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Test review epidemiology

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of Epidemiology ?

a)

Science of looking at health of individuals

b)

Study of distribution and determinants of health-related states among specified individuals

c)

Study of occurence, distribution and determinants of health and disease among specified populations

d)

Study of distribution and determinants of health-related states in order to form treatment options for populations

2.

What do you call something that is likely to be transmitted to people through the environment?

a)

carcinogen

b)

infectious

c)

hazardous

d)

congenital

3.

A reservoir of an infectious agent can be

a)

bugs

b)

    An animal

c)

The environment

d)

All of the above

4.

The ______of a particular disease is the number of new cases in a population in a given time period

a)

prevelance

b)

incidence

c)

morbidity

d)

mortality

5.

Which of the following could be used to prevent food-borne illness? Choose all that apply

a)

Wash hands

b)

Cook food thoroughly

c)

Use the same cutting board for uncooked meat and produce

d)

Refrigerate perishable food in two hours

6.

The _____of a given disease is the total number of new and existing disease cases in a population in a given time period

a)

prevalence

b)

incidence

c)

morbidity

d)

mortality

7.

Which among the following is not example of morbidity

a)

Number of people who have cancer

b)

Number of people who have hypertension

c)

Number of patients suffered with Acute Lower Respiratory Tract Infection

d)

Number of people who died from cancer

8.
Noncommunicable diseases are...
a)
Passed from person to person
b)
Not passed from person to person
9.
What does mortality mean?
a)
Death
b)
Health
c)
Illness
d)
Physically able
10.
Which type of disease exists permanently in a geographical area or population group. Examples include sleeping sickness, confined to rural areas in sub-Saharan Africa.
a)
Pandemic
b)
Epidemic
c)
Endemic
d)
Contagious
11.
A mosquito is a type of...
a)
Disease Venom
b)
Disease Vectom
c)
Disease Vector
d)
Disease Victor
12.
What is an epidemic?
a)
An outbreak of a disease that attecks many people at the same time and spreads through a population in a restricted geographical area
b)
An outbreak of a disease that has spread worldwide such as the black plague
13.

A toxin or other substance that produces an immune response by the body

a)

Antigen

b)

Antibody

c)

Vaccine

14.

Inanimate objects that can carry pathogens

a)

Fomites

b)

Morbidity

c)

Mortality

d)

Mosquitos

15.

Pathogens that are spread via animals and insects. The animal or insect passes the pathogen to people.

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Airborne Transmission

d)

Foodborne Tranmission

e)

Vector-Borne Transmission

16.

The leading causes of death are NOT the leading causes of disability

a)

True

b)

False

17.

When a pathogen is moved from person to person through physical touch (kissing, hugging, close-up sneezing, shaking hands).

a)

Transmission

b)

Translation

c)

Emission

d)

Direct Contact

e)

Indirect Contact

18.

Common vectors for pathogen dispersal include food, water, and air

a)

True

b)

False, "vectors" should be "vehicles"

c)

False, air should not be included

d)

False, but IDK why

19.

___ is the use of microbial agents to incapacitate or kill a military or civilian population in an act of war or terrorism.

a)

Terrorism

b)

Biological warfare

c)

pandemic

d)

none of the above

20.

A person who has a disease without signs and symptoms is a

a)

carrier

b)

resevoir

c)

both

d)

neither

21.

_____ of a pathogen gives a relative picture of its seriousness

a)

number needed to treat (NNT)

b)

Classification

c)

basic reproduction number

 (R0)

d)

all of the above

22.

Infectious diseases account for about ___ of all mortality worldwide

a)

20%

b)

25%

c)

30%

d)

35%

23.

Which among the following is not example of morbidity

a)

Number of people who have cancer

b)

Number of people who have hypertension

c)

Number of patients with Acute Lower Respiratory Tract Infection

d)

Number of people who died from cancer

24.

Study of what is upon the people is called

a)

demography

b)

epidemiology

c)

AYUSH

d)

Healthcare

25.

Epidemiologists are interested in learning about --------

a)

the cause of diseases

b)

the frequency and geographic distribution of diseases

c)

how to cure or control them

d)

all of the above

26.

Epidemiology deals with all except

a)

incidence of disease

b)

pathology of diseases

c)

distribution of disease

d)

control of disease

27.

The aim of epidemiology is to---------------health problems and --------------health

a)

eliminate, promote

b)

eradicate, decrease

c)

reduce and promote

d)

eliminate and protect

28.

Which of the following is true about epidemology

a)

improves diagnosis and treatment of disease

b)

eliminate health problems and promote health

c)

monitor health changes over a period of time

d)

all of the above

29.

Which of the following study help in determining the health status of the individual

a)

demography

b)

epidemiology

c)

AYSUH

d)

HSCDS

30.

Epidemiology is the study of the composition of the human population that helps in evaluating effective heath services and programs

a)

part a is right but part b is wrong

b)

part a is wrong but part b is right

c)

both are right

d)

both are wrong

31.

Epidemiology plays an important role in clinical research by periodic assessment of community health

a)

part a is right but part b is wrong

b)

part a is wrong but part b is right

c)

both are right

d)

both are wrong both are wrong

32.

The epidemiological triad consist of an external agent, a susceptible host and an environment where host and agent interact with each other to cause a disease with no role of environent in it.

a)

part a is right but part b is wrong

b)

part b is wrong but part a is right

c)

both are right

d)

both are wrong

33.

Agent in the epidemiological triad can be all except

a)

bacteria

b)

mosquito

c)

virus

d)

parasites

34.

Which of the following environmental factor determine the occurrence of disease.

a)

physical factor

b)

social factor

c)

biological factor

d)

all of these

35.

Physical environment factor includes all except

a)

education

b)

employment level

c)

vector

d)

dietary habits

36.

An organism that carries the disease is called--------

a)

host

b)

agent

c)

environment

d)

all of these

37.

A person or organism infected with an infectious disease agent, but displays no symptoms is called

a)

carrier

b)

agent

c)

vector

d)

all of the above

38.

The epidemiological triad consist of an ; 1.Host, 2. Agents 3. Healthcare facilities 4. Environment , responsible for the occurence of any disease

a)

1 &2

b)

1, 2,3

c)

2, 4th

d)

1, 2, 4

39.

Epidemiology study

a)

causation of disease

b)

Natural history of the diseases

c)

Health status of pipulation

d)

Evaluation of intervention

e)

all of the above

40.

Which of the following factors plays an key role in likelihood of infectious disease acquisition

a)

genetic profile

b)

human behavior

c)

environmental conditions

d)

all of these

41.

The incubation period is the interval between

a)

the time of infection and death

b)

appearance of clinical symptoms

c)

the time of infection and appearance of clinical symptoms

d)

time of infection and appearance ;of antibodies.

42.

Stage of sub clinical diseases, extending from the time of exposure to onset of disease symptoms in chronic disease is called

a)

incubation period

b)

latent period

c)

infection

d)

all of them

43.

Progression of a disease process in an individual over time in the absence of treatment is called

a)

causation of disease

b)

Natural history of disease

c)

Health status of disease

d)

all of them

44.

Epidemiology help us to evaluate the health status of the population to estimate whether time and resources should be spent on particular diseases.

a)

part a is right but part b is wrong

b)

part a is wrong but part b is right

c)

both are right

d)

both are wrong

45.

Epidemiology helps in identifying disease burden in a population. It also determines the priority health programs for prevention and care.

a)

statement 1 is correct but statement 2nd is wrong

b)

statement 1 is wrong but statement 2nd is right

c)

both statement are correct

d)

both the statement are wrong.

46.

Epidemiology helps in assessing the effectiveness of any interventions

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Epidemiological studies are done

a)

making comparisons

b)

asking questions

c)

both of them

d)

none of them

48.

Questions asked during an epidemiological triad include all except

a)

what s the event

b)

what action should be taken by community

c)

what is magnitude

d)

what treatment should be given

49.

What kind of disease can be spread from person to person

a)

communicable

b)

non-communicable

c)

all diseases can be spread

d)

no disease are spread from person to person

50.

What is the difference between communicable and non communicable disease.

a)

a communicable disease can spread from person to person, a non communicable disease comfort

b)

a communicable diseases cannot be passed from person to person while a non communicable disease can be

c)

Both types of disease can be passed from person to person, but communicable diseases require direct contact with bodily fluids.

d)

There will be no difference because both still result in disease.

51.

A pathogen is----------------when it is spread from one person or thing to another

a)

communicable

b)

non-communicable

c)

Diseases

d)

infection

52.

If one got skin cancer from sitting out and tanning in the sun for too long, would that be communicable or non-communicable

a)

non-communicable

b)

communicable

c)

can be anything

d)

none of them

53.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a communicable disease

a)

cold

b)

flu

c)

small pox

d)

asthma

54.

Major changes in the rates of a disease within a population over time provide evidence for which of the following?

a)

Nongenetic factors play an important role in the etiology of that disease

b)

An unknown environmental toxin is triggering the physiological change to the diseased state

c)

Epigenetic factors are playing an outsized role in the development of the disease

55.

Which describes studies that are generally done on healthy people, with an outcome of a disease occurring, and has lower rates?

a)

Prognosis

b)

Risk Factor

56.

Which describes studies that are generally done on sick people, with an outcome of a complications/death/disability/suffering, and has higher rates?

a)

Prognosis

b)

Risk Factor

57.

Hazard ratios are equivalent to which of the following?

a)

Relative risk

b)

Absolute risk

c)

Cohen's d

d)

Attributable risk

58.

Which of the following is a possible explanation for why a condition may not come under medical care? (Note: Choose all that apply.)

a)

The condition is asymptomatic

b)

The symptoms of the condition are considered "normal"

c)

The majority of natural history prognoses are attributable to the decreased availability of service centers in rural areas

59.

If observation begins at different points in the course of disease for the various patients in a cohort, the description of their prognosis will lack precision, and the timing of recovery, recurrence, death, and other outcome events will be difficult to interpret or will be misleading.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

In this study, which of the following is correct population of interest?

Consider the following abstract from the study "Protective effect of myo-inositol hexaphosphate (phytate) on bone mass loss in postmenopausal women".

Introduction: The objective of this paper was to evaluate the relationship between urinary concentrations of InsP6, bone mass loss and risk fracture in postmenopausal women.

Materials and Methods: A total of 157 postmenopausal women were included in the study: 70 had low (≤0.76 μM), 42 intermediate (0.76-1.42 μM) and 45 high (≥1.42 μM) urinary phytate concentrations. Densitometry values for neck were measured at enrollment and after 12 months (lumbar spine and femoral neck), and 10-year risk fracture was calculated using the tool FRAX(®).

Results: Individuals with low InsP6 levels had significantly greater bone mass loss in the lumbar spine (3.08 ± 0.65 % vs. 0.43 ± 0.55 %) than did those with high phytate levels. Moreover, a significantly greater percentage of women with low than with high InsP6 levels showed more than 2 % of bone mass loss in the lumbar spine (55.6 vs. 20.7 %). The 10-year fracture probability was also significantly higher in the low-phytate group compared to the high-phytate group, both in hip (0.37 ± 0.06 % vs 0.18 ± 0.04 %) and major osteoporotic fracture (2.45 ± 0.24 % vs 1.83 ± 0.11 %).

Discussion: It can be concluded that high urinary phytate concentrations are correlated with reduced bone mass loss in lumbar spine over 12 months and with reduced 10-year probability of hip and major osteoporotic fracture, indicating that increased phytate consumption can prevent development of osteoporosis.

a)

All menopausal women

b)

The 157 postmenopausal women included in the study

61.

What type of sampling method was used in this research?

Consider the following extract from "Genetic and Environmental Factors Contributing to Parkinson's Disease: A Case-Control Study in the Cypriot Population. (Links to an external site.)"

A cohort of 235 PD patients and 464 control subjects were recruited from multiple medical and community centers across Cyprus as described previously (16). Patients were included in the study after clinical diagnosis of PD by a board certified neurologist. Diagnosis was followed by a clinical evaluation, using the UPDRS rating scale by a board certified CING neurologist. Patients that had clinical signs suggestive of Parkinsonian syndromes were excluded.

a)

Probability Sample

b)

Random Sample

c)

Convenience Sample

62.

Which of the following is true about the external validity of this study?

Consider the following abstract from "Combined chondroitin sulfate and glucosamine for painful knee osteoarthritis: a multicentre, randomised, double-blind, non-inferiority trial versus celecoxib. (Links to an external site.)"

Objectives: To compare the efficacy and safety of chondroitin sulfate plus glucosamine hydrochloride (CS+GH) versus celecoxib in patients with knee osteoarthritis and severe pain.

Methods: Double-blind Multicentre Osteoarthritis interVEntion trial with SYSADOA (MOVES) conducted in France, Germany, Poland and Spain evaluating treatment with CS+GH versus celecoxib in 606 patients with Kellgren and Lawrence grades 2–3 knee osteoarthritis and moderate-to-severe pain (Western Ontario and McMaster osteoarthritis index (WOMAC) score ≥301; 0–500 scale). Patients were randomised to receive 400 mg CS plus 500 mg GH three times a day or 200 mg celecoxib every day for 6 months. The primary outcome was the mean decrease in WOMAC pain from baseline to 6 months. Secondary outcomes included WOMAC function and stiffness, visual analogue scale for pain, presence of joint swelling/effusion, rescue medication consumption, Outcome Measures in Rheumatology Clinical Trials and Osteoarthritis Research Society International (OMERACT-OARSI) criteria and EuroQoL-5D.

Results: The adjusted mean change (95% CI) in WOMAC pain was −185.7 (−200.3 to −171.1) (50.1% decrease) with CS+GH and −186.8 (−201.7 to −171.9) (50.2% decrease) with celecoxib, meeting the non-inferiority margin of −40: −1.11 (−22.0 to 19.8; p=0.92). All sensitivity analyses were consistent with that result. At 6 months, 79.7% of patients in the combination group and 79.2% in the celecoxib group fulfilled OMERACT-OARSI criteria. Both groups elicited a reduction >50% in the presence of joint swelling; a similar reduction was seen for effusion. No differences were observed for the other secondary outcomes. Adverse events were low and similarly distributed between groups.

Conclusions: CS+GH has comparable efficacy to celecoxib in reducing pain, stiffness, functional limitation and joint swelling/effusion after 6 months in patients with painful knee osteoarthritis, with a good safety profile.

a)

The external validity of this study may be limited due to the study design - RCTs require such a high level of control that their wide applicability may be limited

b)

This study has a high degree of external validity due to the controls imposed by the study design

63.

Which type of bias occurs when comparisons are made between groups of patients that differ in ways other than the main factors under study, ones that affect the outcome of the study

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Measurement Bias

c)

Confounding

64.

Which type of bias is present when the way in which a measurement is taken leads to errors in the results on a systematic level.

a)

Selection Bias

b)

Measurement Bias

c)

Confounding

66.

Which of the following studies is the type of study that is really good at providing broad information on a non-specific topic?

The relationship between mercury and autism: A comprehensive review and discussion (Links to an external site.) (Kern, 2016)

Quinine for muscle cramps (Links to an external site.) (El-Tawil, 2015)

Meta-analysis: chondroitin for osteoarthritis of the knee or hip (Links to an external site.) (Reichenbach, 2007)

a)

Kern, 2016

b)

El-Tawil, 2015

c)

Reichenbach, 2007

67.

Which describes an error that resutls in a false positive?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

68.

Which of the following is not an advantage of a recall or record method of data collection?

a)

Allows considerable flexibility in data analysis

b)

Can be easily employed to validate FFQ data

c)

Useful to capture long periods of accurate dietary data for large numbers of people

d)

They are open-ended, allowing for a detailed collection of diverse consumption habits

69.

Which of the following is a major source of errors in 24-hr recall data collection methods?

a)

The use of open-ended questions

b)

The participant's memory

c)

The use of automated computer systems

d)

The use of portion size estimate tools

70.

Which of the following is a method used in dietary records to reduce data collection errors?

a)

Record all foods for the week at one time

b)

Record all foods as they are prepared/consumed

71.

Which of the following is the utility of the FFQ?

a)

Collect precise dietary intakes over a few days

b)

Capture medium- to long-term dietary habits

c)

The use of detailed, long-form questionnaires as eligibility assessments for dietary trials

72.

Which of the following is not a use of a dietary biomarker?

a)

Used as a surrogate for actual dietary intake in studies of disease occurrence

b)

Used as a validation tool for other forms of dietary assessment

c)

Used as a gold-standard intake for all consumed nutrients

d)

Used as a measure of nutrient status

73.

Which of the following is a limitation for recovery biomarkers? (Note: Choose all that apply)

a)

Available for only a very limited number of dietary factors

b)

Recovery biomarkers reflect dietary intakes over a short time period

c)

Reflect absolute intakes of nutrients, whereas we are generally interested in energy-adjusted intakes in nutritional epidemiology

74.
a)

Amstar

b)

MOOSE

c)

QUARUM

d)

-

75.

Which would be used for a systematic review?

a)

Amstar

b)

MOOSE

c)

QUARUM

d)

-

76.

Which would be used for an RCT?

a)

Amstar

b)

MOOSE

c)

QUARUM

d)

CONSORT

77.

Which of the following would be the preferred method of randomization for an RCT?

a)

Color coded forms

b)

Allocation based upon patient file number

c)

Centralized computer-generated allocation

78.

Which would be used for an observational study?

a)

STROBE

b)

MOOSE

c)

QUARUM

d)

CONSORT

79.

Why is the question of whether a study is retrospective vs. prospective pertinent to the evaluation of cohort studies?

a)

Retrospective studies have a much higher degree of selection bias than do prospective studies.

b)

It is more difficult to control for confounding in prospective studies because new confounding factors come up during the completion of the study.

c)

Prospective studies have a much higher degree of selection bias than do retrospective studies

d)

It is more difficult to control for confounding in retrospective studies because it is impossible or difficult to address missing data.

80.

Which of the following should be given special attention in the evaluation of case-control studies?

a)

Recall bias

b)

Measurement bias

c)

Selection bias

d)

Selection bias

81.

Which of the following is one of the questions that should be considered specifically in the case of evaluating a cross-sectional study? 

a)

Were participants and researchers 'blinded' to participants' treatment group?

b)

Were participants and researchers 'blinded' to participants' treatment group?

c)

Is the study retrospective or prospective?

d)

Was a representative sample achieved (e.g. was the response rate sufficiently high)?

82.

Which of the following is a special consideration in case series studies due to the limited size and non-representative nature of the sample?

a)

External validity

b)

Measurement bias

c)

Method of randomization

83.

What is the function of using a gold-standard test in a study of diagnostic accuracy?

a)

They are used to assess specificity but not sensitivity

b)

Provide a standard against which the new diagnostic test can be measured

c)

They are used to assess sensitivity but not specificity

d)

Gold-standard tests are not needed for tests of diagnostic accuracy

84.

Which of the following is not one of the studies of economic evaluation discussed in the reading?

a)

Cost-utility

b)

Cost-profit

c)

Cost-effectiveness

d)

Cost-benefit

85.

Random variation due to chance is as likely to result in measurements above the true value as it is to result in measurements below the true value.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Why should chance always be a consideration in your evaluation of the research data?

a)

Random variation can be estimated or reduced via improved design, but never eliminated

b)

Chance is more concerning than bias, so it should be the exclusive focus of critical evaluation of research

c)

Random variation can never be estimated for so it represents an unknown factor that must be considered.

87.

Measurements that can be verified physically are difficult to assess for validity, no matter how many times the measurement is repeated.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Why is the question of relevance so important to establishing content validity for the tool in question?

a)

Content validity does not generally require tight control over included components but the tool in question does due to its procedural components

b)

Content validity requires that all of the dimensions of a particular factor or condition be present in the measurement and most importantly, that dimensions not involved are not included

c)

Content validity seeks to establish a large set of assessments and should include items that are components of the condition and items that are not components of the condition in order to reduce the chance of bias.

89.

Why does the measurement of construct validity sometimes seem less pertinent to clinicians than other physically verifiable measurements?

a)

Construct validity relies up on measures that can not be physically verified;

b)

Third party payors do not like to pay for test that can not be physically verified.

c)

Construct validity has largely been disproven as an effective measure of tools that can not be physically verified.

90.

epidemiological trait composed of

a)

agent ,host,environment

b)

agent,host ,risk factor

c)

agent host,causes

d)

agent ,host,incidence

e)

agent ,host,environment

91.

incidence means

a)

new cases and old case

b)

new cases

c)

new cases and clinical cases

d)

clinical cases band old cases

92.

prevalence

a)

new case and old cases

b)

new cases

c)

old case and clinical cases

d)

old cases

93.

Primary prevention

a)

Early diagnosis and treatment

b)

Health promotion and High risk protection

c)

Disability limitation and rehabilitation

d)

Early diagnosis and health promotion

94.

secondary prevention

a)

early diagnosis and treatment

b)

health promotion and high risk protection

c)

disability limitation and rehabilitation

d)

health promotion and treatment

95.

Tertiary prevention

a)

Early diagnosis and treatment

b)

disability limitation and rehabilitation

c)

health promotion high risk protection

d)

health promotion and prevention

96.

Study proceeds backwards from effect to cause

a)

Case control studies

b)

Cohort Studies

c)

Ecological studies

d)

Prevalence studies

97.

Identified as having particular disease, health disorder or

condition Under investigation is called

a)

case

b)

control

c)

carrier

d)

sub clinical case

98.

Disease agent multiply in the host but does

not manifest by signs and symptoms

a)

Sub clinical cases

b)

clinical cases

c)

case

d)

incubation period

99.

Person who acquires the disease from an exposure to the primary case is called

a)

Secondary Case

b)

Index Case

c)

Primary Case

d)

Tertiary Case

100.

Which of the following recent widespread disease is considered pandemic?

a)

Ebola virus disease

b)

H1N1 flu virus (swine flu)

c)

SARS CoV-2

d)

Measles

101.

Endemic means that a disease:

a)

Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy

b)

Is habitually present in human populations

c)

Affects a large number of countries simultaneously

d)

Exhibits a seasonal pattern

e)

Is prevalent among animals

102.

The first table shows the total number of persons who ate each of two specified food items that were possibly infective with group A streptococci. The second table shows the number of sick persons (with acute sore throat) who ate each of the various specified combinations of the food items.

What is the sore throat attack rate in persons who ate both egg salad and tuna?

a)

60/75

b)

60/275

c)

70/200

d)

60/135

e)

None of the above

103.

The first table shows the total number of persons who ate each of two specified food items that were possibly infective with group A streptococci. The second table shows the number of sick persons (with acute sore throat) who ate each of the various specified combinations of the food items.

According to the results shown in the preceding tables, which of the following food items (or combination of food items) is most likely to be infective?

a)

Tuna only

b)

Egg salad only

c)

Neither tuna nor egg salad

d)

Both tuna and egg salad

e)

Cannot be calculated from the data given

104.

In the study of an outbreak of an infectious disease, plotting an epidemic curve is useful because:

a)

It helps to determine what type of outbreak (e.g., single-source, person-to-person) has occurred

b)

It shows whether herd immunity has occurred

c)

It helps to determine the median incubation period

d)

a and c

e)

a, b, and c

105.

Which of the following is characteristic of a single-exposure, common-vehicle outbreak?

a)

Frequent secondary cases

b)

Increasing severity with increasing age

c)

Explosive

d)

Cases include both people who have been exposed and those who were not exposed

e)

All of the above