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Orion 60-76

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Acute heart failure patient with shortness of breath and peripheral edema: which Forrester classification applies?

a)

dry and cold

b)

wet and cold

c)

dry and warm

d)

wet and warm stage

2.

Which of the following is a vasopressor that is given in a fixed dose without titration for patients with septic shock?

a)

dopamine

b)

vasopressin

c)

epinephrine

d)

norepinephrine

3.

Septic shock patient unresponsive to fluid: what will you give?

a)

vasopressin

b)

dopamine

c)

norepinephrine

4.

Diagnosis of STEMI: which finding best supports the diagnosis?

a)

elevated ST segment with increased troponin

b)

elevated ST segment with increased BNP

c)

elevated ST segment with increased CK

5.

A patient has allergic rhinitis and was prescribed pseudoephedrine. You find a history of hypertension. What should you do?

a)

Do not dispense the prescription

b)

Use pseudoephedrine with caution if hypertension is controlled

c)

Use pseudoephedrine with caution if hypertension is not controlled

6.

A patient taking lisinopril and many other medicines (HTN, DM, dyslipidemia) is prescribed prazosin 1 mg for BPH. He develops orthostatic hypotension. What is the best action?

a)

Discontinue lisinopril

b)

Discontinue prazosin

c)

Discontinue prazosin and give alfazosin

d)

Start finasteride

7.

What resting heart rate target should be used for a patient taking metoprolol who has atrial fibrillation?

a)

60 beat/min

b)

90 beat/min

c)

120 beat/min

d)

200 beat/min

8.

What is the main advantage of losartan over lisinopril?

a)

less induction of cough

b)

higher oral bioavailability

9.

Duration of treatment for aspirin in a cardiovascular patient: choose the best option.

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

5 years

10.

Blood pressure in a neonate compared with an adult is

a)

the same as adult

b)

higher than adult

c)

lower than adult

11.

A patient with angina and MI who takes an ACE inhibitor and many other medicines presents with high blood pressure. What should be given?

a)

spironolactone

b)

carvedilol

c)

diltiazem

d)

ARBs

12.

Which of the following can cause digoxin toxicity?

a)

hypomagnesemia

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

hypophosphate

13.

A patient with hypotension and a high heart rate: what should be given?

a)

hypertonic NaCl

b)

Ringer’s lactate RL

c)

albumin

14.

Female patient with food poisoning presented with elevated troponin and NSTEMI. What is the appropriate management?

a)

aspirin 81 mg + ticagrelor

b)

aspirin 325 mg + ticagrelor

c)

aspirin 81 mg + prasugrel

d)

aspirin 325 mg + prasugrel

15.

Patient on furosemide 40 mg IV: change to an oral dose. (Conversion: 2 mg PO = 1 mg IV)

a)

20 mg PO

b)

40 mg PO

c)

80 mg PO

d)

120 mg PO

16.

Which of the following is a loop diuretic?

a)

furosemide

b)

acetazolamide

c)

spironolactone

d)

hydrochlorothiazide

17.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of chlorothiazide?

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hypocalcemia

c)

hypouricemia

d)

hypokalemia

18.

A man is started on a new medication to control elevated blood pressure. After one month he notes his breasts have become enlarged and tender. Which medication was most likely prescribed?

a)

acetazolamide

b)

chlorthalidone

c)

spironolactone

d)

hydrochlorothiazide

19.

Which of the following diuretics is an aldosterone antagonist?

a)

furosemide

b)

acetazolamide

c)

spironolactone

d)

hydrochlorothiazide

20.

Which loop diuretic is safe to use in a patient with a sulfa allergy?

a)

ethacrynic acid

b)

furosemide

c)

bumetanide

d)

torsemide

21.

Which of the following is a loop diuretic?

a)

furosemide

b)

acetazolamide

c)

spironolactone

d)

hydrochlorothiazide

22.

Which of the following medications is an osmotic diuretic?

a)

mannitol

b)

furosemide

c)

spironolactone

d)

hydrochlorothiazide

23.

A 75-year-old man with NYHA IV heart failure is started on furosemide 120 mg intravenous infusion to improve pulmonary edema. What is the recommended duration for the infusion?

a)

10 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

40 minutes

24.

A patient taking some drugs develops hyperkalemia. Which of the following drugs can cause this?

a)

theophylline

b)

spironolactone

c)

gentamicin

25.

Which pharmacoeconomic study is the simplest because outcomes are assumed equivalent and only intervention costs are compared?

a)

cost-utility analysis

b)

cost-benefit analysis

c)

cost-minimization analysis

26.

Which of the following pharmacoeconomic studies is the simplest to conduct?

a)

cost-utility analysis

b)

cost-benefit analysis

c)

cost-minimization analysis

d)

cost-effectiveness analysis

27.

From a pharmacoeconomic perspective, what type of cost is traveling from Jeddah to Riyadh to obtain health care?

a)

indirect

b)

intangible

c)

direct nonmedical

d)

non-direct medical

28.

What kind of outcomes can be determined by cost-minimization?

a)

monetary units (e.g., dollars)

b)

quality-adjusted life-years (QALYS)

c)

natural units (e.g., life-years saved)

d)

comparing the cost of two identical products (e.g., generic brand)

29.

Which statement best describes the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio?

a)

the cost per extra benefit of a new strategy, independent

b)

the extra cost to obtain an extra benefit when switching from one alternative to another

c)

the cost per quality-adjusted life year gained

d)

a summary measurement of efficiency

30.

A P&T committee requests monetary (dollar) valuation for including a product in the hospital formulary. Which pharmacoeconomics tool should the pharmacy use?

a)

cost-utility analysis

b)

cost-benefit analysis

c)

cost-minimization analysis

d)

cost-effectiveness analysis

31.

In pharmacoeconomics and outcomes research, QALYs are used as utilities. QALY is the quality-adjusted life year. Which of the following is an interpretation of an individual with perfect health?

a)

death

b)

coma

c)

illness

d)

perfect health

32.

Case about one using two drugs of cancer, one with less side effect to choose. What is cost?

a)

Cost-Effectiveness

b)

Cost-Minimization

c)

Case Study

d)

Cohort Study

33.

Case about one using two drugs of cancer, one with less side effect to choose. What is cost?

a)

Cost-Effectiveness

b)

Cost-Minimization

c)

Case Study

d)

Cohort Study

34.

Question How to prepare a budget for the new year?

a)

Close stock + open stock + seller products

b)

Open stock - close stock + Seller product

c)

Open stock + Seller Product - close stock

35.

Which of the following perspectives incorporates all the costs and regardless of who incurs or obtains them?

a)

Patient

b)

Hospital

c)

Societal

d)

Ministry of Health

36.

A 34-year-old woman who is still experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism despite treatment with carbimazole. Which medication can be added to provide additional symptomatic relief?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Propranolol

d)

Prednisolone

37.

Which of following play a role in calcium homeostasis?

a)

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol and calcitonin

b)

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol and insulin

c)

Parathyroid hormone and glucagon

d)

Insulin and lipase

38.

Which of the following is the timeline when symptoms start to occur in type 1 diabetes mellitus?

a)

as early when destruction of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas is starting

b)

when 50% of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas are destroyed

c)

when 70% of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas are destroyed

d)

when destruction of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas is complete

39.

Which of the following conditions use "the plate method" as lifestyle modification?

a)

asthma

b)

dyslipidemia

c)

hypertension

d)

diabetes mellitus

40.

Which of the following conditions use the plate method as a lifestyle modification?

a)

hypertension

b)

thyroid disorder

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

myocardial infraction

41.

Which of the following describe glucose uptake and usage by brain cells as compared to other tissues of the body?

a)

Brain cell can uptake and use glucose only in the presence

b)

Brain cells can uptake and use glucose without being stimuli insulin

c)

Brain cells can uptake and use glucose when glucose is about 100 mg/dL in the blood

d)

Brain cells can uptake and use glucose when the insulin is at high level in the body

42.

Which of the following group of drugs can prevent the progression of micro-albuminuria to macro-albuminuria in patients with diabetic mellitus?

a)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

b)

B-blockers

c)

Diuretics

d)

Digitalis

43.

A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes five years ago, maintained on metformin. Which of the following need to be monitored?

a)

Vitamin C level

b)

Vitamin D level

c)

Vitamin B1 level

d)

Vitamin B12 level

44.

Which of the following insulins has the longest duration of action?

a)

Aspart

b)

Detemir

c)

Glargine

d)

Degludec (42 hr)

45.

A 33-year-old woman who presents with complaints of fatigue and weight gain. She is planning to become pregnant. She reported that she starts taking multivitamin and supplements her current medication of levothyroxine 100 mcg daily. Based on the lab results provided, which of the following is the dosage recommendation in mcg to take daily for thyroid medication when she became pregnant?

a)

levothyroxine-50

b)

levothyroxine-75

c)

levothyroxine-100

d)

levothyroxine-125

46.

A patient with DM type 2, with uncontrolled high blood glucose for years. The patient complains of burning and stabbing pain in his extremities started for years. Which of the following types of pain is this patient experiencing?

a)

Acute pain

b)

Costochondritis

c)

Neuropathic pain

d)

inflammatory pain

47.

A 50-year-old Saudi woman with hypertension and dyslipidemia presents today to her follow up visit with family medicine clinic. Her sister has type 1 diabetes mellitus. No alcohol or cigarette use is reported. She is physically active for 2 minutes a week. Weight 51 kg and height 160 cm. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing diabetes type 2 in this patient?

a)

Age

b)

BMI

c)

Gender

d)

Family History

48.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of liraglutide?

a)

Dipeptidyl peptidase 4 inhibitor

b)

Glucagon like peptide-1 receptor agonist

c)

Sodium/glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor

d)

Activate peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor

49.

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sitagliptin?

a)

Inhibit alpha glucosidase enzyme

b)

Inhibit dipeptidyl peptidase 4 enzyme

c)

Activate peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors

d)

Closes ATP-dependent potassium channels in the B-cells

50.

Which anti-hyperthyroidism drug could cause agranulocytosis?

a)

Xylocaine

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Sodium Iodide

d)

Propylthiouracil

51.

Which anti-hyperthyroidism drug could cause agranulocytosis?

a)

Xylocaine

b)

Metoprolol

c)

Sodium Iodide

d)

Propylthiouracil

52.

Preventing diabetic foot ulcers?

a)

Proper footwear

b)

Daily foot inspection

c)

monitor blood sugar level

d)

Weight losses

53.

DM patient on insulin but he is not taking his dose, his HbA1c is 12%, he refuses taking insulin right dose because of weight gain. What do you do as a pharmacist?

a)

Refer to physician to decrease his insulin dose

b)

decrease his doses

c)

try to change his beliefs on insulin

d)

tell him it's ok to not take his dose

54.

Which of the following to be used with caution in renal failure?

a)

Glipizide

b)

Rosiglitazone

c)

Sitagliptin

d)

Linagliptin

55.

One of hyperthyroidism

a)

Weight gain

b)

Sensitivity to cold

c)

Nervousness

d)

Depression

56.

Medication given for hyperthyroidism causes permanent decline in thyroid hormones?

a)

PTU

b)

methimazole

c)

RAI radio active iodine

57.

To decrease side effects of metformin on GI?

a)

Divide doses

b)

take dose after two hours of eating

c)

take it with antihistamine

d)

take it with PPI

58.

Longest duration of action?

a)

Degludec

b)

Glargine

c)

Aspart

d)

NPH

59.

Case about a diabetic patient type 2, he takes metformin but his blood sugar is so high and uncontrolled and Hb1Ac was very high. What to take?

a)

insulin glargine + insulin asprt

b)

insulin glargine + glyburide

60.

Main features of Graves' disease include:

a)

diffuse goiter

b)

thyroid eye disease

c)

pretibial myxoedema

d)

thyroid acropathy

61.

DM 1 patient, give what?

a)

Sulfonylurea

b)

GLP1 (liraglutide)

c)

DDP

d)

Pioglitazone

62.

Which pattern of thyroid function tests is most consistent with hyperthyroidism?

a)

Elevated TSH, increased T4

b)

Increased T4, elevated TSH

c)

Elevated TSH, decreased T4

d)

Elevated T4, decreased TSH

63.

A 48-year-old woman with diabetes on metformin 850 mg twice daily has hemoglobinated sugar increased by 1% compared with her last result. What will you advise?

a)

Increase metformin dose

b)

Decrease metformin dose

c)

Do nothing

d)

Shift to another type insulin

64.

Which of the following is not a secondary cause of dyslipidemia?

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Diabetes

d)

Protease inhibit

65.

Why is propylthiouracil (PTU) the antithyroid therapy of choice in pregnant patients with Graves disease?

a)

It is less hepatotoxic than methimazole (MMI)

b)

It may be less teratogenic than MMI

c)

It has less risk of causing fetal hypothyroidism than MMI

d)

It causes less agranulocytosis in these patients than MMI

66.

Untreated hyperthyroidism in the elderly can result in

a)

Mania

b)

Atrial fibrillation

c)

Deafness

d)

Hirsutism

67.

A patient with hypertension, heart failure, and diabetes: what is the first line after metformin?

a)

Pioglitazone

b)

Gliclazide

c)

Empagliflozin

d)

Insulin

68.

A patient on TPN and nothing by oral (NOP) with A1C blood glucose of 11: Which drug should be added?

a)

Gliclazide

b)

NPH insulin

c)

Glargine

d)

Regular insulin

69.

Best antipsychotic drug for diabetic patient

a)

Clozapine

b)

Aripiprazole

c)

Quetiapine

70.

Which of the following lab results supports a diagnosis of primary hyperthyroidism?

a)

Low TSH and a low free T4

b)

Low TSH and elevated free T4

c)

Elevated TSH and low free T4

d)

Elevated TSH and elevated T4

71.

A prescription shows Xalatan drops 1 drop o.n.m., 1 bottle. Which of the following is the most likely condition?

a)

Cataract

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Blepharitis

d)

Conjunctivitis

72.

A prescription shows Xalatan drops 1 drop o.n.m., 1 bottle. Which of the following is the most likely condition?

a)

Cataract

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Blepharitis

d)

Conjunctivitis

73.

A 62-year-old woman with open-angle glaucoma accidentally applies excessive pilocarpine to her eyes. Which of the following is the most likely expected result?

a)

Mydriasis

b)

Dilation of blood vessels

c)

Bronchial smooth muscle dilation

d)

Decreased gastrointestinal motility

74.

Which of the following is the most practical method for sterilizing ophthalmic solution?

a)

Autoclave for 15 minutes

b)

Autoclave for 30 minutes

c)

Membrane filtration through 0.2-μm filter

d)

Membrane filtration through 5-μm filter

75.

Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used specific for the treatment of glaucoma?

a)

Alprostadil

b)

Latanoprost

c)

Carboprost

d)

Dinoprostone

e)

Epoprostenol

76.

Xalatan drops used for

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Fungal infection

c)

Bacterial infection

d)

Viral infection

77.

Approximately 415 million people have been diagnosed with diabetes. Which of the following terms is referred to in the mentioned statement?

a)

Endemic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Incidence

d)

Prevalence

78.

What is the Latin abbreviation for after meals?

a)

A.C.

b)

A.A.

c)

P.C.

d)

I.C.

79.

What is the estimated amount of plasma in a 70-kg male (50–55 ml/kg)?

a)

3.5 liter

b)

1.1 liter

c)

35 liter

d)

11 liter

80.

Which of the following is the abbreviation for drug to be taken by mouth?

a)

P.O

b)

p.R

c)

PRN

d)

U.D

81.

An adult female patient with weight 80 kg and 160 cm height: How do you categorize this patient’s weight based on the classification shown (BMI: <18.5 under weight; 18.5–24.9 normal; 25–29.9 over weight; >30 obese)?

a)

Obese

b)

Normal

c)

Overweight

d)

Underweight

82.

Which of the following describes the best patient instruction regarding the proper way to dispose of needles?

a)

Discard the needle in garbage

b)

Return the needles to their original package

c)

Discard the needles in a rigid and resistant container

d)

If the needles are for personal use, you can use them two times to reduce environment contamination

83.

Which of the following studies could establish the drug shelf-life?

a)

Bioavailability

b)

Bioequivalence

c)

Stability studies

d)

Pharmacodynamic

84.

What is the age range of a neonate?

a)

Birth to one week

b)

Birth to one month

c)

One month to six months

d)

One month to twelve months

85.

Which of the following statements best represents the intravenous (IV) medications in hospital facilities?

a)

IV drugs transmit the highest risk of infection

b)

IV drugs are associated with lowest risk of undesirable side effects

c)

IV solutions must be hypotonic to ensure compatibility with blood osmolality

d)

IV solutions must be hypertonic to ensure compatibility with blood osmolality

86.

Which of the following type of water should be used for reconstitution of parenteral preparations?

a)

Sterile water

b)

Distilled water

c)

Sterile water for injection

d)

Bacteriostatic water for injection

87.

Which of the following solutions is required for the reconstitution of parenteral formulations?

a)

USP standard sterile water

b)

USP standard purified water

c)

USP standard highly purified water

d)

USP standard sterile water for injection

88.

Which of the following food supplement is rich in omega-3 fatty acids?

a)

Fish oil

b)

Palm oil

c)

Peanut oil

d)

Coconut oil

89.

Which of the following is an alternative name for vitamin B6?

a)

Biotin

b)

Thiamine

c)

Pyridoxine

d)

Cyanocobalamin

90.

Which of the following routes of drug administration provide 100% bioavailability?

a)

intradermal injection

b)

intravenous injection

c)

intramuscular injection

d)

subcutaneous injection

91.

Which of the following statements best describes drug dependence?

a)

Discontinuation of the drug will produce withdrawal symptoms

b)

action of one drug is dependent on the presence of another drug

c)

discontinuation of the drug will not produce withdrawal symptoms

d)

patients progressively require increasingly larger doses of a drug to achieve the same effect

92.

An elderly man with hypothyroidism was started on thyroxin. The drug has a half-life of 72 hours. How long will it take to produce full effect?

a)

two days

b)

one week

c)

two weeks

d)

two months

93.

Which of the following studies could establish the drug shelf-life?

a)

bioavailability

b)

bioequivalence

c)

stability studies

d)

pharmacodynamics

94.

An extemporaneous drug label says to store the drug between 15 and 25 degrees centigrade. Which of the following is the most appropriate place where this drug should be stored?

a)

freezer

b)

refrigerator

c)

cool room

d)

warm room

95.

Which of the following describes the best patient instruction regarding the proper way to dispose of needles?

a)

Discard the needles in garbage

b)

Return needles to their original package

c)

Discard the needles in a rigid and resistant container

d)

If the needle is for personal use, you can use it for two times to reduce environment contamination

96.

Cleaning is a very important step when working with laminar flow hoods. Which of the following disinfectants is most suitable for cleaning the hood before compounding a sterile preparation?

a)

70% Ethanol

b)

90% Ethanol

c)

70% Isopropanol

d)

90% Isopropanol

97.

Which of the following is the source for standards for compounding sterile preparations to be followed in the hospital pharmacy?

a)

World Health Organization (WHO) website

b)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA) website

c)

United States Pharmacopeia (USP) chapter 797

d)

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) publication

98.

What is the Latin abbreviation for "after meals"?

a)

A.C

b)

A.A

c)

P.C

d)

I.C

99.

Which following best describes the "bio-psychological approach of health"?

a)

Broad view that attributes disease outcome to the variable interaction of biological factors, psychological factors, and social factors

b)

Health constitutes the freedom from disease, pain, or defect, making the normal human condition "healthy"

c)

The scientific measure of health and regards disease as the human body having a breakdown due to a biological reason

d)

The biological component seeks to understand how the cause of the illness stems from the functioning of the individual's body

100.

What is the meaning of off-label drug use?

a)

use of drug without prescription

b)

use of drug expiration date

c)

use of drug outside the hospital

d)

use of drug for unapproved indications

101.

Which of the following statements best represents the intravenous (IV) medication in the hospital facilities?

a)

IV drugs transmit the highest risk of infection

b)

IV drugs are associated with lowest risk of undesirable side effects

c)

IV solutions must be hypotonic to ensure compatibility with blood osmolality

d)

IV medications are free from infection risk

102.

What kind of association between the variables if you want an association between age and depression pre/post drug A use?

a)

two continuous variables

b)

a continuous variable and a binary variable

c)

a continuous variable and an ordinal variable

d)

a continuous variable and a categorical variable

103.

A 23-year-old man has recently been started on phenytoin for the treatment of epilepsy. He is taking no other medication. He has noted recent swelling and bleeding of the gum and wants to know if this might be drug related. Which reference would best address this?

a)

Drug interaction facts

b)

The Harriet Lane handbook

c)

Meyler's Side Effects of Drugs

d)

A pharmacology textbook

104.

Which drug is banned in sport competitions by the international Olympics?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Atenolol

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Diclofenac

105.

Which one is considered a physical examination?

a)

Regulatory

b)

Percussion

c)

Laboratory testing

d)

Administrative screening

106.

A patient on enteral nutrition presents with low phosphate and low magnesium on lab tests. What is the most likely condition?

a)

Refeeding syndrome

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Dehydration

107.

Using Schilling test to detect amount of which vitamin?

a)

B9

b)

B12

c)

B6

d)

C

108.

When the patient is at rest, the volume of the blood is found more in which location?

a)

vein

b)

arterial

c)

heart

d)

pulmonary circulation

109.

Which IV container needs a filtered needle?

a)

Vial

b)

Bag

c)

Ampoule

d)

All IV preparations need filtered needles

110.

Boxed warning when using for teeth pain in an infant may lead to seizure and death. Which product is implicated?

a)

Clove oil

b)

Ibuprofen suspension

c)

Gel

d)

Acetaminophen drops

111.

What does dose "2 in 1" mean?

a)

Dextrose and amino acids

b)

Water and dextrose

c)

Dextrose and lipoamino acid

d)

Dextrose and amino acids and lipid

112.

Amount of body water in an adult?

a)

60%

b)

70%

c)

80%

d)

90%

113.

Amount of body water in a neonate?

a)

60%

b)

75%

c)

80%

d)

90%

114.

Intra-synovial means?

a)

in spinal

b)

muscle

c)

joint

d)

nerve

115.

A drug that acts via a non-receptor mechanism is which of the following?

a)

Deferoxamine

b)

Desloratadine

c)

Atenolol

d)

None of the above

116.

The place on the body that gives the most accurate temperature is which?

a)

front head

b)

mouth

c)

rectal

d)

axillary

117.

Which of the following can assist in regulation of sleeping pattern?

a)

eating before sleeping by 10 minutes

b)

doing aerobic exercises for 10 minutes

c)

taking several naps during the day

d)

drinking coffee late at night

118.

HIV, TB, and AIDS are best classified as which type of disease?

a)

Chronic disease

b)

Communicable disease

c)

Non-communicable disease

d)

Genetic disease

119.

Carrier of vitamin B12?

a)

Intrinsic factor

b)

Transcobalamin II

c)

Albumin

d)

Hemoglobin

120.

A patient taking Orlistat seeks counseling. Which advice regarding vitamins is appropriate?

a)

Take fat-soluble vitamins at a time separated from Orlistat (before or after)

b)

Take vitamins together with Orlistat to improve absorption

c)

Stop taking all vitamins while on Orlistat

d)

Only take water-soluble vitamins with Orlistat

121.

A woman has signs of vitamin A deficiency. What is one of its natural forms?

a)

Olive oil

b)

Liver oil

c)

Argan oil

d)

Sunflower oil

122.

ISO 7 corresponds to which particle class?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1,000

d)

10,000

123.

A patient with type 2 diabetes wants to lose weight, has hypertension and heart failure, and has made lifestyle changes and exercises. Which drug choice for DM2 is appropriate?

a)

Insulin

b)

Liraglutide

c)

Metformin

d)

Glyburide

124.

Where is Phase II metabolism found?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleus

125.

Which is the larger lymphoid organ?

a)

intestine

b)

liver

c)

muscle

d)

spleen

126.

Which of the following solutions is used in a central vein?

a)

D5W

b)

0.9% normal saline

c)

3% normal saline

d)

D10W

127.

Affinity refers to which property?

a)

How long a drug binds to receptors

b)

How strongly a drug binds to receptors

c)

How many receptors a drug can bind

d)

How quickly a drug dissociates

128.

Best source of essential fatty acids?

a)

Seafood

b)

Plant

c)

Dairy

d)

Grains

129.

Moderate physical activity is best exemplified by which?

a)

swimming

b)

basketball

c)

brisk walking

d)

heavy weightlifting

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