diaphysis of long bones

b)

Sphenoid and occipital bones

c)

Rib and sternum at ribs 2 to 7

d)

Adjacent vertebral bodies

46.

Which joint is a synchondrosis involving costal cartilage?

a)

Costochondral joint

b)

Pubic symphysis

c)

Intervertebral joint

d)

Glenohumeral joint

47.

The joint between a rib and its costal cartilage (costochondral joint) is a:

a)

Synovial joint

b)

Synchondrosis

c)

Syndesmosis

d)

Symphysis

48.

Functionally, the costochondral joints are best classified as:

a)

Diarthroses

b)

Amphiarthroses

c)

Synarthroses

d)

Synostoses

49.

The first sternocostal joint is a:

a)

Synovial hinge

b)

Synchondrosis

c)

Symphysis

d)

Fibrous suture

50.

Unlike the first sternocostal joint, the sternocostal joints of ribs 2 to 7 are best classified as:

a)

Synchondrosis

b)

Synovial

c)

Symphysis

d)

Gomphosis

51.

In a symphysis, bones are united by:

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Fibrocartilage

c)

Dense connective tissue

d)

Elastic cartilage

52.

The functional classification of symphyses is:

a)

Synarthroses

b)

Amphiarthroses

c)

Diarthroses

d)

Synostoses

53.

Which is a correct example of a symphysis?

a)

Suture

b)

Intervertebral joints

c)

Synovial knee

d)

Gomphosis

54.

Which key functional difference distinguishes synchondroses from symphyses?

a)

Synchondroses are immovable; symphyses allow slight movement.

b)

Both are freely movable.

c)

Synchondroses have fibrocartilage; symphyses have hyaline cartilage.

d)

Symphyses fuse during growth; synchondroses persist for life.

55.

What type of cartilage predominates in a symphysis?

a)

Articular hyaline

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Calcified cartilage

56.

The defining feature of synovial joints is:

a)

Bones fused by fibrocartilage

b)

Joint cavity with synovial fluid

c)

No movement permitted

d)

Connection by dense regular CT only

57.

What is the primary role of synovial fluid?

a)

Generate electrical signals

b)

Lubricate articular surfaces

c)

Connect bones

d)

Produce muscle force

58.

Which structure produces synovial fluid?

a)

Fibrous layer

b)

Articular cartilage

c)

Joint cavity

d)

Synovial membrane

59.

Which layer of the joint capsule provides mechanical strength and is continuous with the periosteum?

a)

Fibrous layer

b)

Synovial membrane

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Meniscus

60.

The synovial membrane lines the inner capsule except over:

a)

Articular cartilage and intra-articular fibrocartilage

b)

Fat pads

c)

Subchondral bone

d)

Periosteum

61.

Main function of articular cartilage in synovial joints:

a)

Produce synovial fluid

b)

Reduce friction and absorb compression

c)

Connect bones across a joint

d)

Provide proprioceptive input

62.

Why does damaged articular cartilage often heal slowly?

a)

It is avascular

b)

It is constantly moving

c)

It is covered by perichondrium

d)

It expands and contracts frequently

63.

Which component stabilizes, strengthens, and reinforces synovial joints?

a)

Ligaments

b)

Synovial fluid

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Synovial membrane

64.

Intrinsic ligaments are located:

a)

Inside the synovial cavity

b)

As thickenings of the fibrous capsule

c)

Separate from the capsule

d)

Within the synovial membrane

65.

Which sensory receptor detects joint position and movement?

a)

Thermoreceptors

b)

Chemoreceptors

c)

Proprioceptors

d)

Nociceptors

66.

Which receptor detects pain in joints?

a)

Proprioceptors

b)

Thermoreceptors

c)

Mechanoreceptors only

d)

Nociceptors

67.

Which structure is avascular and nourished by synovial fluid diffusion?

a)

Synovial membrane

b)

Articular cartilage

c)

Capsular ligaments

d)

Subchondral bone

68.

According to Hilton’s law, joint nerves typically also innervate:

a)

Unrelated distant muscles only

b)

Only the muscles that move the joint

c)

The muscles that move the joint or the skin over it

d)

Only the skin over the joint

69.

The elbow joint is:

a)

Synovial (hinge)

b)

Fibrous (suture)

c)

Cartilaginous (symphysis)

d)

Synovial (ball-and-socket)

70.

The glenohumeral joint is:

a)

Synovial (ball-and-socket)

b)

Cartilaginous (symphysis)

c)

Fibrous (suture)

d)

Synovial (hinge)

71.

Which joint allows depression, elevation, and circumduction of the clavicle?

a)

Sternoclavicular

b)

Radioulnar

c)

Glenohumeral

d)

Acromioclavicular

72.

The sternoclavicular joint is structurally a:

a)

Plane joint

b)

Saddle joint with an articular disc

c)

Condylar joint

d)

Hinge joint

73.

Which pairing correctly matches a joint with its number of axes?

a)

Hinge—uniaxial

b)

Saddle—nonaxial

c)

Ball-and-socket—biaxial

d)

Plane—multiaxial

74.

Which synovial joint type is least mobile?

a)

Plane

b)

Hinge

c)

Saddle

d)

Ball-and-socket

75.

A plane (gliding) joint primarily permits:

a)

Multiaxial movement

b)

Rotation around a single axis

c)

Limited sliding in one plane

d)

Angular movement only

76.

The knee is best described as a:

a)

Pure hinge joint with no fibrocartilage

b)

Modified hinge (bicondylar) joint with menisci

c)

Saddle joint with a disc

d)

Plane joint

77.

Which is an example of a plane joint?

a)

Elbow

b)

Intercarpal joints

c)

Hip

d)

Knee

78.

A joint formed by an oval convex surface fitting into an oval concavity is:

a)

Hinge

b)

Pivot

c)

Condylar

d)

Plane

79.

“Condylar” is also known as:

a)

Rotatory

b)

Ellipsoid/condyloid

c)

Saddle

d)

Bicondylar only

80.

Which joint permits thumb opposition?

a)

Saddle

b)

Plane

c)

Ball-and-socket

d)

Hinge

81.

Which joint type is most freely mobile?

a)

Hinge

b)

Saddle

c)

Plane

d)

Ball-and-socket

82.

Which synovial joint type allows movement in two planes but not rotation?

a)

Condylar

b)

Pivot

c)

Ball-and-socket

d)

Plane

83.

Which joint is a pivot joint?

a)

Proximal radioulnar

b)

Metacarpophalangeal

c)

Talocrural

d)

Temporomandibular

84.

The atlanto-occipital joint (nodding “yes”) is a:

a)

Condylar (ellipsoid) joint

b)

Pivot joint

c)

Plane joint

d)

Ball-and-socket joint

85.

Where does the spherical head of one bone fit into a cuplike socket?

a)

Hinge

b)

Condylar

c)

Ball-and-socket

d)

Plane

86.

Which joint allows the head to shake “no”?

a)

Pivot

b)

Ball-and-socket

c)

Hinge

d)

Plane

87.

The metacarpophalangeal joints permit:

a)

Only abduction/adduction

b)

Only flexion/extension

c)

Rotation and circumduction only

d)

Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction

88.

Which term describes a movement that decreases the angle between articulating bones in an anterior–posterior plane?

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Abduction

d)

Rotation

89.

Which term describes a movement that increases the angle between articulating bones in an anterior–posterior plane?

a)

Flexion

b)

Circumduction

c)

Extension

d)

Rotation

90.

Lateral flexion most commonly occurs at which joints?

a)

Elbow and wrist joints

b)

Intervertebral joints of the cervical and lumbar regions

c)

Knee and hip joints

d)

Costovertebral joints

91.

Which movement involves moving a body part away from the midline of the body in the coronal plane?

a)

Adduction

b)

Abduction

c)

Extension

d)

Elevation

92.

Which movement involves returning a body part toward the midline of the body?

a)

Adduction

b)

Abduction

c)

Flexion

d)

Depression

93.

Circumduction occurs when:

a)

A bone pivots around its long axis

b)

A flat surface glides over another

c)

A bone’s distal end moves in a circular path while the proximal end remains relatively stationary

d)

The joint rotates within a single plane

94.

Pronation of the forearm results in the palm facing:

a)

Anteriorly (or superiorly if the elbow is flexed)

b)

Laterally (or externally if the elbow is flexed)

c)

Medially (or internally if the elbow is flexed)

d)

Posteriorly (or inferiorly if the elbow is flexed)

95.

Supination of the forearm results in the palm facing:

a)

Medially (or internally if the elbow is flexed)

b)

Laterally (or externally if the elbow is flexed)

c)

Anteriorly (or superiorly if the elbow is flexed)

d)

Posteriorly (or inferiorly if the elbow is flexed)

96.

Clinically, “pronation” and “supination” may also refer to movements of the foot. In this context, which statement is most accurate?

a)

Foot pronation combines eversion, dorsiflexion, and abduction; foot supination combines inversion, plantarflexion, and adduction.

b)

Foot pronation and supination refer only to toe extension and flexion.

c)

Foot pronation involves flexion of the ankle; supination involves extension.

d)

These terms are never applied to the foot in clinical settings.

97.

Depression is best defined as:

a)

Movement of a body part superiorly

b)

Movement away from the midline

c)

Rotation around the long axis

d)

Movement of a body part inferiorly

98.

Elevation is best defined as:

a)

Movement toward the midline

b)

Anterior movement in the horizontal plane

c)

Movement of a body part superiorly

d)

Movement of a body part inferiorly

99.

Dorsiflexion refers to:

a)

Extension of the toes

b)

Movement of the dorsum of the foot toward the leg, decreasing the angle at the ankle

c)

Raising the heel off the ground

d)

Rotation of the foot laterally

100.

Plantarflexion refers to:

a)

Movement of the sole downward, increasing the angle at the ankle

b)

Upward movement of the foot toward the leg

c)

Movement of the toes laterally

d)

Gliding of tarsal bones

101.

Eversion of the foot results in the sole turning:

a)

Medially

b)

Superiorly

c)

Laterally

d)

Inferiorly

102.

Inversion of the foot results in the sole turning:

a)

Laterally

b)

Superiorly

c)

Anteriorly

d)

Medially

103.

Protraction refers to:

a)

Posterior movement in the horizontal plane

b)

Anterior movement of a body part in the horizontal plane

c)

Elevation of the mandible

d)

Depression of the mandible

104.

Retraction refers to:

a)

Posterior movement of a body part in the horizontal plane

b)

Anterior movement of a body part in the horizontal plane

c)

Depression of the mandible

d)

Elevation of the scapula

105.

Opposition refers to:

a)

Movement of the thumb away from the palm

b)

Flexion of the wrist

c)

Movement of the thumb toward the fingers or palm

d)

Rotation of the radius over the ulna

106.

Reposition refers to:

a)

Movement of the thumb toward the fingers

b)

Return of the thumb from opposition to its anatomical position

c)

Rotation of the radius over the ulna

d)

Extension of the wrist

107.

Gliding motion occurs primarily between which structures?

a)

Flat articular surfaces such as intercarpal joints

b)

Rounded bone heads and sockets

c)

Bones joined by fibrocartilage

d)

Ligaments sliding over tendons

108.

Gliding is best described as:

a)

Two surfaces sliding with angle unchanged

b)

Movement decreasing the joint angle

c)

Movement increasing the joint angle

d)

Rotation about a long axis

109.

Movement that decreases the angle between articulating bones in an anterior-posterior plane is:

a)

Abduction

b)

Extension

c)

Flexion

d)

Lateral flexion

110.

Movement that increases the angle between articulating bones in an anterior-posterior plane is:

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Abduction

d)

Circumduction

111.

Lateral flexion commonly occurs at:

a)

Elbow

b)

Intervertebral joints (cervical & lumbar)

c)

Radiocarpal joint

d)

Atlanto-occipital only

112.

Abduction and adduction occur primarily in which anatomical plane?

a)

Coronal

b)

Sagittal

c)

Transverse

d)

Oblique

113.

Abduction is:

a)

Movement toward the midline

b)

Movement away from the midline

c)

Rotation around a long axis

d)

Bending at a joint

114.

The opposing movement to abduction is:

a)

Extension

b)

Rotation

c)

Adduction

d)

Circumduction

115.

Circumduction involves:

a)

A bone’s distal end moving in a circle with proximal end relatively fixed

b)

Pure rotation about the long axis

c)

Elevation then depression

d)

Pure gliding with no angle change

116.

Pronation and supination occur at the:

a)

Forearm

b)

Knee

c)

Shoulder

d)

Hip

117.

Pronation and supination differ from medial (internal)/lateral (external) rotation because the former involve:

a)

Radius rotating around the ulna

b)

Entire limb rotating about its long axis

c)

A joint without a pivot

d)

Axial rotation at the neck

118.

Turning the anterior surface of the femur medially is:

a)

Lateral (external) rotation

b)

Medial (internal) rotation

c)

Supination

d)

Pronation

119.

Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion occur at the:

a)

Intertarsal joints

b)

Talocrural (ankle) joint

c)

Temporomandibular joint

d)

Glenohumeral joint

120.

Special movements of the temporomandibular joint are:

a)

Eversion/inversion

b)

Depression/elevation

c)

Opposition/reposition

d)

Protraction/retraction

121.

A movement distinctively tested at the temporomandibular joint is:

a)

Protraction/retraction of the mandible

b)

Opposition of the thumb

c)

Eversion/inversion of the foot

d)

Radial/ulnar deviation of the wrist

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