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WorksheetsPsych Final Exam Review (v2)
Total questions: 149
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which term refers to the physical and biological functions of a living organism?
a)
Physiological
b)
Cognitive
c)
Sociological
d)
Archetypal
e)
Behavioral
2.
A psychologist studying how a person processes and retrieves information is focusing on which processes?
a)
Cognitive
b)
Physiological
c)
Biological
d)
Environmental
e)
Clinical
3.
What is the scientific study of behavior and mental processes called?
a)
Psychology
b)
Sociology
c)
Psychiatry
d)
Physiology
e)
Anthropology
4.
Which of the following is an educated guess or a testable prediction about a specific behavior?
a)
Hypothesis
b)
Theory
c)
Variable
d)
Norm
e)
Sample
5.
What do we call a set of assumptions used to explain phenomena and offered for scientific study?
a)
Theory
b)
Hypothesis
c)
Law
d)
Variable
e)
Sample
6.
A researcher conducting a study simply to find out more about the brain's reaction is engaged in:
a)
Basic Science
b)
Applied Science
c)
Psychiatry
d)
Clinical Practice
e)
Engineering
7.
Using psychological principles to solve immediate, practical problems, such as workplace morale, is:
a)
Applied Science
b)
Basic Science
c)
Introspection
d)
Structuralism
e)
Functionalism
8.
What is the systematic, general approach to gathering information and answering questions called?
a)
Scientific Method
b)
Case Study
c)
Survey
d)
Introspection
e)
Naturalistic Observation
9.
Which early psychologist used introspection to map out the basic elements of consciousness?
a)
Structuralist
b)
Functionalist
c)
Behaviorist
d)
Humanist
e)
Psychoanalyst
10.
What method involves a patient self-reporting their own internal thoughts and feelings?
a)
Introspection
b)
Observation
c)
Survey
d)
Experiment
e)
Case Study
11.
Which type of psychologist studies how mental processes help people and animals adapt?
a)
Functionalist
b)
Structuralist
c)
Psychoanalyst
d)
Behaviorist
e)
Cognitivist
12.
A psychologist who believes that unconscious motivations and childhood control behavior is a:
a)
Psychoanalyst
b)
Behaviorist
c)
Humanist
d)
Cognitivist
e)
Psychobiologist
13.
Which perspective focuses strictly on observable actions rather than internal mental states?
a)
Behaviorist
b)
Humanist
c)
Cognitivist
d)
Structuralist
e)
Functionalist
14.
Which perspective emphasizes that each person has freedom in achieving personal growth?
a)
Humanist
b)
Behaviorist
c)
Psychoanalyst
d)
Psychobiologist
e)
Structuralist
15.
A psychologist focusing on how we process, store, and use information is a:
a)
Cognitivist
b)
Behaviorist
c)
Humanist
d)
Psychoanalyst
e)
Functionalist
16.
A scientist who studies how physical and chemical changes influence behavior is a:
a)
Psychobiologist
b)
Humanist
c)
Psychoanalyst
d)
Structuralist
e)
Functionalist
17.
What is the general term for a person trained to observe, analyze, and evaluate behavior?
a)
Psychologist
b)
Psychiatrist
c)
Sociologist
d)
Physiologist
e)
Neurologist
18.
Which specialist focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of severe emotional disorders?
a)
Clinical Psychologist
b)
Educational Psychologist
c)
Experimental Psychologist
d)
Social Psychologist
e)
Industrial Psychologist
19.
A professional who helps people with problems of everyday life, such as marriage, is a:
a)
Counseling Psychologist
b)
Clinical Psychologist
c)
Psychiatrist
d)
Industrial Psychologist
e)
Community Psychologist
20.
Which professional is a medical doctor who can prescribe medication for mental health?
a)
Psychiatry
b)
Psychology
c)
Counseling
d)
Social Work
e)
Sociology
21.
A psychologist who studies the changes that occur throughout a person's life is a:
a)
Developmental Psychologist
b)
Industrial Psychologist
c)
Community Psychologist
d)
Educational Psychologist
e)
Experimental Psychologist
22.
Which specialist would work on improving teaching methods and materials for schools?
a)
Educational Psychologist
b)
Developmental Psychologist
c)
Clinical Psychologist
d)
Counseling Psychologist
e)
Social Psychologist
23.
A psychologist designing a preventive program for a neighborhood clinic is a:
a)
Community Psychologist
b)
Industrial Psychologist
c)
Experimental Psychologist
d)
Educational Psychologist
e)
Clinical Psychologist
24.
Which professional applies psychological principles to improve workplace productivity?
a)
Industrial/Organizational Psychologist
b)
Clinical Psychologist
c)
Developmental Psychologist
d)
Social Psychologist
e)
Educational Psychologist
25.
A psychologist who performs research to understand how the sensory system works is a:
a)
Experimental Psychologist
b)
Counseling Psychologist
c)
Clinical Psychologist
d)
Industrial Psychologist
e)
Community Psychologist
26.
What is the small group of participants, out of the total number available, that researchers study?
a)
Sample
b)
Population
c)
Variable
d)
Control Group
e)
Case Study
27.
Watching a group of chimpanzees in the wild without interfering is which method?
a)
Naturalistic observation
b)
Case study
c)
Survey
d)
Experiment
e)
Longitudinal study
28.
Which research method involves an intensive investigation of a single individual?
a)
Case study
b)
Survey
c)
Naturalistic observation
d)
Cross-sectional study
e)
Experiment
29.
A research method that obtains information by asking many people fixed questions is a:
a)
Survey
b)
Case study
c)
Naturalistic observation
d)
Experiment
e)
Longitudinal study
30.
Which study follows the same group of people at regular intervals over many years?
a)
Longitudinal study
b)
Cross-sectional study
c)
Case study
d)
Naturalistic observation
e)
Survey
31.
Comparing the memory skills of 20, 40, and 60-year-olds all at the same time is a:
a)
Cross-sectional study
b)
Longitudinal study
c)
Case study
d)
Naturalistic observation
e)
Experiment
32.
Which term describes the measure of a relationship between two sets of data?
a)
Correlation
b)
Hypothesis
c)
Variable
d)
Sample
e)
Norm
33.
In an experiment, any factor that is capable of change is known as a(n):
a)
Variable
b)
Constant
c)
Theory
d)
Sample
e)
Hypothesis
34.
The group of participants to which an independent variable is applied is the:
a)
Experimental group
b)
Control group
c)
Sample group
d)
Population
e)
Placebo group
35.
The group treated the same as others except the independent variable is not applied is the:
a)
Control group
b)
Experimental group
c)
Sample group
d)
Case study group
e)
Variable group
36.
When researcher expectations cause a person to act in ways that confirm those expectations:
a)
Self-fulfilling prophecy
b)
Placebo effect
c)
Correlation
d)
Reliability
e)
Validity
37.
An experiment where participants are unaware of the treatment, but the researcher knows, is:
a)
Single-blind experiment
b)
Double-blind experiment
c)
Case study
d)
Naturalistic observation
e)
Longitudinal study
38.
An experiment where neither the researcher nor the participants know who received treatment is:
a)
Double-blind experiment
b)
Single-blind experiment
c)
Survey
d)
Case study
e)
Naturalistic observation
39.
A change in behavior resulting from a belief that a treatment will have an effect is the:
a)
Placebo effect
b)
Self-fulfilling prophecy
c)
Correlation
d)
Reliability
e)
Validity
40.
What is the ability of a test to give the same results under similar conditions?
a)
Reliability
b)
Validity
c)
Percentile
d)
Norm
e)
Correlation
41.
The ability of a test to measure what it is intended to measure is known as:
a)
Validity
b)
Reliability
c)
Correlation
d)
Norm
e)
Sample
42.
A ranking of test scores that indicates the ratio of scores lower or higher than a specific score is the:
a)
Percentile system
b)
Norm system
c)
Validity system
d)
Reliability system
e)
Variable system
43.
Standards of comparison for test results developed by giving the test to large groups are:
a)
Norms
b)
Variables
c)
Samples
d)
Correlations
e)
Hypotheses
44.
The ability to acquire new ideas, behaviors, and to adapt to new situations is:
a)
Intelligence
b)
Personality
c)
Reliability
d)
Validity
e)
Correlation
45.
Which theory suggests intelligence is composed of general (g) and specific (s) abilities?
a)
Two-factor theory
b)
Triarchic theory
c)
Emotional intelligence
d)
IQ theory
e)
Heritability theory
46.
Robert Sternberg’s theory involving analytical, creative, and practical thinking is the:
a)
Triarchic theory
b)
Two-factor theory
c)
Emotional intelligence
d)
IQ theory
e)
Personality theory
47.
The ability to perceive and understand emotions to use in decision making is:
a)
Emotional intelligence
b)
Triarchic theory
c)
Two-factor theory
d)
IQ theory
e)
Heritability
48.
What is the standardized measure of intelligence where 100 is typically average?
a)
Intelligence quotient (IQ)
b)
Percentile
c)
Norm
d)
Validity
e)
Reliability
49.
Which term refers to the degree to which a characteristic is related to genetic factors?
a)
Heritability
b)
Cultural bias
c)
Validity
d)
Reliability
e)
Correlation
50.
An aspect of a test in which the wording may be more familiar to one social group than another:
a)
Cultural bias
b)
Heritability
c)
Validity
d)
Reliability
e)
Norming
51.
Which type of assessment measures a person's traits, values, and psychological problems?
a)
personality test
b)
objective test
c)
projective test
d)
intelligence test
e)
aptitude test
52.
A personality test with a limited or forced-choice format, such as the MMPI, is a(n):
a)
objective test
b)
projective test
c)
Rorschach test
d)
TAT test
e)
subjective test
53.
Which type of test requires a person to interpret ambiguous stimuli to reveal feelings?
a)
projective test
b)
objective test
c)
percentile system
d)
norm test
e)
aptitude test
54.
Which famous psychoanalyst focused on the role of unconscious motives and childhood?
a)
Sigmund Freud
b)
Carl Jung
c)
Ivan Pavlov
d)
John Watson
e)
BF Skinner
55.
Who developed the theory of the collective unconscious and universal archetypes?
a)
Carl Jung
b)
Sigmund Freud
c)
Albert Bandura
d)
BF Skinner
e)
John Watson
56.
According to Freud, what is the part of the mind containing material we are unaware of?
a)
unconscious
b)
conscious
c)
ego
d)
id
e)
superego
57.
In Freud’s theory, what is the reservoir of urges that seeks immediate gratification?
a)
id
b)
ego
c)
superego
d)
archetype
e)
collective unconscious
58.
Which part of the personality is in touch with reality and strives to meet demands socially?
a)
ego
b)
id
c)
superego
d)
unconscious
e)
archetype
59.
What is the part of the personality that is the source of conscience and inhibits impulses?
a)
superego
b)
ego
c)
id
d)
collective unconscious
e)
defense mechanism
60.
What are the specific methods the ego uses to avoid facing emotions that cause anxiety?
a)
defense mechanisms
b)
archetypes
c)
conditioned responses
d)
primary reinforcers
e)
contingencies
61.
Jung’s concept of the mind containing inherited memories common to all humans is the:
a)
collective unconscious
b)
unconscious
c)
id
d)
superego
e)
defense mechanism
62.
An inherited idea, based on ancestral experiences, that shapes one's perception is a(n):
a)
archetype
b)
id
c)
ego
d)
secondary reinforcer
e)
neutral stimulus
63.
Alfred Adler's term for a pattern of avoiding feelings of inadequacy rather than overcoming them:
a)
inferiority complex
b)
collective unconscious
c)
archetype
d)
defense mechanism
e)
id
64.
Which researcher is famous for experiments involving salivating dogs and conditioning?
a)
Ivan Pavlov
b)
John Watson
c)
BF Skinner
d)
Albert Bandura
e)
Carl Rogers
65.
Which psychologist founded behaviorism and conducted the 'Little Albert' experiment?
a)
John Watson
b)
Ivan Pavlov
c)
BF Skinner
d)
Albert Bandura
e)
Carl Jung
66.
Which behaviorist is best known for developing operant conditioning and reinforcement?
a)
BF Skinner
b)
Ivan Pavlov
c)
John Watson
d)
Albert Bandura
e)
Carl Rogers
67.
Which psychologist is the main proponent of social learning theory and modeling?
a)
Albert Bandura
b)
BF Skinner
c)
Ivan Pavlov
d)
John Watson
e)
Carl Jung
68.
A learning procedure in which associations are made between neutral and unconditioned stimuli:
a)
classical conditioning
b)
operant conditioning
c)
social learning
d)
cognitive learning
e)
latent learning
69.
A stimulus that does not initially elicit any part of an unconditioned response is a(n):
a)
neutral stimulus
b)
unconditioned stimulus
c)
conditioned stimulus
d)
reinforcement
e)
secondary reinforcer
70.
An event that elicits a certain predictable response without previous training is a(n):
a)
unconditioned stimulus (UCS)
b)
neutral stimulus
c)
conditioned stimulus
d)
conditioned response
e)
secondary reinforcer
71.
What is an organism’s automatic or natural reaction to a specific stimulus?
a)
unconditioned response (UCR)
b)
conditioned response
c)
neutral stimulus
d)
variable
e)
incentive
72.
An once-neutral event that elicits a given response after a period of training is a(n):
a)
conditioned stimulus (CS)
b)
unconditioned stimulus
c)
unconditioned response
d)
neutral stimulus
e)
primary reinforcer
73.
What is the learned reaction to a conditioned stimulus called?
a)
conditioned response (CR)
b)
unconditioned response
c)
neutral stimulus
d)
primary reinforcer
e)
secondary reinforcer
74.
Responding similarly to a range of similar stimuli is the process of:
a)
generalization
b)
discrimination
c)
extinction
d)
shaping
e)
modeling
75.
The ability to respond differently to similar but distinct stimuli is known as:
a)
discrimination
b)
generalization
c)
extinction
d)
reinforcement
e)
shaping
76.
The gradual disappearance of a conditioned response when the CS is presented without the UCS:
a)
extinction
b)
generalization
c)
discrimination
d)
reinforcement
e)
homeostasis
77.
Which psychological school focuses strictly on observable and measurable behaviors?
a)
behaviorism
b)
humanism
c)
cognitivism
d)
structuralism
e)
psychoanalysis
78.
The occurrence of rewards or punishments following particular behaviors is called:
a)
contingencies of reinforcement
b)
schedules of reinforcement
c)
social learning
d)
latent learning
e)
aversion
79.
Learning in which a certain action is reinforced or punished, resulting in behavioral changes:
a)
operant conditioning
b)
classical conditioning
c)
social learning
d)
cognitive mapping
e)
introspection
80.
A stimulus or event that increases the likelihood that a preceding behavior will be repeated:
a)
reinforcement
b)
punishment
c)
extinction
d)
stimulus
e)
archetype
81.
A stimulus that is naturally rewarding, such as food or water, is a:
a)
primary reinforcer
b)
secondary reinforcer
c)
conditioned stimulus
d)
neutral stimulus
e)
variable
82.
A stimulus such as money that becomes rewarding through its link with a primary reinforcer:
a)
secondary reinforcer
b)
primary reinforcer
c)
unconditioned stimulus
d)
neutral stimulus
e)
reflex
83.
A schedule where reinforcement depends on a specified quantity of responses, such as every 4th:
a)
fixed-ratio schedule
b)
variable-ratio schedule
c)
fixed-interval schedule
d)
variable-interval schedule
e)
continuous
84.
A schedule where reinforcement occurs after an unpredictable number of responses:
a)
variable-ratio schedule
b)
fixed-ratio schedule
c)
fixed-interval schedule
d)
variable-interval schedule
e)
partial
85.
A schedule where reinforcement occurs after a specified amount of time has elapsed:
a)
fixed-interval schedule
b)
variable-interval schedule
c)
fixed-ratio schedule
d)
variable-ratio schedule
e)
latent
86.
A schedule where reinforcement occurs after changing amounts of time have passed:
a)
variable-interval schedule
b)
fixed-interval schedule
c)
fixed-ratio schedule
d)
variable-ratio schedule
e)
secondary
87.
The technique in which the desired behavior is molded by first rewarding any similar act:
a)
shaping
b)
modeling
c)
chaining
d)
extinction
e)
aversion
88.
Learned reactions that follow one another in sequence, each triggering the next, is a:
a)
response chain
b)
cognitive map
c)
latent learning
d)
reinforcement schedule
e)
defense mechanism
89.
The process of influencing behavior by means of unpleasant stimuli is:
a)
aversive control
b)
positive reinforcement
c)
latent learning
d)
modeling
e)
shaping
90.
Increasing a behavior by removing or preventing an unpleasant stimulus is:
a)
negative reinforcement
b)
positive reinforcement
c)
punishment
d)
extinction
e)
discrimination
91.
Training an organism to remove or terminate an unpleasant stimulus is:
a)
escape conditioning
b)
avoidance conditioning
c)
classical conditioning
d)
shaping
e)
modeling
92.
Training an organism to respond so as to prevent the occurrence of an unpleasant stimulus:
a)
avoidance conditioning
b)
escape conditioning
c)
positive reinforcement
d)
extinction
e)
generalization
93.
Learning that occurs by observing and imitating the behavior of others is:
a)
social learning
b)
operant conditioning
c)
classical conditioning
d)
physiological
e)
cognitive
94.
Learning that focuses on how information is obtained, processed, and organized is:
a)
cognitive learning
b)
behaviorism
c)
reinforcement
d)
aversive control
e)
psychoanalysis
95.
A mental picture of spatial relationships or relationships between events is a:
a)
cognitive map
b)
response chain
c)
archetype
d)
defense mechanism
e)
latent learning
96.
Learning that is not demonstrated by an immediate change in behavior at the time of learning:
a)
latent learning
b)
modeling
c)
shaping
d)
reinforcement
e)
extinction
97.
A condition where a person believes they cannot change a situation after repeated failure:
a)
learned helplessness
b)
self-actualization
c)
eustress
d)
fight-or-flight
e)
homeostasis
98.
Learning by imitating others or copying behavior is:
a)
modeling
b)
shaping
c)
reinforcement
d)
extinction
e)
aversion
99.
The systematic application of learning principles to change people's actions and feelings:
a)
behavior modification
b)
introspection
c)
psychoanalysis
d)
heritability
e)
norms
100.
A system where desirable behavior is reinforced with valueless objects that can be exchanged:
a)
token economy
b)
response chain
c)
cognitive map
d)
aversive control
e)
latency
101.
Which humanist is known for the hierarchy of needs and the concept of self-actualization?
a)
Abraham Maslow
b)
Carl Rogers
c)
Sigmund Freud
d)
Ivan Pavlov
e)
BF Skinner
102.
Which humanist emphasized unconditional positive regard and the 'fully functioning' person?
a)
Carl Rogers
b)
Abraham Maslow
c)
Sigmund Freud
d)
John Watson
e)
Carl Jung
103.
Which psychological school emphasizes personal growth and the achievement of potential?
a)
humanistic psychology
b)
behaviorism
c)
psychoanalysis
d)
structuralism
e)
functionalism
104.
The humanistic term for realizing one's unique potential is:
a)
self-actualization
b)
homeostasis
c)
reinforcement
d)
archetype
e)
id
105.
One's experience or image of oneself, developed through interaction with others, is the:
a)
self
b)
id
c)
ego
d)
superego
e)
persona
106.
The humanistic term for viewing oneself in a positive light due to positive feedback:
a)
positive regard
b)
self-actualization
c)
homeostasis
d)
incentive
e)
archetype
107.
The conditions a person must meet in order to regard themselves positively are:
a)
conditions of worth
b)
secondary reinforcers
c)
archetypes
d)
defense mechanisms
e)
norms
108.
Perception that individuals' significant others value them for what they are, without limit:
a)
unconditional positive regard
b)
conditions of worth
c)
negative reinforcement
d)
aversive control
e)
self-actualization
109.
Rogers' term for an individual whose person and self coincide, allowing for growth:
a)
fully functioning
b)
self-actualized
c)
reinforced
d)
conditioned
e)
unconscious
110.
An internal state that activates behavior and directs it toward a goal is:
a)
motivation
b)
instinct
c)
need
d)
drive
e)
homeostasis
111.
Innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to certain stimuli are:
a)
instincts
b)
drives
c)
needs
d)
incentives
e)
reinforcers
112.
A biological or psychological requirement of an organism is a:
a)
need
b)
drive
c)
instinct
d)
incentive
e)
reinforcement
113.
A state of tension produced by a need that motivates an organism toward a goal is a:
a)
drive
b)
need
c)
instinct
d)
incentive
e)
homeostasis
114.
The tendency of all organisms to correct imbalances and return to a normal internal state:
a)
homeostasis
b)
drive
c)
self-actualization
d)
reinforcement
e)
extinction
115.
An external stimulus, reinforcer, or reward that motivates behavior is a(n):
a)
incentive
b)
need
c)
drive
d)
instinct
e)
homeostasis
116.
Motivation to engage in activities for external rewards or to avoid punishment:
a)
extrinsic motivation
b)
intrinsic motivation
c)
self-actualization
d)
homeostasis
e)
drive
117.
Motivation to engage in activities because they are personally rewarding or fulfill our beliefs:
a)
intrinsic motivation
b)
extrinsic motivation
c)
drive
d)
incentive
e)
reinforcement
118.
The part of the hypothalamus that produces hunger signals is the:
a)
lateral hypothalamus (LH)
b)
ventromedial hypothalamus
c)
amygdala
d)
hippocampus
e)
thalamus
119.
The part of the hypothalamus that can cause one to stop eating when stimulated is the:
a)
ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
b)
lateral hypothalamus
c)
amygdala
d)
hippocampus
e)
pituitary
120.
In Maslow's hierarchy, biological necessities like food and sleep are:
a)
fundamental needs
b)
psychological needs
c)
self-actualization needs
d)
incentives
e)
drives
121.
Needs such as the urge to belong, to give and receive love, and to acquire esteem are:
a)
psychological needs
b)
fundamental needs
c)
self-actualization needs
d)
instincts
e)
incentives
122.
The pursuit of knowledge and beauty or whatever is required for the realization of potential:
a)
self-actualization needs
b)
fundamental needs
c)
psychological needs
d)
homeostasis
e)
drives
123.
A person’s reaction to a stressor, including both physical and psychological responses:
a)
stress
b)
anxiety
c)
anger
d)
fear
e)
homeostasis
124.
A state of increased physiological arousal that prepares the body for action is:
a)
fight-or-flight
b)
homeostasis
c)
extinction
d)
latent learning
e)
sublimation
125.
Hans Selye’s three-stage model of the body’s physical reaction to stress:
a)
General Adaptation Syndrome
b)
Two-factor theory
c)
Triarchic theory
d)
Cognitive map
e)
Response chain
126.
A stress-producing event or situation is a:
a)
stressor
b)
stress reaction
c)
distress
d)
eustress
e)
conflict
127.
The physical, psychological, and behavioral response to a stressor is a:
a)
stress reaction
b)
stressor
c)
eustress
d)
distress
e)
archetype
128.
Stress that stems from acute anxiety or pressure and can take a harsh toll on the body:
a)
distress
b)
eustress
c)
conflict
d)
anxiety
e)
anger
129.
Positive stress, which results from motivating strivings and challenges:
a)
eustress
b)
distress
c)
conflict
d)
fear
e)
drive
130.
A situation in which a person must choose between two or more options that result in tension:
a)
conflict situation
b)
stressor
c)
homeostasis
d)
incentive
e)
reinforcement
131.
A vague, generalized apprehension or feeling that one is in danger:
a)
anxiety
b)
anger
c)
fear
d)
phobia
e)
stressor
132.
An emotional response characterized by strong resentment or irritation is:
a)
anger
b)
anxiety
c)
fear
d)
distress
e)
eustress
133.
The usual reaction when a stressor involves real or imagined danger is:
a)
fear
b)
anger
c)
eustress
d)
homeostasis
e)
reinforcement
134.
Information that leads someone to believe they are cared for and part of a network:
a)
social support
b)
incentive
c)
reinforcement
d)
norm
e)
validity
135.
What is the handbook used by mental health professionals to classify mental disorders?
a)
DSM-IV; V
b)
MMPI
c)
TAT
d)
IQ
e)
Rorschach
136.
An intense and irrational fear of a particular object or situation is a:
a)
phobia
b)
panic disorder
c)
anxiety
d)
stressor
e)
delusion
137.
An extreme anxiety that manifests itself in the form of sudden and unexplainable attacks of fear:
a)
panic disorder
b)
phobia
c)
somatoform disorder
d)
conversion disorder
e)
schizophrenia
138.
Disorder in which victims of traumatic events experience the event again in flashbacks:
a)
post-traumatic stress disorder
b)
panic disorder
c)
conversion disorder
d)
dissociative fugue
e)
bipolar disorder
139.
Condition in which there is no apparent physical cause for actual physical symptoms:
a)
somatoform disorder
b)
phobia
c)
anxiety
d)
schizophrenia
e)
bipolar disorder
140.
Changing emotional difficulties into a loss of a specific voluntary body function:
a)
conversion disorder
b)
somatoform disorder
c)
dissociative amnesia
d)
phobia
e)
PTSD
141.
A disorder in which a person experiences alterations in memory, identity, or consciousness:
a)
dissociative disorder
b)
somatoform disorder
c)
anxiety disorder
d)
phobia
e)
schizophrenia
142.
The inability to recall important personal events or information; usually associated with stress:
a)
dissociative amnesia
b)
dissociative fugue
c)
dissociative identity disorder
d)
conversion disorder
e)
phobia
143.
A dissociative disorder in which a person suddenly and unexpectedly travels away from home:
a)
dissociative fugue
b)
dissociative amnesia
c)
dissociative identity disorder
d)
schizophrenia
e)
somatoform disorder
144.
A person exhibits two or more personality states, each with its own patterns and thinking:
a)
dissociative identity disorder
b)
dissociative amnesia
c)
dissociative fugue
d)
schizophrenia
e)
bipolar disorder
145.
A group of disorders characterized by confused and disconnected thoughts, emotions, and perceptions:
a)
schizophrenia
b)
bipolar disorder
c)
somatoform disorder
d)
dissociative disorder
e)
panic disorder
146.
False beliefs that a person maintains in the face of contrary evidence:
a)
delusions
b)
hallucinations
c)
archetypes
d)
defense mechanisms
e)
norms
147.
Perceptions that have no direct external cause, such as hearing voices:
a)
hallucinations
b)
delusions
c)
archetypes
d)
instincts
e)
incentives
148.
Severe form of lowered mood in which a person experiences feelings of worthlessness:
a)
major depressive disorder
b)
bipolar disorder
c)
panic disorder
d)
dissociative fugue
e)
conversion disorder
149.
Disorder in which an individual alternates between feelings of mania and depression:
a)
bipolar disorder
b)
major depressive disorder
c)
schizophrenia
d)
conversion disorder
e)
dissociative fugue
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