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AT 222 Prelim Formative Assessment No. 2

Total questions: 15

Worksheet time: 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is the notification of differences by Contracting States essential according to ICAO requirements?

a)

To allow airlines to modify flight schedules

b)

To ensure safe air navigation by informing ICAO of deviations from Standards

c)

To simplify AIS documentation updates

d)

To authorize new aerodrome facilities without certification

2.

Which phrase in ICAO editorial practice indicates a binding obligation for Contracting States?

a)

“must”

b)

“should”

c)

“shall”

d)

“may”

3.

Which statement best describes the applicability of Annex 14, Volume I, Chapter 3?

a)

It applies to all aerodromes, heliports, and stolports.

b)

It applies only to land aerodromes open for private use.

c)

It applies only to land aerodromes open to public use.

d)

It applies only to heliports certified for IFR operations.

4.

Stolports currently have no ICAO specifications. Where is interim guidance provided?

a)

Annex 14 Volume II

b)

Aerodrome Manual Part IV

c)

CAR-Aerodromes Handbook

d)

Stolport Manual (Doc 9150)

5.

When Annex 14 refers to a color (e.g., runway lighting), the standard must match:

a)

Manufacturer color codes

b)

Appendix 1 color specification

c)

Local aerodrome operator procedures

d)

AIS color chart

6.

Under CAAP–MoS, which statement best explains why facilities need not be immediately modified after new standards are introduced?

a)

ICAO exempts all facilities older than 5 years.

b)

Compliance is required only after certification renewal.

c)

Upgrades are applied during replacement or major improvement cycles.

d)

Operators may disregard updates if operations remain safe.

7.

Which situation most appropriately requires an Aeronautical Study under CAAP–MoS?

a)

Changing runway paint from white to yellow

b)

Certifying an existing aerodrome that deviates from ICAO standards

c)

Upgrading a taxiway without affecting operations

d)

Replacing runway lights with the same model

8.

What is one key purpose of publishing cautionary advice after an Aeronautical Study identifies a deviation?

a)

To allow operators to use uncertified aerodromes permanently

b)

To inform pilots of potentially hazardous conditions

c)

To increase traffic flow efficiency

d)

To exempt the aerodrome from corrective actions

9.

To exempt the aerodrome from corrective actions

a)

Expires immediately when a new standard is issued

b)

Is valid indefinitely unless revoked

c)

Remains valid until its specified expiry date

d)

Automatically becomes permanent if not reviewed for 2 years

10.

What determines the Aerodrome Reference Code under CAAP–MoS?

a)

The aerodrome’s projected traffic demand

b)

The largest aeroplane that the aerodrome intends to serve

c)

The length of the longest runway

d)

The aerodrome’s ICAO region

11.

ICAO Code F requirements apply to which aerodrome category?

a)

Aerodromes intended only for narrow-body aircraft

b)

Aerodromes intended for aircraft larger than the B747

c)

Aerodromes designed exclusively for turboprop operations

d)

Aerodromes supporting precision Category III operations

12.

A runway allowing only visual or circling approaches is classified as:

a)

Instrument runway

b)

Precision runway

c)

Non-instrument runway

d)

Category II runway

13.

Which equipment combination is associated with non-precision approaches?

a)

Full ILS with LOC/GS/ALS

b)

VOR or NDB combined with DME

c)

MLS with GPS augmentation

d)

Radar vectoring only

14.

When an aerodrome accommodates an aircraft that exceeds its certified characteristics, the operator must:

a)

Immediately close the aerodrome

b)

Conduct compatibility assessment and implement safety measures

c)

Request a temporary aircraft performance waiver from ICAO

d)

Increase runway strip width automatically

15.

Which of the following is an editorial practice in ICAO documents?

a)

Use of both SI and non-SI units interchangeably in a single measurement

b)

Use of the term “must” to identify Standards

c)

Use of notes to clarify but not mandate compliance

d)

Prohibition of subdivisions under major chapters