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AWS DevOps Tech Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which AWS service provides a key management system that allows you to create and manage cryptographic keys for encrypting data across other AWS services?

a)

AWS Certificate Manager

b)

AWS Secrets Manager

c)

AWS Key Management Service (KMS)

d)

AWS CloudHSM

2.

What is the primary purpose of a StatefulSet in Kubernetes?

a)

To manage stateless applications

b)

To run batch jobs to completion

c)

To manage stateful applications with stable network identifiers and persistent storage

d)

To ensure a Pod runs on every node in the cluster

3.

In the context of Infrastructure as Code, what does the "immutable infrastructure" pattern emphasize?

a)

Making in-place updates to existing servers

b)

Replacing servers entirely rather than modifying them

c)

Using configuration management tools for drift correction

d)

Manually patching servers on a schedule

4.

Which AWS compute service is designed specifically to run code in response to events without provisioning or managing servers?

a)

Amazon EC2

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon ECS

d)

AWS Fargate

5.

What is the core function of an Amazon Machine Image (AMI)?

a)

To provide block-level storage for an EC2 instance

b)

To serve as a template that contains the software configuration for an instance

c)

To define the network settings for a VPC

d)

To store application logs

6.

When configuring an Application Load Balancer (ALB), what component is used to define routing rules based on content, such as URL path or host header?

a)

Target Group

b)

Listener

c)

Security Group

d)

Listener Rule

7.

In Git, which command allows you to reapply commits from one branch onto another, potentially rewriting commit history?

a)

git merge

b)

git rebase

c)

git cherry-pick

d)

git fetch

8.

Which AWS service enables you to deploy, manage, and scale containerized applications using a choice of open-source container orchestration platforms?

a)

Amazon ECS

b)

Amazon EKS

c)

AWS App Runner

d)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

9.

What is the primary benefit of using Amazon RDS Proxy?

a)

It automatically scales database storage.

b)

It manages and pools database connections to improve scalability.

c)

It provides a read-only copy of the database for analytics.

d)

It encrypts all data at rest automatically.

10.

Within Kubernetes, which object is responsible for declaring the desired state for Pod replicas, including the update strategy?

a)

ReplicaSet

b)

DaemonSet

c)

Deployment

d)

StatefulSet

11.

For managing secrets in a Dockerized application, what is a secure method that avoids hardcoding credentials in the Dockerfile?

a)

Using environment variables passed at runtime

b)

Using Docker secrets with Docker Swarm

c)

Using a configuration file mounted as a volume

d)

All of the above

12.

What does the term "Configuration Drift" refer to in DevOps?

a)

The planned migration of configuration to a new system

b)

The unintended divergence of a system's actual state from its defined, desired state

c)

The automated synchronization of configuration files

d)

The version control history of configuration changes

13.

Which AWS networking feature allows resources in one VPC to communicate with resources in another VPC using private IP addresses?

a)

Internet Gateway

b)

NAT Gateway

c)

VPC Peering

d)

VPN Connection

14.

What is the main purpose of a DaemonSet in Kubernetes?

a)

To run a single Pod on a specific node

b)

To ensure a copy of a Pod runs on all (or some) nodes in the cluster

c)

To manage a set of identical, stateful Pods

d)

To run a Pod until completion

15.

Which AWS service provides a fully managed Apache Kafka service to build and run applications that use real-time streaming data?

a)

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams

b)

Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka (MSK)

c)

Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)

d)

Amazon EventBridge

16.

In the context of CI/CD, what is a "build artifact"?

a)

The source code repository

b)

The output of a build process, such as a compiled binary or a Docker image

c)

The test execution report

d)

The deployment script

17.

Which AWS service provides a registry for storing, managing, and deploying Docker container images?

a)

Amazon S3

b)

AWS CodeArtifact

c)

Amazon Elastic Container Registry (ECR)

d)

AWS Systems Manager

18.

What is the primary difference between git merge and git rebase?

a)

Merge creates a new commit, while rebase does not.

b)

Rebase integrates changes by moving or replaying commits, while merge creates a merge commit.

c)

Merge is used for branching, while rebase is used for tagging.

d)

There is no functional difference.

19.

To achieve high availability for an internet-facing web application, across which AWS infrastructure units should resources be distributed?

a)

Different Edge Locations

b)

Different Availability Zones within a Region

c)

Different AWS Regions

d)

Different VPCs

20.

Which Kubernetes concept is used to define a set of access rules that control traffic flow between Pods?

a)

Service

b)

Ingress

c)

NetworkPolicy

d)

ConfigMap

21.

Which AWS service provides a simple and scalable shared file storage solution for use with AWS Cloud services and on-premises resources?

a)

Amazon EBS

b)

Amazon EFS

c)

Amazon FSx

d)

Amazon S3

22.

In a typical Git workflow, what does the command git stash do?

a)

Permanently deletes uncommitted changes

b)

Saves uncommitted changes locally to be reapplied later

c)

Commits changes to a remote repository

d)

Creates a new branch

23.

Which tool is commonly used for defining and running multi-container Docker applications, often using a docker-compose.yml file?

a)

Docker Swarm

b)

Kubernetes

c)

Docker Compose

d)

Podman

24.

What is the main purpose of an AWS Transit Gateway?

a)

To connect a VPC to the internet

b)

To simplify network architecture by connecting VPCs and on-premises networks through a central hub

c)

To provide a dedicated network connection from an on-premises data center to AWS

d)

To filter traffic at the subnet level

25.

Which of the following is NOT a valid strategy for deploying a new version of an application in Kubernetes?

a)

Rolling Update

b)

Recreate

c)

Blue/Green (managed externally)

d)

In-place hot swap

26.

Which AWS service provides managed MySQL and PostgreSQL-compatible relational databases with performance and scalability advantages?

a)

Amazon RDS for MySQL

b)

Amazon Aurora

c)

Amazon DynamoDB

d)

Amazon Redshift

27.

What does the "Infrastructure as Code" practice aim to solve?

a)

Manual, error-prone infrastructure provisioning and management

b)

The high cost of cloud computing

c)

A lack of programming skills in operations teams

d)

Slow internet connectivity

28.

In AWS IAM, what is an "inline policy"?

a)

A managed policy created and maintained by AWS

b)

A policy that is embedded directly into a single IAM user, group, or role

c)

A JSON document that defines permissions

d)

The default policy applied to all new users

29.

Which component in a Jenkins Pipeline defines the series of stages and steps for the build, test, and deploy process?

a)

Jenkinsfile

b)

pipeline.yaml

c)

build.xml

d)

Jenkins config

30.

Which AWS service is a fully managed service that makes it easy to set up, operate, and scale a relational database in the cloud?

a)

Amazon DynamoDB

b)

Amazon Redshift

c)

Amazon RDS

d)

Amazon ElastiCache

31.

What is the purpose of a Pod Security Admission (PSA) or Pod Security Policy (PSP) in Kubernetes?

a)

To define how Pods communicate with each other

b)

To control security-sensitive aspects of the Pod specification

c)

To automatically scale the number of Pods

d)

To provide persistent storage to Pods

32.

For cost optimization, which EC2 purchasing model provides the highest discount but can be interrupted with short notice?

a)

On-Demand Instances

b)

Reserved Instances

c)

Spot Instances

d)

Dedicated Hosts

33.

Which file is used to define the desired state of a Kubernetes application, including Deployments, Services, and ConfigMaps?

a)

Dockerfile

b)

deployment.yaml (a Kubernetes manifest)

c)

Jenkinsfile

d)

terraform.tf

34.

Which AWS service enables you to monitor and collect metrics, collect and monitor log files, and set alarms?

a)

AWS CloudTrail

b)

Amazon CloudWatch

c)

AWS Config

d)

AWS Trusted Advisor

35.

In a Docker multi-stage build, what is the key advantage?

a)

It allows running multiple containers from a single image.

b)

It creates smaller final images by separating build-time and runtime dependencies.

c)

It enables building images for multiple architectures simultaneously.

d)

It speeds up the image push process to a registry.

36.

Which AWS service provides a way to model and provision AWS and third-party resources using declarative configuration files?

a)

AWS OpsWorks

b)

AWS CloudFormation

c)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

d)

AWS Systems Manager

37.

What is the role of an Ingress Controller in Kubernetes?

a)

It manages external access to services, typically HTTP/HTTPS.

b)

It controls internal Pod-to-Pod communication.

c)

It provides persistent storage for stateful applications.

d)

It schedules Pods onto nodes.

38.

Which AWS tool or service helps analyze and optimize AWS costs by providing recommendations for Reserved Instance purchases?

a)

AWS Cost Explorer

b)

AWS Budgets

c)

AWS Pricing Calculator

d)

AWS Compute Optimizer

39.

In the context of version control, what is a "fast-forward merge"?

a)

A merge that creates a merge commit regardless of history

b)

A merge where the target branch's tip is ahead of the source branch, allowing the pointer to move forward linearly

c)

A rebase operation

d)

A merge that always results in a conflict

40.

Which AWS service provides DDoS protection that is automatically enabled for all AWS customers at no additional cost?

a)

AWS Shield Standard

b)

AWS Shield Advanced

c)

AWS WAF

d)

Amazon GuardDuty