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Unit 3: Development and Learning

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to the physical structures and organs directly involved in reproduction, such as reproductive organs and genitalia?

a)

Primary sex characteristics

b)

Gender expression

c)

Secondary sex traits

d)

Sexual orientation

2.

What is the infant milestone when repetitive, nonsensical vocalizations are produced during early experimentation with sounds?

a)

Babbling stage

b)

Telegraphic speech

c)

Holophrastic stage

d)

Cooing phase

3.

Which idea argues that language shapes thought, potentially limiting or determining cognitive processes?

a)

Universal grammar

b)

Linguistic determinism

c)

Semantic priming

d)

Critical period

4.

In operant conditioning, what do we call a cue that signals the availability of reinforcement for a particular behavior?

a)

Placebo signal

b)

Neutral stimulus

c)

Unconditioned cue

d)

Discriminative stimulus

5.

During conditioning, what term describes the initial learning phase in which a response is first established?

a)

Extinction

b)

Acquisition

c)

Generalization

d)

Habituation

6.

Which concept suggests organisms are innately predisposed to form certain associations more easily than others?

a)

Perceptual set

b)

Biological preparedness

c)

Latent inhibition

d)

Shaping bias

7.

Which term refers broadly to a symbolic system for communication that uses rules to convey meaning?

a)

Language

b)

Parole

c)

Idiolect

d)

Dialect

8.

Which process increases the likelihood of a behavior by removing or avoiding an aversive stimulus?

a)

Sensitization

b)

Response cost

c)

Positive punishment

d)

Negative reinforcement

9.

Forming associations between stimuli and responses, such as in classical and operant conditioning, is best described as which type of learning?

a)

Nonassociative learning

b)

Insight learning

c)

Observational learning

d)

Associative learning

10.

In reinforcement schedules, which term means rewards are delivered after a fixed number of responses or a fixed amount of time?

a)

Progressive ratio

b)

Random interval

c)

Variable schedule

d)

Fixed schedule

11.

What attachment style is characterized by an infant using the caregiver as a secure base and showing distress upon separation?

a)

Avoidant attachment

b)

Ambivalent attachment

c)

Disorganized attachment

d)

Secure attachment

12.

In classical conditioning, what is a stimulus that initially elicits no response but becomes conditioned through association with an unconditioned stimulus?

a)

Unconditioned cue

b)

Latent trigger

c)

Operant signal

d)

Neutral stimulus

13.

Which learning type occurs when a neutral stimulus becomes associated with a meaningful stimulus and can elicit a similar response?

a)

Classical conditioning

b)

Latent learning

c)

Observational learning

d)

Operant conditioning

14.

Responding similarly to stimuli that resemble the conditioned stimulus is called what?

a)

Discrimination

b)

Sensory adaptation

c)

Generalization

d)

Habituation

15.

Which reinforcement schedule provides reinforcement after every occurrence of the desired behavior?

a)

Variable interval schedule

b)

Partial reinforcement schedule

c)

Fixed ratio schedule

d)

Continuous reinforcement schedule

16.

Behavior intended to cause harm or injury to another person or object is best labeled as what?

a)

Aggression

b)

Dominance

c)

Competitiveness

d)

Assertiveness

17.

Which psychologist conducted the Bobo doll experiment demonstrating observational learning and highlighted the influence of role models on behavior?

a)

B.F. Skinner

b)

John Watson

c)

Erik Erikson

d)

Albert Bandura

18.

Which example best illustrates positive punishment in behavior modification?

a)

Ignoring misbehavior to reduce attention

b)

Giving allowance for good grades

c)

Removing phone after missed curfew

d)

Adding a chore after missed curfew

19.

A permissive parenting style is most accurately described as which combination of demands and responsiveness?

a)

Low demands, low responsiveness

b)

High demands, high responsiveness

c)

High demands, low responsiveness

d)

Low demands, high responsiveness

20.

In Erikson’s theory, basic trust develops primarily through what kind of caregiving in infancy?

a)

Consistent and nurturing caregiving

b)

Intermittent and strict discipline

c)

Highly stimulating environments

d)

Early peer socialization

21.

Which schedule reinforces a behavior after a set number of responses?

a)

Variable interval schedule

b)

Continuous reinforcement

c)

Fixed ratio schedule

d)

Fixed interval schedule

22.

Which statement best defines the social clock in lifespan development?

a)

Personal preference for daily routines

b)

Cultural timing of life milestones

c)

Biological pace of neural growth

d)

Government policy on retirement age

23.

Self-concept most directly refers to what?

a)

One’s beliefs and evaluation of self

b)

Others’ opinions about someone

c)

One’s outward physical traits

d)

A person’s legal identity documents

24.

Temperament is best characterized as which of the following?

a)

Short-term emotional states

b)

Learned social behaviors

c)

Stable patterns of reactivity

d)

Cognitive problem-solving skills

25.

Which phrase accurately defines a conditioned response?

a)

Voluntary choice guided by rewards

b)

Learned reaction to a conditioned stimulus

c)

Automatic reflex to any stimulus

d)

Innate behavior present at birth

26.

Priya is observing her younger sibling, who is at the one-word stage of language development. What is her sibling most likely doing?

a)

Use complex grammatical morphemes

b)

Form multi-clause sentences

c)

Communicate using single-word utterances

d)

Read simple printed words

27.

Which statement correctly contrasts norms with reflexes in infancy?

a)

Norms are learned social expectations; reflexes are innate responses

b)

Norms are innate responses; reflexes are learned expectations

c)

Both norms and reflexes are innate motor patterns

d)

Norms and reflexes both require classical conditioning

28.

Respondent behavior in classical conditioning is best described as what?

a)

Involuntary responses elicited by stimuli

b)

Goal-directed actions shaped by outcomes

c)

Random behaviors without antecedents

d)

Learned skills through observation

29.

Avery has always felt that their personal sense of gender does not match the gender assigned to them at birth. Which concept does Avery’s experience most closely refer to?

a)

One’s personal sense of gender

b)

Chromosomal sex assignment

c)

Societal gender role norms

d)

Legal sex marker at birth

30.

Jean Piaget is best known for research on which topic?

a)

Stages of cognitive development

b)

Neural mechanisms of language

c)

Attachment styles in infancy

d)

Operant conditioning schedules

31.

Which statement captures the core of partial (intermittent) reinforcement?

a)

Only some responses are reinforced

b)

All responses are reinforced

c)

Responses are never reinforced

d)

Reinforcement is purely random without rules

32.

A variable-ratio schedule typically produces which behavioral pattern?

a)

Rapid extinction of behavior

b)

High, steady response rate

c)

Low, irregular response rate

d)

Long fixed pauses after rewards

33.

An unconditioned response is best defined as what?

a)

Automatic reaction without prior learning

b)

Suppressed behavior after punishment

c)

Learned reaction after pairing stimuli

d)

Deliberate voluntary action

34.

Luna, who is in her late 40s, notices that she has stopped having her monthly periods. This change is most commonly referred to as what?

a)

Increase in fertility during adulthood

b)

Temporary hormonal fluctuation in youth

c)

Beginning of puberty in adolescence

d)

Cessation of menstruation in middle age

35.

Ivan Pavlov’s classic experiments demonstrated conditioning of which type of response?

a)

Observational imitation of models

b)

Voluntary lever pressing for food

c)

Involuntary salivation to a bell

d)

Cognitive mapping of mazes

36.

Which option best defines a primary reinforcer?

a)

Naturally rewarding stimulus like food

b)

Symbolic reward such as money

c)

Conditioned cue paired with praise

d)

Social approval from peers

37.

Which statement best describes ecological systems theory in human development?

a)

It emphasizes internal drives shaping behavior only

b)

It proposes single-context learning governs all growth

c)

It highlights various environmental systems influencing individuals

d)

It claims genetics solely determine developmental outcomes

38.

What is menarche in female development?

a)

An irregular menstrual event in late adolescence

b)

A monthly hormonal cycle before adolescence

c)

The first occurrence of menstruation during puberty

d)

The cessation of menstruation at adulthood

39.

In linguistics, what does syntax refer to?

a)

Sound patterns shaping phonemes in speech

b)

Meanings of words across social contexts

c)

The memory system for acquiring vocabulary

d)

The set of rules governing sentence structure

40.

What is a conditioned stimulus in classical conditioning?

a)

A voluntary behavior reinforced by outcomes

b)

An innate signal causing unlearned reactions

c)

A naturally eliciting trigger producing reflexes

d)

A previously neutral cue paired to elicit a response

41.

Which statement captures the personal fable often seen in adolescence?

a)

Belief rules exist for everyone equally

b)

Belief that peers share identical experiences

c)

Belief adults always understand teenagers

d)

Belief of being unique and invincible

42.

Which environment is most directly involved in daily interactions like family, school, and peers?

a)

Chronosystem of time-based transitions

b)

Microsystem of immediate social settings

c)

Exosystem of indirect institutional forces

d)

Macrosystem shaping cultural ideologies

43.

In social roles, what does the term role most closely mean?

a)

A set of expected behaviors and responsibilities

b)

An individual’s private preferences and choices

c)

A legal status defined solely by rights

d)

A temporary habit without social expectations

44.

A close interpersonal connection characterized by emotional closeness, trust, and vulnerability is called:

a)

intimacy

b)

maturation

c)

integrity

d)

attachment

45.

In Piaget’s theory, the fourth stage from about age 12 through adulthood with abstract and hypothetical thinking is the:

a)

formal operational stage

b)

preoperational stage

c)

concrete operational stage

d)

sensorimotor stage

46.

Learning new behaviors by observing and imitating others, without direct reinforcement, is:

a)

observational learning

b)

classical conditioning

c)

associative learning

d)

latent learning

47.

A developmental stage when an organism is especially sensitive to environmental influences necessary for normal development is the:

a)

critical period

b)

maturation

c)

preoperational stage

d)

sensorimotor stage

48.

The stage of life after adolescence marked by full development and maturity, with milestones like career and family, is:

a)

Childhood

b)

Infancy

c)

Adulthood

d)

Adolescence

49.

A research method that follows the same group over a long time to examine developmental changes is a:

a)

cross-sectional study

b)

longitudinal study

c)

case study

d)

correlational study

50.

A consequence that decreases the likelihood of a behavior recurring by presenting an aversive stimulus or removing a desirable one is:

a)

reversibility

b)

reinforcement

c)

extinction

d)

punishment

51.

A controlled environment used in operant conditioning to study animal behavior, equipped with levers or buttons, is the:

a)

longitudinal study

b)

operant chamber

c)

latent learning

d)

phoneme

52.

The theory proposing personality develops through a series of stages, each with a specific crisis, is:

a)

Puberty

b)

Preoperational Stage

c)

Psychosocial Development

d)

Maturation

53.

A reinforcement schedule rewarding the first response after a set amount of time has passed is a:

a)

Variable Schedule

b)

Ratio Schedule

c)

Interval Schedule

d)

Fixed Schedule

54.

Support provided to help learners acquire skills or knowledge, reduced as competence grows, is called:

a)

social clock

b)

scaffold

c)

schema

d)

role

55.

A behavior repeated because it appears to produce reinforcement, though unnecessary, is:

a)

Pseudoscience

b)

Superstition

c)

Divination

d)

Puberty

56.

The capacity to think logically and solve problems in novel situations, independent of acquired knowledge, is:

a)

General Intelligence

b)

Emotional Intelligence

c)

Crystallized Intelligence

d)

Fluid Intelligence

57.

Learning that occurs without reinforcement and may not be immediately evident, appearing when motivated to demonstrate it, is:

a)

latent learning

b)

classical conditioning

c)

associative learning

d)

operant conditioning

58.

Which term refers to the smallest unit of language that carries meaning, such as words, prefixes, or grammatical markers?

a)

grapheme

b)

syntax

c)

phoneme

d)

morpheme

59.

In Piaget’s theory, what is the process of modifying existing schemas or creating new ones to incorporate new information or experiences?

a)

acquisition

b)

conservation

c)

accommodation

d)

maturation

60.

Which reinforcement schedule delivers reinforcement after a variable number of responses, with the average number required remaining consistent?

a)

fixed-interval schedule

b)

fixed-ratio schedule

c)

variable-ratio schedule

d)

variable-interval schedule

61.

Which psychologist is known for research on attachment in rhesus monkeys using wire and cloth surrogate mothers?

a)

Erik Erikson

b)

Harry Harlow

c)

John B. Watson

d)

John Bowlby

62.

Which hormone is primarily associated with male development and reproductive functions, including secondary sex characteristics and sperm production?

a)

testosterone

b)

X chromosome

c)

estrogen

d)

Y chromosome

63.

What term describes the gradual weakening and disappearance of a conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus?

a)

punishment

b)

identity moratorium

c)

extinction

d)

conservation

64.

In operant conditioning, which technique gradually modifies behavior by reinforcing successive approximations toward a desired behavior?

a)

modeling

b)

generalization

c)

reinforcement

d)

shaping

65.

What is the smallest distinctive sound unit in a language that can differentiate words and change their meanings?

a)

grammar

b)

syllable

c)

syntax

d)

phoneme

66.

Which belief, often held by adolescents, is that they are the focus of everyone else’s attention and concern?

a)

Social Identity

b)

Personal Fable

c)

Imaginary Audience

d)

Insight

67.

Which form of observational learning involves learning by observing and imitating the behaviors of others?

a)

modeling

b)

conditioning

c)

generalization

d)

shaping

68.

What is the application of a grammatical rule where it doesn’t apply, often seen in children’s language development?

a)

Magnification

b)

Personalization

c)

Assimilation

d)

Overgeneralization

69.

Which condition involves symptoms affecting memory, thinking, and social abilities severely enough to interfere with daily functioning?

a)

Dementia

b)

Amnesia

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Delirium

70.

What term describes potentially traumatic events in childhood, such as abuse, neglect, and household dysfunction?

a)

Superstition

b)

unconditioned response

c)

Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)

d)

Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)

71.

A psychologist known for social learning theory and self-efficacy; conducted the Bobo doll experiment demonstrating observational learning and role model influence on behavior.

a)

Sigmund Freud

b)

Ivan Pavlov

c)

Carl Rogers

d)

Albert Bandura

72.

A Soviet psychologist known for a sociocultural theory of cognitive development emphasizing social interaction and cultural context in shaping cognitive growth.

a)

B. F. Skinner

b)

Lev Vygotsky

c)

Lawrence Kohlberg

d)

Noam Chomsky

73.

The status of individuals who are currently exploring various identities but have not yet made a commitment.

a)

Identity Moratorium

b)

Psychosocial Moratorium

c)

Identity Achievement

d)

Extinction

74.

A set of expected behaviors, actions, and responses that guide interactions in specific social situations, such as greetings, conversations, or dating rituals.

a)

social clock

b)

social trap

c)

social script

d)

schema

75.

Any object, event, or experience that evokes a response from an organism, whether biological or psychological.

a)

stimulus

b)

role

c)

acquisition

d)

reflex

76.

A developmental stage proposed by Jeffrey Arnett, characterized by identity exploration, instability, self-focus, and possibilities, typically occurring in the late teens and early twenties.

a)

emerging adulthood

b)

late adulthood

c)

adolescence

d)

middle adulthood

77.

The ability to understand and attribute mental states, such as beliefs, desires, and intentions, to oneself and others, crucial for social cognition and perspective-taking.

a)

theory of mind

b)

object permanence

c)

identity

d)

conservation

78.

The idea that people and animals are inherently inclined to form associations between certain stimuli and responses.

a)

Biological Preparedness

b)

Generalization

c)

Learned Helplessness

d)

Conservation

79.

The tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to a conditioned stimulus, even if they have not been explicitly paired with the unconditioned stimulus.

a)

discrimination

b)

acquisition

c)

assimilation

d)

generalization

80.

The ability to use learned knowledge and experience.

a)

Analytical Intelligence

b)

Fluid Intelligence

c)

Crystallized Intelligence

d)

General Intelligence

81.

The status of individuals who have neither explored nor made a commitment to any identity.

a)

Identity Diffusion

b)

Identity Achievement

c)

Identity Moratorium

d)

Dissociation

82.

A previously neutral stimulus that becomes reinforcing through its association with a primary reinforcer.

a)

conditioned stimulus

b)

conditioned reinforcer

c)

unconditioned stimulus

d)

conditioned response

83.

Which term describes the interconnections between settings like family and school that influence development?

a)

Macrosystem cultural value patterns

b)

Exosystem influences from institutions

c)

Mesosystem links among microsystems

d)

Microsystem interactions across daily life

84.

Which option best defines teratogens?

a)

Procedures for prenatal screening

b)

Genes determining inherited traits

c)

Substances causing birth abnormalities

d)

Nutrients that support fetal growth

85.

What condition results from prenatal alcohol exposure leading to physical and mental defects?

a)

Down syndrome complex

b)

Congenital heart disease

c)

Neonatal abstinence disorder

d)

Fetal alcohol syndrome

86.

A mental representation of landmarks and routes in an area is called a:

a)

Spatial schema

b)

Cognitive map

c)

Environmental chart

d)

Place memory

87.

Which scenario best illustrates the mesosystem?

a)

A city's economic downturn

b)

A parent's job affecting home

c)

A teacher meeting with parents

d)

A school's policy within district

88.

A duckling follows the first moving object it sees after hatching. This behavior is:

a)

Habituation

b)

Modeling

c)

Conditioning

d)

Imprinting

89.

Which statement best separates microsystem from mesosystem?

a)

Microsystem is immediate settings; mesosystem links them

b)

Mesosystem is genetics; microsystem society

c)

Mesosystem is broader culture; microsystem laws

d)

Microsystem is institutions; mesosystem biology

90.

Evelyn was exposed in utero to certain medications and now shows developmental delays. What caused this?

a)

Teratogenic exposure

b)

Postnatal conditioning

c)

Genomic imprinting effects

d)

Nutritional deficiency

91.

Which environmental system includes peers, family, and school as direct settings?

a)

Microsystem

b)

Chronosystem

c)

Mesosystem

d)

Exosystem

92.

A research brief warns pregnant individuals about alcohol, certain drugs, and toxins. These are:

a)

Benign exposures

b)

Homeostatic agents

c)

Placebo substances

d)

Teratogens

93.

Using remembered landmarks to navigate a new route relies on your:

a)

Directional imprint

b)

Spatial reflex

c)

Cognitive map

d)

Procedural schema

94.

In ecological systems theory, which level focuses on connections like family–school collaboration?

a)

Microsystem focus on daily interactions

b)

Mesosystem focus on setting linkages

c)

Exosystem focus on external policies

d)

Macrosystem focus on cultural values

95.

Following the first caregiver seen after birth is an example of which concept?

a)

Sensitive-period imprinting

b)

Social role modeling

c)

Attachment style learning

d)

Associative conditioning

96.

What concept refers to an infant’s understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of sight?

a)

Habituation in repeated stimuli

b)

Telegraphic speech in short phrases

c)

Object permanence in hidden items

d)

Egocentrism in self-centered views

97.

A toddler says, “Mom go store.” Which language pattern is illustrated?

a)

Habituation in perception

b)

Egocentrism in social reasoning

c)

Object permanence in memory

d)

Telegraphic speech in grammar

98.

Repeated exposure to the same rattle leads an infant to look less at it. What is this process called?

a)

Egocentrism in attention decline

b)

Habituation in stimulus response

c)

Object permanence in recognition

d)

Telegraphic speech in babbling

99.

Which pattern describes infants who are distressed by separation but comforted upon reunion with the caregiver?

a)

Secure attachment with recovery

b)

Avoidant attachment with indifference

c)

Resistant attachment with anger

d)

Disorganized attachment with confusion

100.

Which attachment style involves minimal distress during separation and avoidance upon reunion?

a)

Secure attachment with trust

b)

Avoidant attachment with detachment

c)

Resistant attachment with clinginess

d)

Disorganized attachment with fear

101.

In Piaget’s theory, egocentrism is most typical of which stage?

a)

Sensorimotor stage in infancy

b)

Preoperational stage in preschool

c)

Concrete operational stage in school

d)

Formal operational stage in teens

102.

Object permanence typically emerges during which Piagetian stage?

a)

Sensorimotor stage in infancy

b)

Preoperational stage in preschool

c)

Concrete operational stage in school

d)

Formal operational stage in teens

103.

Which observation best indicates telegraphic speech?

a)

Single-word demands for toys

b)

Three-syllable babbling sequences

c)

Two-word phrases without grammar

d)

Complex sentences with clauses

104.

Which scenario demonstrates habituation?

a)

Infant startles at new noise

b)

Infant ignores repeated tone

c)

Infant points from own view

d)

Infant searches hidden toy

105.

A child insists that everyone sees the picture exactly as they do. Which concept applies?

a)

Egocentrism in perspective taking

b)

Habituation in sensory input

c)

Telegraphic speech in syntax

d)

Object permanence in memory

106.

A baby stops reacting to a mobile after many viewings, then looks longer when a new shape appears. What does the increased looking suggest?

a)

Failure of object permanence

b)

Presence of egocentrism

c)

Emergence of telegraphic speech

d)

Recovery from habituation process

107.

After Emma's caregiver returns following a brief absence, Emma clings to them and has difficulty being soothed. Which attachment pattern does Emma most likely display?

a)

Secure attachment pattern

b)

Avoidant attachment pattern

c)

Resistant/ambivalent pattern

d)

Disorganized attachment pattern

108.

Which caregiver behavior most supports secure attachment development?

a)

Emotionally distant caregiving

b)

Consistent responsive caregiving

c)

Unpredictable inconsistent care

d)

Frightening disoriented care

109.

Telegraphic speech typically appears around which age range?

a)

Around 12–18 months old

b)

Around 5–6 years old

c)

Around 3–4 years old

d)

Around 18–24 months old

110.

Which outcome is most linked to disorganized attachment?

a)

Indifference to caregiver return

b)

Comfort at reunion with caregiver

c)

Consistent secure base behavior

d)

Confused approach-avoid behavior