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Agriculture and Geography Quiz

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A farmer wants to grow crops that fix nitrogen in soil. Which crop should he choose?

a)

Wheat

b)

Pulses (legumes)

c)

Cotton

d)

Sugarcane

2.

If a region receives rainfall less than 75 cm annually, which farming type is most suitable?

a)

Wet cultivation

b)

Dry/Rainfed cultivation

c)

Plantation farming

d)

Aquaculture

3.

A field of 10 hectares produces rice in Kharif and wheat in Rabi. What is the cropping intensity?

a)

100%

b)

200%

c)

150%

d)

50%

4.

Why is mixed cropping of cotton and groundnut beneficial in rainfed areas?

a)

Both need same nutrients

b)

Risk diversification and complementary resource use

c)

Increases water requirement

d)

Both are cash crops only

5.

How does zero-tillage farming contribute to sustainable agriculture?

a)

It increases soil erosion

b)

It conserves soil moisture, reduces erosion and fuel costs

c)

It requires more water

d)

It decreases productivity always

6.

Which state accounts for the highest production of millets in India?

a)

Punjab

b)

Rajasthan

c)

West Bengal

d)

Kerala

7.

What is the scientific name of the high-yielding wheat variety developed during Green Revolution?

a)

IR-8

b)

Sonalika/Kalyan Sona

c)

Jaya

d)

Pusa Basmati

8.

The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for crops is recommended by:

a)

NITI Aayog

b)

Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)

c)

Reserve Bank of India

d)

Ministry of Commerce

9.

Which agro-climatic zone classification divides India into how many zones?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

25

10.

The Vaigai dam primarily irrigates which district of Tamil Nadu?

a)

Coimbatore

b)

Madurai and Theni

c)

Chennai

d)

Salem

11.

If a city has 6 lakh population with 3.2 lakh females, what is the sex ratio?

a)

467

b)

533

c)

875

d)

1143

12.

Which port would be most suitable for exporting iron ore from Odisha?

a)

Mumbai Port

b)

Paradip Port

c)

Kochi Port

d)

Chennai Port

13.

A goods train needs to transport 500 tonnes of coal from Jharkhand to Tamil Nadu. Which route is most economical?

a)

Road transport

b)

Railway freight

c)

Air cargo

d)

Coastal shipping

14.

Why is the density of railway network higher in Northern plains compared to Himalayan region?

a)

Climate differences

b)

Flat terrain, high population density, and agricultural productivity

c)

Government preference

d)

Historical reasons only

15.

How does population pyramid shape indicate demographic transition stage?

a)

It shows only gender ratio

b)

Broad base indicates high birth rate; narrow base indicates aging population

c)

It shows literacy only

d)

Shape has no demographic significance

16.

India's first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier is named:

a)

INS Vikrant

b)

INS Vikramaditya

c)

INS Arihant

d)

INS Chakra

17.

The Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC) connects which two regions?

a)

Delhi-Mumbai and Delhi-Howrah

b)

Chennai-Kolkata

c)

Mumbai-Chennai

d)

Bangalore-Delhi

18.

Which is the largest container port in India by volume?

a)

Chennai Port

b)

Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT), Mumbai

c)

Kolkata Port

d)

Vishakhapatnam Port

19.

The decadal growth rate of population is calculated based on census data of:

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

20 years

20.

India's first metro rail to use standard gauge was:

a)

Delhi Metro

b)

Kolkata Metro

c)

Chennai Metro

d)

Bangalore Metro

21.

If a tribal community wants to preserve their language, which measure would be most effective?

a)

Promoting only English education

b)

Documenting, teaching in mother tongue, and creating literature

c)

Banning other languages

d)

Isolation from society

22.

A tribal group practices shifting cultivation in forests. Which ecosystem service are they most dependent on?

a)

Marine resources

b)

Forest regeneration and soil fertility

c)

Urban infrastructure

d)

Industrial products

23.

Why are tribal areas often rich in mineral resources but economically backward?

a)

Tribes don't want development

b)

Lack of infrastructure, exploitation, and inadequate benefit-sharing mechanisms

c)

No minerals exist there

d)

Government neglect only

24.

How does the Scheduled Areas provision protect tribal interests?

a)

It provides reservations only

b)

It restricts land transfer and gives autonomy in governance

c)

It isolates tribes completely

d)

It has no legal significance

25.

The Chenchu tribe is predominantly found in:

a)

Gujarat

b)

Andhra Pradesh (Nallamala forests)

c)

Maharashtra

d)

West Bengal

26.

Which article of the Constitution defines Scheduled Tribes?

a)

Article 342

b)

Article 356

c)

Article 370

d)

Article 19

27.

The Linguistic Survey of India was conducted by:

a)

Max Mueller

b)

George Abraham Grierson

c)

William Jones

d)

James Prinsep

28.

Which tribal group is known for their expertise in honey collection?

a)

Gond

b)

Irula

c)

Bhil

d)

Santhal

29.

The Kota tribe is traditionally associated with which occupation?

a)

Weaving

b)

Pottery and blacksmithing

c)

Fishing

d)

Trading

30.

The Great Andamanese tribe currently numbers approximately:

a)

5,000

b)

Less than 100

c)

10,000

d)

500

31.

A farmer wants to assess crop health across 100 acres. Which technology should he use?

a)

Traditional survey

b)

Drone/satellite-based multispectral imaging

c)

Soil testing only

d)

Visual inspection

32.

For real-time traffic navigation in a city, which technology combination is most useful?

a)

Paper maps only

b)

GPS + GIS with live traffic data

c)

Compass only

d)

Survey maps

33.

A disaster management team needs to identify flood-prone areas. Which data type is most useful?

a)

Population census

b)

Digital Elevation Model (DEM) and drainage network

c)

Road maps only

d)

Political boundaries

34.

Why is RADAR imaging advantageous over optical imaging in tropical regions?

a)

It is cheaper

b)

It penetrates clouds and works in all weather conditions

c)

It provides better colors

d)

It requires no satellites

35.

How does temporal resolution affect environmental monitoring?

a)

It has no effect

b)

Higher temporal frequency enables better change detection and monitoring

c)

Lower is always better

d)

It only affects image quality

36.

The first Indian satellite for remote sensing (IRS-1A) was launched in:

a)

1975

b)

1988

c)

1995

d)

2000

37.

What is the spatial resolution of Cartosat-3 satellite?

a)

0.25 meters

b)

1 meter

c)

5 meters

d)

10 meters

38.

The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System has how many satellites?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

10

d)

12

39.

Which Indian city hosts the National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)?

a)

Bangalore

b)

Hyderabad

c)

Ahmedabad

d)

Thiruvananthapuram

40.

LiDAR stands for:

a)

Light Distance and Ranging

b)

Light Detection and Ranging

c)

Linear Distance Aerial Recording

d)

Laser Integrated Detection and Recording

41.

A new industrial town is being planned for 50,000 people. Which settlement pattern would be most efficient?

a)

Dispersed

b)

Nucleated/planned grid pattern

c)

Random scattered

d)

Linear along a single road

42.

If a village wants to reduce migration to cities, which intervention would be most effective?

a)

Restricting movement

b)

Improving rural infrastructure, education, and employment opportunities

c)

Closing schools

d)

Reducing connectivity

43.

Why do hill stations show nucleated settlement patterns despite difficult terrain?

a)

Random development

b)

Limited flat land concentrates development around specific suitable locations

c)

Government order

d)

Tourism only

44.

How does the rank-size rule describe city size distribution?

a)

All cities are equal

b)

Second largest city is half the size of largest, third is one-third, etc.

c)

Cities grow randomly

d)

Only largest city matters

45.

According to Census 2011, what percentage of India's population is urban?

a)

25.7%

b)

31.16%

c)

40.5%

d)

50.2%

46.

The concept of 'Central Place Theory' was given by:

a)

E.W. Burgess

b)

Walter Christaller

c)

Homer Hoyt

d)

C.D. Harris

47.

Which Indian city was the first to be developed as a planned city post-independence?

a)

Navi Mumbai

b)

Chandigarh

c)

Gandhinagar

d)

Bhubaneswar

48.

The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was launched in:

a)

2001

b)

2005

c)

2010

d)

2014

49.

A census town is defined as having a minimum population of:

a)

3,000

b)

5,000

c)

10,000

d)

15,000

50.

The urbanization level in Tamil Nadu according to Census 2011 is approximately:

a)

38.6%

b)

48.4%

c)

58.6%

d)

68.4%

51.

Two neighboring countries dispute over a river water sharing. Which international body should mediate?

a)

WHO

b)

International Court of Justice or bilateral treaty

c)

UNICEF

d)

IMF

52.

A region with distinct cultural identity wants autonomy. Which constitutional provision could address this?

a)

Article 1

b)

Sixth Schedule or special status provisions

c)

Article 12

d)

Article 21

53.

Why was linguistic reorganization of states important for Indian federalism?

a)

International pressure

b)

It recognized regional identities while maintaining national unity

c)

Economic reasons only

d)

Administrative convenience only

54.

How does the continental shelf benefit coastal nations economically?

a)

It has no benefits

b)

Rights to exploit marine resources, oil, gas, and minerals

c)

Only fishing rights

d)

Tourism only

55.

The Radcliffe Line demarcates the boundary between:

a)

India and China

b)

India and Pakistan

c)

India and Bangladesh

d)

India and Nepal

56.

The 74th Constitutional Amendment deals with:

a)

Panchayati Raj

b)

Urban Local Bodies

c)

State Reorganization

d)

Fundamental Rights

57.

Which was the last state to be formed in India (before Ladakh UT)?

a)

Jharkhand

b)

Telangana (2014)

c)

Chhattisgarh

d)

Uttarakhand

58.

The Sir Creek dispute is between India and:

a)

Bangladesh

b)

Pakistan

c)

Sri Lanka

d)

China

59.

How many languages are in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution currently?

a)

18

b)

22

c)

25

d)

30

60.

The Palk Strait separates India from:

a)

Maldives

b)

Sri Lanka

c)

Myanmar

d)

Indonesia

61.

A coastal community receives a tsunami warning. What immediate action should they take?

a)

Go to the beach

b)

Move to higher ground immediately

c)

Wait for confirmation

d)

Stay indoors

62.

Which type of building construction would reduce earthquake vulnerability?

a)

Unreinforced masonry

b)

RCC with seismic design and ductile detailing

c)

Mud houses

d)

Tall narrow buildings

63.

Why is community-based disaster management more effective than top-down approaches?

a)

It is cheaper

b)

Local knowledge, quick response, and community ownership improve effectiveness

c)

Government is inefficient

d)

It requires less planning

64.

How does land-use planning reduce disaster risk?

a)

It has no effect

b)

It restricts development in hazard-prone areas and enforces safety standards

c)

It only increases costs

d)

It slows development

65.

The Hyogo Framework for Action was adopted in which year?

a)

2000

b)

2005

c)

2010

d)

2015

66.

How many priority areas does the Sendai Framework identify?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

67.

The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is located in:

a)

Mumbai

b)

New Delhi

c)

Hyderabad

d)

Kolkata

68.

SDMA stands for:

a)

State Development and Management Authority

b)

State Disaster Management Authority

c)

State Defense and Military Academy

d)

State Digital Media Authority

69.

The School Safety Policy was launched in India in:

a)

2010

b)

2016

c)

2018

d)

2020

70.

The School Safety Policy was launched in India in:

a)

2010

b)

2016

c)

2018

d)

2020

71.

The National Emergency Number 112 was launched in:

a)

2015

b)

2018

c)

2020

d)

2022

72.

If an earthquake of magnitude 6.0 occurs, what precaution should people inside buildings take?

a)

Run outside immediately

b)

Drop, Cover, and Hold under sturdy furniture

c)

Use elevators

d)

Stand near windows

73.

A coastal area receives a cyclone warning 24 hours in advance. What preparedness measures should be taken?

a)

Go fishing

b)

Evacuate low-lying areas, secure property, stock essentials

c)

Ignore the warning

d)

Travel to the coast

74.

Why do earthquakes cause more damage in densely populated urban areas?

a)

Earthquakes are stronger in cities

b)

High population density, poor construction, and infrastructure concentration increase casualties

c)

Rural areas don't face earthquakes

d)

Cities have better buildings

75.

How does deforestation in upstream areas affect downstream flooding?

a)

It prevents floods

b)

Reduces water absorption, increases runoff velocity and flood intensity

c)

No relationship

d)

Improves drainage

76.

The deadliest earthquake in India occurred in which year in Bhuj, Gujarat?

a)

1993

b)

2001

c)

2005

d)

2015

77.

What is the minimum sea surface temperature required for cyclone formation?

a)

20°C

b)

26°C

c)

30°C

d)

35°C

78.

The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in:

a)

1875

b)

1947

c)

1950

d)

1960

79.

The Uttarakhand flash floods disaster occurred in:

a)

2010

b)

2013

c)

2015

d)

2018

80.

What percentage of India's land area is prone to earthquakes?

a)

39%

b)

59%

c)

79%

d)

89%

81.

The term 'megathrust earthquake' refers to earthquakes occurring at:

a)

Transform boundaries

b)

Subduction zones

c)

Divergent boundaries

d)

Continental rifts

82.

During a chemical spill in a factory, what is the first action workers should take?

a)

Take photos

b)

Evacuate immediately following safety protocols and alert authorities

c)

Try to clean it themselves

d)

Continue working

83.

A region faces recurring landslides. What long-term mitigation measure would be most effective?

a)

Do nothing

b)

Slope stabilization, afforestation, and restricting construction

c)

Build more roads

d)

Remove all vegetation

84.

Why are biological hazards more difficult to control than physical hazards?

a)

They are not difficult

b)

Pathogens mutate, spread rapidly, and require complex medical interventions

c)

Physical hazards are worse

d)

No difference exists

85.

How does urbanization contribute to the urban heat island effect?

a)

It cools cities

b)

Concrete absorbs heat, reduced vegetation, and anthropogenic heat increase temperatures

c)

Cities are naturally warmer

d)

No relationship

86.

The Bhopal Gas Tragedy occurred on:

a)

December 3, 1984

b)

December 5, 1986

c)

November 3, 1984

d)

January 3, 1985

87.

The Kerala floods of 2018 were primarily caused by:

a)

Cyclone

b)

Excessive monsoon rainfall and dam releases

c)

Tsunami

d)

Earthquake

88.

The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India measures how many pollutants?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

89.

The Forest Fire Danger Rating System in India was developed by:

a)

IMD

b)

Forest Survey of India

c)

ISRO

d)

NDMA

90.

The Chernobyl nuclear disaster occurred in:

a)

1979

b)

1986

c)

1990

d)

1995

91.

What is the safe distance from high-voltage power lines for residential areas?

a)

5 meters

b)

30 meters minimum (varies by voltage)

c)

1 meter

d)

100 meters

92.

During a flood, if you are trapped in a car surrounded by water, what should you do?

a)

Stay in the car

b)

Abandon car immediately and move to higher ground

c)

Try to drive through

d)

Call for pizza

93.

A school wants to prepare for earthquakes. What is the most important measure?

a)

Installing alarms only

b)

Conducting regular drills, structural assessment, and emergency planning

c)

Buying insurance only

d)

Ignoring the risk

94.

Why is the first 72 hours after a disaster called the 'critical period'?

a)

Random designation

b)

Maximum survivors can be rescued; immediate needs are most urgent

c)

Government requirement

d)

Weather changes after 72 hours

95.

How does social media help in disaster response?

a)

It doesn't help

b)

Rapid information dissemination, crowd-sourced data, and coordination

c)

It only spreads rumors

d)

Government doesn't use it

96.

The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) was constituted under which act?

a)

Disaster Management Act, 2005

b)

NDRF Act, 2000

c)

Civil Defense Act

d)

Armed Forces Act

97.

How many personnel typically constitute one NDRF battalion?

a)

500

b)

1,149

c)

2,000

d)

5,000

98.

The National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) covers how many coastal states/UTs?

a)

7

b)

13

c)

15

d)

20

99.

The Incident Response System (IRS) in India is based on the model from:

a)

Japan

b)

United States

c)

United Kingdom

d)

Australia

100.

The National Disaster Management Plan was released in:

a)

2010

b)

2016

c)

2019

d)

2020

101.

The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was launched by India in:

a)

2015

b)

2019

c)

2020

d)

2021