wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NDC + CA Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary objective of Information Security is to protect information with respect to:

a)

Cost reduction

b)

Performance optimization

c)

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

d)

Network scalability

2.

A vulnerability is best defined as:

a)

A method used by attackers

b)

A weakness that can be exploited

c)

An incident causing damage

d)

A security policy violation

3.

Which firewall implementation places a bastion host behind a packet-filtering router?

a)

Dual-homed firewall

b)

Screened subnet firewall

c)

Screened host firewall

d)

Proxy firewall

4.

Stateful inspection firewalls differ from packet filtering firewalls because they:

a)

Work only at application layer

b)

Maintain session state information

c)

Do not inspect packet headers

d)

Are stateless by design

5.

iptables primarily operates at which layer of the OSI model?

a)

Physical

b)

Data Link

c)

Network

d)

Application

6.

Wireshark is mainly used for:

a)

Firewall rule enforcement

b)

Packet capture and analysis

c)

Malware removal

d)

VPN tunneling

7.

Which component of a firewall architecture isolates public-facing services?

a)

LAN

b)

Core switch

c)

DMZ

d)

Internal VLAN

8.

IDS differs from IPS because IDS primarily:

a)

Blocks traffic automatically

b)

Modifies packets

c)

Detects and alerts

d)

Encrypts sessions

9.

A host-based IDS (HIDS) mainly monitors:

a)

Network traffic patterns

b)

Router logs

c)

System-level activities

d)

External threats only

10.

Defense-in-depth refers to:

a)

Single strong perimeter firewall

b)

Multiple layered security controls

c)

Encryption-only strategy

d)

Cloud-based defense model

11.

(Scenario) During a lab, iptables rules are not working as expected after reboot. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Kernel modules not loaded

b)

Rules not saved persistently

c)

Incorrect default policy

d)

Wrong network interface

12.

(Scenario) An organization observes slow network performance after enabling deep packet inspection on its firewall. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Disable all firewall rules

b)

Tune inspection policies

c)

Remove IDS

d)

Switch to packet filtering only

13.

(Scenario) While analyzing packets in Wireshark, repeated SYN packets without ACKs are observed. This most likely indicates:

a)

Port scanning

b)

SYN flood attack

c)

DNS poisoning

d)

ARP spoofing

14.

(Scenario) A security team wants to prevent brute-force SSH attacks using iptables. Which approach is most suitable?

a)

Static ACCEPT rules

b)

Packet mirroring

c)

Rate limiting with DROP targets

d)

Disabling SSH permanently

15.

(Scenario) Snort generates alerts but traffic is not blocked. What configuration change is required?

a)

Enable promiscuous mode

b)

Deploy Snort inline as IPS

c)

Change rule syntax

d)

Increase log storage

16.

(Scenario) During VPN setup, split tunneling is enabled. What is the primary risk?

a)

Increased latency

b)

Data leakage through local network

c)

Certificate expiration

d)

Tunnel failure

17.

(Scenario) A DoS attack is detected during lab simulation. Which mitigation is most effective at firewall level?

a)

Enable logging only

b)

Increase bandwidth

c)

Rate limiting and IP blacklisting

d)

Disable IDS

18.

Which VPN protocol operates at Layer 3 and supports encryption and authentication?

a)

PPTP

b)

L2TP

c)

IPsec

d)

GRE

19.

SIEM systems primarily perform:

a)

Packet filtering

b)

Log correlation and event triggering

c)

Malware detection only

d)

Vulnerability scanning

20.

IDS sensors deployed close to hosts are referred to as:

a)

Network sensors

b)

Distributed sensors

c)

Host-based sensors

d)

Perimeter sensors

21.

The primary purpose of a security audit is to:

a)

Eliminate all risks

b)

Measure compliance and control effectiveness

c)

Replace management

d)

Install security tools

22.

Internal audit teams must primarily ensure:

a)

Legal prosecution

b)

Independent assessment

c)

System development

d)

Vendor management

23.

The principle of audits that requires evidence-based conclusions is known as:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Due professional care

c)

Availability

d)

Risk acceptance

24.

Assurance evaluation levels generally indicate:

a)

Risk severity

b)

Depth of evaluation

c)

Compliance cost

d)

Auditor experience

25.

NIST Cybersecurity Framework is organized around:

a)

Domains

b)

Control objectives

c)

Core functions

d)

Audit reports

26.

GDPR primarily protects:

a)

Financial data only

b)

Personal data of individuals

c)

Corporate trade secrets

d)

Network logs

27.

ISO/IEC 27001 focuses mainly on:

a)

Product quality

b)

Information Security Management System (ISMS)

c)

Software development lifecycle

d)

Network monitoring

28.

SOC reports are issued to evaluate:

a)

Software vulnerabilities

b)

Internal controls of service organizations

c)

Network performance

d)

Incident response speed

29.

COBIT is best described as a framework for:

a)

Network defense

b)

IT governance and management

c)

Penetration testing

d)

Cryptographic design

30.

Compared to ITIL, COBIT focuses more on:

a)

Service operation

b)

Governance and control objectives

c)

Incident handling

d)

Change tickets

31.

HIPAA primarily applies to:

a)

Financial institutions

b)

Healthcare information

c)

Telecom providers

d)

Educational records

32.

PCI DSS compliance levels are determined based on:

a)

Type of card used

b)

Number of transactions processed

c)

Geographic region

d)

Encryption algorithms

33.

CIS Critical Security Controls are best described as:

a)

Legal mandates

b)

Prioritized best practices

c)

Penetration testing tools

d)

Vendor-specific rules

34.

CIS Benchmarks mainly provide:

a)

Risk scores

b)

Secure configuration guidelines

c)

Audit checklists

d)

Incident reports

35.

SSE-CMM primarily addresses:

a)

Network throughput

b)

Security engineering maturity

c)

Legal compliance

d)

Incident response

36.

(Scenario) During a GDPR audit, personal data is found stored without consent records. What is the immediate compliance gap?

a)

Data minimization

b)

Lawful basis for processing

c)

Data portability

d)

Breach notification

37.

(Scenario) An ISO 27001 audit identifies missing risk assessment documentation. Which clause area is most affected?

a)

Asset management

b)

Risk management process

c)

Incident handling

d)

Supplier relations

38.

(Scenario) A global bank’s internal audit finds weak segregation of duties in IT operations. This primarily violates:

a)

Availability principle

b)

Internal control effectiveness

c)

Data encryption policy

d)

Network zoning

39.

(Scenario) An organization handling card payments stores CVV numbers post-authorization. Which standard is violated?

a)

HIPAA

b)

GDPR

c)

PCI DSS

d)

SOX

40.

(Scenario) During a SOX compliance audit, lack of logging for financial systems is observed. What is the most critical impact?

a)

Reduced system performance

b)

Inability to ensure audit trail

c)

Increased storage cost

d)

Delayed transactions