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Psychology

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term describes the tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs?

a)

Confirmation Bias

b)

Hindsight Bias

c)

Overconfidence

d)

Placebo Effect

2.

What is the term for a prediction that can be tested through study and experimentation?

a)

Theory

b)

Principle

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Law

3.

Which method involves watching behaviors occur naturally without interference?

a)

Naturalistic Observation

b)

Case Study

c)

Survey Technique

d)

Experimental Method

4.

What is the variable that is tested and measured in a scientific experiment?

a)

Control Variable

b)

Confounding Variable

c)

Independent Variable

d)

Dependent Variable

5.

Which perspective focuses on observable behaviors and how they're learned?

a)

Humanistic Perspective

b)

Cognitive Perspective

c)

Biological Perspective

d)

Behavioral Perspective

6.

Which of the following best defines psychology?

a)

The scientific study of behavior and mental processes

b)

The philosophical study of the mind

c)

The analysis of human interactions

d)

The study of biological systems

7.

Which modern psychological approach focuses on unconscious drives and childhood experiences?

a)

Humanistic

b)

Behavioral

c)

Psychoanalytic

d)

Cognitive

8.

What does the cognitive approach primarily emphasize?

a)

Genetics and the brain’s physical structure

b)

Thoughts, memory, and problem-solving

c)

The influence of culture on behavior

d)

The role of survival instincts

9.

After a surprising result, someone claims they 'knew it all along.' This is an example of which bias?

a)

Social Desirability Bias

b)

Confirmation Bias

c)

Hindsight Bias

d)

Cognitive Bias

10.

In an experiment, the variable that is manipulated is called the:

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Control variable

d)

Confounding variable

11.

Random assignment is used to:

a)

Control for confounding variables

b)

Guarantee results align with the hypothesis

c)

Increase participant variability

d)

Test the reliability of results

12.

A correlation coefficient of +0.85 indicates:

a)

No relationship between variables

b)

A weak negative relationship

c)

A strong positive relationship

d)

Causation

13.

Double-blind procedures are primarily used to reduce:

a)

Confirmation bias

b)

Sampling bias

c)

Placebo effects

d)

Experimenter bias

14.

What is the purpose of a control group in an experiment?

a)

To ensure the hypothesis is supported

b)

To establish a baseline for comparison

c)

To manipulate the independent variable

d)

To eliminate the dependent variable

15.

Which of the following accurately describes operational definitions?

a)

Broad definitions used in all experiments

b)

Specific explanations of how variables are measured

c)

Descriptions of the population being studied

d)

Hypothetical constructs without empirical basis

16.

Why do psychologists use experiments?

a)

To observe natural behavior.

b)

To establish cause and effect.

c)

To collect survey data.

d)

To analyze historical trends.

17.

What are confounding variables?

a)

Variables that are kept constant.

b)

Variables that interfere with the results.

c)

Variables that are measured.

d)

Variables that are manipulated.

18.

What is the median in a dataset?

a)

The most frequently occurring value.

b)

The middle value when the data is ordered.

c)

The average of all values.

d)

The difference between the highest and lowest values.

19.

What does a positive correlation indicate?

a)

As one variable increases, the other decreases.

b)

There is no relationship between the variables.

c)

As one variable increases, the other also increases.

d)

The variables are inversely related.

20.

What does correlation NOT imply?

a)

Causation

b)

Association

c)

Relationship

d)

Connection

21.
chemical messager, released into the bloodstream, slow but long lasting
a)
neurotransmitter
b)
hormones
22.
sending end of a neuron
a)
dendrites
b)
axon terminals
23.
receiving end of a neuron
a)
dendrites
b)
synapatics
24.
Soma
a)
cell body
b)
vessicles
25.
mimic molecule that binds to receptors, gains the benefit of that molecule
a)
antagonist
b)
agonist
26.
If a child has brown eyes when she is born, it would be an example of...
a)
nature
b)
nurture 
27.

A small, important area at the center of the brain that produces hormones. It primarily controls the autonomic functions of the body and integrates appropriate autonomic responses to difference stimuli.

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thyroid Gland

c)

Parathyroid Gland

d)

Pineal Gland

28.

The only neurons in the Central Nervous System, these neurons act as messenger between sensory and motor neurons.

a)

interneurons

b)

sensory neurons

c)

afferent neurons

d)

motor neurons

e)

efferent neurons

29.

The insulating layer around many axons that increases the speed of nerve impulses.

a)

Nodes of Ranvier

b)

Synapses

c)

Schwann Cells

d)

Glial Cells

e)

Myelin Sheath

30.

Open space between two neurons; the space in which neurotransmitters cross.

a)

Dendrites

b)

Soma

c)

Vesicles

d)

Synapse

e)

Semipermeable Membrane

31.

the electrical pulse or "message" that travels the length of the axon;

the change in electric potential that propagates along the axon of a neuron during he transmission of a nerve impulse. It is marked by rapid depolarization of the cell's plasma membrane.

a)

Resting Potential

b)

Depolarization

c)

Polarization

d)

Action Potential

e)

Refractory Period

32.

At resting potential, when sodium is on the outside of the neuron and potassium is on the inside. At this state, the neuron is at homeostasis.

a)

Depolarization

b)

Polarization

c)

Action Potential

d)

Resting Potential

e)

Refractory Period

33.

The process by which neurotransmitter molecules that have been released at a synapse are reabsorbed by the presynaptic neuron that first released them.

a)

Repolarization

b)

Reuptake

c)

Resting Potential

d)

Refractory Period

e)

Polarization

34.

Neurotransmitters that hyperpolarize postsynaptic neurons- thereby making the intracellular space more negative, and hence, requiring a greater positive charge to overcome- resulting in a smaller likelihood of an action potential.

a)

Agonist

b)

Antagonist

c)

Excitatory

d)

Inhibitory

35.

A major, predominantly excitatory neurotransmitter both in the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems. In the CNS, it plays an important role in memory formation and learning and is implicated in Alzheimer's disease. In the PNS, it mediates skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle contraction.

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Acetycholine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Serotonin

e)

GABA

36.

Acting as both a neurotransmitter and a hormone, this substance is a chemical made by some nerve cells in the adrenal gland. Together with its partner, it regulates heart rate and blood flow.

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Glutamate

d)

Dopamine

37.

A neurotransmitter that has an important role in more behavior and is implicated in numerous mental conditions and emotional states.

a)

Serotonin

b)

GABA

c)

Dopamine

d)

Epinephrine

e)

Glutamate

38.

A neurotransmitter that has roles in emotional processing, mood, appetite, sexual desire and performance, sleep, pain processing, hallucinations, and reflex regulation.

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

GABA

d)

Glutamate

e)

Epinephrine

39.

A major inhibitory neurotransmitter that is linked to epileptic seizures, tremors, and insomnia.

a)

GABA

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Norepinephrine

40.
Which test of memory typically provides the fewest retrieval cues?
a)
Recognition
b)
Recall
c)
Relearning
d)
Rehearsal
e)
Imagery
41.
Explicit memory is to long-term memory as iconic memory is to ________ memory.
a)
sensory
b)
short-term
c)
flashbulb
d)
implicit
e)
state-dependent
42.
Children can better remember an ancient Latin verse if the definition of each unfamiliar Latin word is carefully explained to them. This best illustrates the value of
a)
semantic encoding
b)
long-term potentiation
c)
automatic processing
d)
the peg-word system<br />
e)
iconic memory
43.
After learning the combination for his new locker at school, Milton is unable to remember the combination for his year-old bicycle lock. Milton is experiencing the effects of
a)
encoding failure.
b)
source amnesia.
c)
retroactive interference.
d)
proactive interference.
e)
automatic processing.
44.
Memory of your familiar old e-mail password may block the recall of your new password. This illustrates
a)
source amnesia.
b)
retroactive interference.
c)
the serial position effect.
d)
proactive interference.
e)
chunking.
45.
Your friend told you that eating chocolate was shown to improve memory recall. You may later recall this “fact” but forget where you heard it. You assume that you heard it on the news, a credible source, so you begin eating chocolate. Your behavior best illustrates
a)
implicit memory.
b)
mood-congruent memory.
c)
source amnesia.
d)
retroactive interference.
e)
motivated forgetting.
46.
Studying psychological concepts while riding the bus, walking to lunch, and waiting for class to begin will improve your memory of the concepts by taking advantage of
a)
chunking.
b)
the self-reference effect.
c)
priming.
d)
the serial position effect.
e)
the spacing effect.
47.
Daniel was asked to write down as many words as he could think of that contained the letter d. To complete this task Daniel would rely on
a)
divergent thinking.
b)
framing.
c)
convergent thinking.
d)
belief perseverance.
e)
the availability heuristic.
48.
Vishant overestimates the proportion of family chores for which he takes sole responsibility because it's easier for him to recall what he has done than to recall what other family members have done. This best illustrates the impact of
a)
overconfidence.
b)
fixation.
c)
the representativeness heuristic.
d)
confirmation bias.
e)
the availability heuristic.
49.
We have all had the experience of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.  We are asked to remember someone’s name.  We are certain that we know the name and feel as if we are just about to remember it, yet it remains elusive.  What type of forgetting might be at work here?
a)
encoding failure
b)
retroactive interference
c)
retrieval failure
d)
motivated forgetting
50.
The reason most North Americans cannot accurately describe the head of a penny is due to:
a)
storage decay.
b)
retrieval failure.
c)
encoding failure.
d)
motivated forgetting.
51.
A defense attorney emphasizes to a jury that her client works full-time, supports his family, and enjoys leisure-time hobbies. Although none of this information is relevant to the trial, it is designed to make the defendant appear to be a typical member of the local community. The lawyer is most clearly attempting to take advantage 
a)
confirmation bias.
b)
functional fixedness.
c)
belief perseverance.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
52.
Working memory is also known as
a)
long term memory
b)
short term memory
c)
sensory memory
d)
forgotten memory
53.
During her psychology test, Kelsey could not remember the meaning of the term proactive interference. Surprisingly, however, she accurately remembered that the term appeared on the fourth line of a left-hand page in her textbook. Her memory of this incidental information is best explained in terms of
a)
automatic processing.
b)
priming.
c)
the serial position effect.
d)
the spacing effect.
54.
In an effort to remember how to spell “rhinoceros,” Samantha spells the word aloud 30 times. She is using a technique known as
a)
priming
b)
rehearsal
c)
the peg-word system
d)
chunking
55.
The tendency to think of objects only in terms of their normal uses is called
a)
functional fixedness.
b)
belief perseverance.
c)
the representativeness heuristic.
d)
confirmation bias.
56.
The various vowel sounds that can be placed between a t and an n produce words such as tan, ten, tin, and ton. These various vowel sounds represent different
a)
prototypes.
b)
semantics.
c)
morphemes.
d)
phonemes.
57.
A European visitor to the United States asked a taxi driver, “Can you please a ride to the airport me give?” This visitor has apparently not yet mastered the ________ of the English language.
a)
phonemes
b)
semantics
c)
syntax
d)
nomenclature
58.
Combining bits of information into a small number of familiar or manageable groups that can be stored in long-term memory and remembered more easily.
a)
chunking
b)
decay
c)
mnemonics
d)
interference
59.

What is the term for the natural, 24-hour cycle of sleep and wakefulness?

a)

sleep cycle

b)

circadian rhythm

c)

biological clock

d)

day-night rhythm

60.

During which stage of sleep do vivid dreams commonly occur?

a)

Stage 2

b)

NREM

c)

REM

d)

Stage 1

61.

What type of brain waves are present during relaxed wakefulness?

a)

Alpha waves

b)

Delta waves

c)

Beta waves

d)

Gamma waves

62.

Which stage of sleep is characterized by the absence of rapid eye movements?

a)

Stage 2 sleep

b)

Stage 1 sleep

c)

NREM sleep

d)

REM sleep

63.

What term refers to sensory experiences that occur without a sensory stimulus?

a)

delusion

b)

illusion

c)

perception

d)

hallucination

64.

Which type of brain waves are associated with deep sleep?

a)

Gamma waves

b)

Alpha waves

c)

Beta waves

d)

Delta waves

65.

What is the term for the persistent inability to fall asleep or stay asleep?

a)

insomnia

b)

sleep apnea

c)

restless leg syndrome

d)

narcolepsy

66.

What sleep disorder is characterized by sudden and uncontrollable episodes of sleep during the day?

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

Restless leg syndrome

c)

Insomnia

d)

Sleep apnea

67.
The term critical period refers to:
a)
Prenatal development
b)
The initial two hours after a child’s birth
c)
The preoperational stage
d)
A restricted time for development and/or learning
68.
What is the first stage of Piaget's cognitive development?
a)
Preoperational
b)
Sensorimotor 
c)
Formal operational
d)
Concrete operational
69.
An infant who has developed object permanence...
a)
is attached to specific objects, such as a blanket.
b)
will see all objects as being the same.
c)
knows that an object, such as a rattle, exists even if it is not in view.
d)
cries when a wanted object is taken away.
70.
If Jeremy begs for a new electronic gadget, his parents nearly always buy it for him. What type of family is this?
a)
Permissive
b)
Democratic
c)
Authoritarian
d)
Submissive
71.
This style of parenting calls for imposing rules and demanding obedience without debate or discussion between parent and child.
a)
Permissive
b)
Neglectful
c)
Authoritative
d)
Authoritarian
72.
Erikson said that when you are a teenager, your main goal is to find your . .
a)
Trust
b)
Calling
c)
Identity
d)
Integrity
73.
The stage that occurs between birth and one year of age is concerned with:
a)
Trust vs. Mistrust
b)
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
c)
Intiative vs. Guilt 
d)
Industry vs. Inferiority 
74.
According to Erikson, what is the major conflict faced during adolescence?
a)
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
b)
Intimacy vs. Isolation
c)
Identity vs. Role Confusion
d)
Generativity vs. Stagnation 
75.
The experiment with Harry Harlow and the monkeys prove what about humans?
a)
 We need food to survive.
b)
 We need human touch to survive.
c)
We want human touch over food.
d)
 We want food over human touch.
76.
Maria resents the burdens and constraints  of caring for her infant daughter and ignores her cries for attention.  Her daughter will likely show signs of
a)
egocentricism
b)
insecure attachment
c)
habituation
d)
gender typing
77.
Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a toy doll as a Christmas present. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of:
a)
accommodation
b)
attachment
c)
object permanence
d)
egocentricism
78.

The age at which people are expected to leave home, get a job, and marry has changed dramatically in Belgium over the past 50 years. Developmentalists would say that the country's ________ has been altered.

a)

Developmental Norm

b)

Social Identity

c)

Social Clock

d)

Maturation Cycle

79.

Your little sister was stung by a bee in the backyard. Now, whenever she hears a buzzing sound she becomes afraid. What is the Conditioned Response?

a)

the backyard

b)

the bee

c)

the fear when she was stung

d)

the fear when she hears a buzzing sound

80.

Your dog salivates whenever he hears you approach the cabinet where his treats are kept. Salivating to a dog treat is the____.

a)

unconditioned stimulus

b)

unconditioned response

c)

conditioned stimulus

d)

conditioned response

81.

You were afraid of snakes as a child but then in college you had a roommate with a snake that never bit you and you stopped fearing snakes. This is called _____.

a)

acquisition

b)

extinction

c)

spontaneous recovery

d)

generalization

e)

discrimination

82.

The type of learning in which a stimulus gains the power to cause a response because it reliably predicts another stimulus is called:

a)

Operant Conditioning

b)

Classical Conditioning

c)

Observational Learning

d)

Cognitive Learning

83.

The psychologist most closely associated with the study of operant conditioning was:

a)

Bandura

b)

Pavlov

c)

Skinner

d)

Freud

84.

Masako was hit with a baseball last week during practice and now refuses to play. This behavior best illustrates the effects of:

a)

delayed reinforcers

b)

negative reinforcers

c)

primary reinforcers

d)

punishments

85.

Seals in an aquarium will repeat behaviors, such as slapping and barking, that prompt people to toss them a herring. This example best illustrates:

a)

discrimination

b)

observational learning

c)

positive reinforcement

d)

spontaneous recovery

86.

Students in Ms. Dean's fourth-grade class receive a star on a chart for every book they read. Which schedule of reinforcement does this represent?

a)

fixed ratio

b)

variable ratio

c)

fixed interval

d)

variable interval

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