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General Biology 2 — Third Quarter Examination (Second Semester)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. What is a plasmid?

a)

A protein molecule found in bacterial cells.

b)

A sequence of RNA found in the cytoplasm.

c)

A structure that forms part of the bacterial cell membrane.

d)

A circular piece of DNA that replicates independently of chromosomal DNA

2.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Why are plasmids important in genetic engineering?

a)

They provide a natural source of protein for genetic studies.

b)

They can carry genes of interest into host cells for expression.

c)

They are used as enzymes to cut DNA at specific sequences.

d)

They are responsible for the metabolic processes in bacterial cells.

3.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. A scientist grows two bacterial cultures: one with a plasmid containing a gene for fluorescence and one without it. Under UV light, only one culture fluoresces. What conclusion can be drawn?

a)

Plasmids are always visible under UV light.

b)

Fluorescence is an inherent property of all bacterial cells.

c)

UV light causes plasmid DNA to degrade, producing fluorescence.

d)

The plasmid enables the bacteria to fluoresce by expressing the gene it carries.

4.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Which is a transgenic organism?

a)

A rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes.

b)

A human given corrected blood clotting genes.

c)

A fern grown in cell culture from a single fern root cell.

d)

A bacterium that has received genes via conjugation.

5.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Which is not an application of recombinant DNA technology in medicine?

a)

Blood clotting factor VIII

b)

Golden rice

c)

Growth Hormone

d)

Insulin

6.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. What is a major advantage of transformation for bacteria?

a)

It allows bacteria to become immune to viral infections.

b)

It prevents the spread of plasmids among bacterial populations.

c)

It requires direct contact between bacterial cells, ensuring genetic diversity.

d)

It enables bacteria to acquire new genetic traits, such as antibiotic resistance.

7.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Which statement best describes bacterial conjugation?

a)

It requires a virus to mediate the exchange of genetic material.

b)

It is the uptake of free DNA from the environment by a bacterial cell.

c)

It involves the direct transfer of DNA between two bacteria through a pilus.

d)

It occurs when a bacteriophage carries DNA from one bacterium to another.

8.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Arrange the followings steps in making cloned genes in recombinant plasmids in chronological order. I. DNA ligase joins the two DNA molecules, form in a recombinant DNA plasmid. II. Under the right conditions, a bacterial cell takes up the recombinant plasmid. III. The sticky ends of the plasmid match up with the sticky ends of the human DNA fragment according to the base-pairing rules. IV. A restriction enzyme cuts the plasmid in only one place, but cuts the human DNA molecule at thousands of sites. One of those fragments carries the protein V gene. V. Cell division results in many identical copies of the bacterial cell, all carrying the protein V gene. When the genes are expressed, multiple copies of protein V are made.

a)

I, II, III, IV, V

b)

II, V, I, II, IV

c)

IV, III, I, II, V

d)

III, I, IV, II, V

9.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In bacterial transduction, DNA is transferred between bacteria by what mechanism?

a)

A sex pilus

b)

A bacteriophage (virus)

c)

Direct contact between bacterial cells

d)

Plasmid uptake from the environment

10.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Which of the following is true about plasmids in gene transfer?

a)

Plasmids are only found in eukaryotic cells.

b)

Plasmids are always transferred by transduction.

c)

Plasmids are always incorporated into the bacterial chromosome.

d)

Plasmids can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome.

11.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Which of the following best describes the difference between genotype and phenotype?

a)

Genotype and phenotype are interchangeable terms for the inherited traits of an organism.

b)

Genotype is the physical appearance of an organism, while phenotype refers to its genetic makeup.

c)

Genotype refers to the observable traits of an organism, while phenotype refers to the genetic instructions it carries.

d)

Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism, while phenotype refers to the observable traits resulting from the interaction of the genotype with the environment.

12.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. A pea plant has a genotype of Tt for height, where T represents the dominant allele for tallness and t represents the recessive allele for shortness. What is the phenotype of the plant?

a)

Tall

b)

Short

c)

Medium height

d)

Cannot be determined from the information given

13.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents (Tt × Tt), what is the probability of obtaining a homozygous recessive offspring?

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

1/3

d)

1/8

14.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In dogs, the gene for fur color has two alleles. The dominant allele (F) codes for grey fur and the recessive allele (f) codes for black fur. The female dog is heterozygous. The male dog is homozygous recessive. Figure out the percentage of possible phenotypes of their puppies by using a Punnett Square.

a)

25% grey fur, 75% black fur

b)

50% grey fur, 50% black fur

c)

100% grey fur, 0% black fur

d)

75% grey fur, 25% black fur

15.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In dogs, the gene for fur color has two alleles. The dominant allele (F) codes for grey fur and the recessive allele (f) codes for black fur. The female dog is homozygous recessive. The male dog homozygous dominant. Figure out the genotypes of their possible puppies by using a Punnett Square.

a)

FF- 25%, Ff- 25%, ff- 50%

b)

FF- 50%, Ff- 50%, ff- 0%

c)

FF- 100%, Ff- 0%, ff- 0%

d)

FF- 0%, Ff- 100%, ff- 0%

16.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In dogs, the gene for fur color has two alleles. The dominant allele (F) codes for grey fur and the recessive allele (f) codes for black fur. In order to have phenotypes of 75% grey fur and 25% black fur, what should be the genotypes of the parent dogs?

a)

Both are Heterozygous

b)

Both are Homozygous dominant

c)

Heterozygous, Homozygous dominant

d)

Homozygous dominant, Homozygous recessive

17.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In dogs, the gene for fur color has two alleles. The dominant allele (F) codes for grey fur and the recessive allele (f) codes for black fur. In order to have phenotypes of 100% grey fur, what should be the genotypes of the parent dogs?

a)

Both are Heterozygous

b)

Both are Homozygous dominant

c)

Heterozygous, Homozygous dominant

d)

Homozygous dominant, Homozygous recessive

18.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In dogs, the gene for fur color has two alleles. The dominant allele (F) codes for grey fur and the recessive allele (f) codes for black fur. In order to have phenotypes of 100% grey fur and genotypes of 100% heterozygous, what should be the genotypes of the parent dogs?

a)

Both are Heterozygous

b)

Both are Homozygous dominant

c)

Heterozygous, Homozygous dominant

d)

Homozygous dominant, Homozygous recessive

19.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. If two heterozygous tall pea plants (Tt) are crossed, what is the expected ratio of tall to short plants in the offspring?

a)

3:1

b)

1:1

c)

2:1

d)

1:3

20.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates how the environment can influence phenotype?

a)

A child inherits brown eyes from both parents.

b)

A person has blue eyes due to a mutation in their DNA.

c)

A person with the genotype for tallness grows to a shorter height due to poor nutrition during childhood.

d)

A pea plant with the genotype tt for shortness remains short regardless of environmental conditions.

21.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In guinea pigs, black fur (B) is dominant to white fur (b). If a guinea pig has the genotype Bb, what is its phenotype?

a)

White fur

b)

Black fur

c)

Gray fur

d)

Cannot be determined

22.

Directions: Read the questions carefully. Choose the letter of the best answer. In humans, the ability to roll one’s tongue (R) is dominant to not being able to roll one’s tongue (r). If two heterozygous parents (Rr) have children, what is the probability that their child cannot roll their tongue?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

23.

In fruit flies, red eyes (R) are dominant to white eyes (r). If a heterozygous, red-eyed fly (Rr) is crossed with a white-eyed fly (rr), what percentage of their offspring are expected to have white eyes?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

24.

In a pedigree chart, what does a square typically represent?

a)

A female

b)

A male

c)

A carrier of genetic condition

d)

An affected individual

25.

In a pedigree chart, individuals are often grouped into rows to represent different generations. Which generation is typically found at the top of the chart?

a)

The youngest generation

b)

The parents’ generation

c)

The oldest known generation

d)

The grandparents’ generation

26.

Which of the following is true when analyzing a pedigree for a recessive condition?

a)

Carriers are always shaded.

b)

Carriers are never shown on a pedigree.

c)

Carriers are affected and always appear shaded.

d)

Carriers are heterozygous and may be marked with a half-shaded symbol.

27.

In a pedigree chart, a fully shaded circle represents:

a)

A carrier male

b)

A carrier female

c)

A male with the disorder

d)

A female with the disorder

28.

In a pedigree chart for a family with a recessive genetic disorder, a geneticist identifies individuals who are carriers. Why is identifying carriers important?

a)

To confirm that the disorder is dominant

b)

To determine whether the trait skips generations

c)

To confirm that only males are affected by the disorder

d)

To understand the likelihood of the disorder appearing in future generations

29.

A pedigree chart reveals a high likelihood of a hereditary disorder in a family. What is one potential ethical application of this information?

a)

Forcing all family members to undergo genetic testing

b)

Assuming that the disorder will skip the next generation

c)

Avoiding communication with family members about their risk to maintain privacy

d)

Informing family members of their risk so they can make informed reproductive decisions

30.

A public health organization uses pedigree analysis to study the spread of a genetic disorder within a community. What is one potential application of this information?

a)

Developing strategies to eradicate the disorder

b)

Identifying individuals who should not reproduce

c)

Forcing genetic testing on the entire community

d)

Providing education and resources to at-risk families

31.

A geneticist discovers a family pedigree showing a high probability of an untreatable hereditary disorder. What is one ethical way to apply this information?

a)

Mandating genetic testing for the entire family

b)

Releasing the data publicly to raise awareness

c)

Denying access to the pedigree to prevent anxiety

d)

Informing family members so they can decide whether to undergo genetic testing

32.

A teacher uses a pedigree chart in a biology class to explain inheritance patterns. Which of the following is the most effective application?

a)

Demonstrating that disorders are always inherited.

b)

Showing that males are more likely to inherit all genetic traits.

c)

Teaching that pedigree charts are only useful for rare diseases.

d)

Teaching students to predict genetic probabilities for future generations.

33.

What is the shape of a DNA molecule?

a)

Single-stranded helix

b)

Double helix

c)

Triple helix

d)

Linear strand

34.

DNA is often compared to a blueprint because it contains instructions for building proteins. What role does RNA play in this process?

a)

RNA provides the energy required for protein synthesis.

b)

RNA prevents mutations from occurring in the DNA sequence.

c)

RNA directly carries out all cellular functions instead of proteins.

d)

RNA acts as a messenger that helps translate DNA instructions into proteins.

35.

A scientist studying DNA replication finds a bacterial cell that is unable to create the enzyme helicase. What will most likely happen to the DNA in this cell?

a)

The DNA will continue replicating normally.

b)

The DNA will be transcribed but not translated.

c)

The DNA strands will not separate, stopping replication.

d)

The DNA will produce mRNA directly without needing to replicate.

36.

Which of the following statements about DNA and RNA is TRUE?

a)

RNA cannot leave the nucleus, but DNA can.

b)

DNA and RNA both contain deoxyribose sugar.

c)

DNA contains uracil, while RNA contains thymine.

d)

DNA is usually double-stranded, while RNA is usually single-stranded.

37.

What is the main role of RNA in cells?

a)

To store genetic information

b)

To catalyze chemical reactions

c)

To transport genetic information and assist in protein synthesis

d)

To form the structural framework of the cell

38.

If one strand of DNA has the sequence 5'-ATCGTACG-3', what is the complementary sequence?

a)

3'-TAGCATGC-5'

b)

5'-TAGCATGC-3'

c)

3'-GCGTATGC-5'

d)

5'-GCGTATGC-3'

39.

A student is analyzing the structure of DNA. Which of the following correctly describes the components of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

A sugar, a phosphate group, and uracil

b)

A sugar, a phosphate group, and ribose

c)

A sugar, a phosphate group, and thymine only

d)

A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base

40.

A mutation in a DNA sequence replaces one adenine (A) base with guanine (G). What is the immediate impact of this change?

a)

The sugar-phosphate backbone is disrupted.

b)

The entire DNA molecule becomes single-stranded.

c)

The RNA transcription process stops completely.

d)

A base-pairing error occurs, possibly altering protein synthesis.

41.

What is the main role of DNA in protein synthesis?

a)

DNA directly binds amino acids to form a protein.

b)

DNA modifies proteins after they are synthesized.

c)

DNA provides the energy required to produce proteins.

d)

DNA stores the instructions for building proteins in its sequence of bases.

42.

Which type of RNA is responsible for carrying the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome?

a)

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

b)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

c)

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

d)

Small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

43.

Which of the following correctly describes a codon?

a)

A group of three amino acids in a protein sequence.

b)

A group of three bases in DNA that directly forms proteins.

c)

A group of three nucleotides in tRNA that forms the anticodon.

d)

A group of three nucleotides in mRNA that specifies an amino acid.

44.

Which of the following events occurs during translation?

a)

DNA is synthesized from RNA.

b)

Proteins are modified by enzymes in the nucleus.

c)

mRNA is copied into a complementary DNA strand.

d)

Amino acids are joined together in the sequence specified by mRNA codons.

45.

Why is the genetic code considered "redundant"?

a)

Amino acids can form multiple codons.

b)

A single codon can code for multiple proteins.

c)

Some codons can specify multiple amino acids.

d)

Multiple codons can specify the same amino acid.

46.

What is an anticodon?

a)

A group of three amino acids that bind to DNA.

b)

A specific sequence of DNA that starts protein synthesis.

c)

A group of three nucleotides on mRNA that matches a tRNA molecule.

d)

A group of three nucleotides on tRNA that is complementary to an mRNA codon.

47.

Given the mRNA sequence 5'-AUG-GCC-UGA-3', what is the resulting amino acid sequence? (Use the codon chart: AUG = Methionine, GCC = Alanine, UGA = Stop)

a)

Alanine-Stop

b)

Methionine-Stop

c)

Methionine-Alanine-Stop

d)

Alanine-Methionine-Stop

48.

Given the mRNA sequence 5'-AUG-CUU-GGC-UAA-3', what is the resulting amino acid sequence? (Codon chart: AUG = Methionine, CUU = Leucine, GGC = Glycine, UAA = Stop)

a)

Methionine-Stop

b)

Methionine-Leucine-Glycine

c)

Leucine-Glycine-Methionine

d)

Methionine-Leucine-Glycine-Stop

49.

If the DNA template strand has the sequence 3'-TAC-GGA-CTA-5', what is the corresponding mRNA sequence?

a)

5'-AUG-CCU-GAU-3'

b)

5'-TAC-GGA-CTA-3'

c)

5'-AUG-GGU-CUA-3'

d)

5'-UAC-GGA-CUA-3'

50.

Given the mRNA sequence 5'-AUG-GUA-CAU-UAA-3', what is the resulting amino acid sequence? (Codon chart: AUG = Methionine, GUA = Valine, CAU = Histidine, UAA = Stop)

a)

Methionine-Valine-Stop

b)

Methionine-Valine-Histidine

c)

Methionine-Valine-Histidine-Stop

d)

Methionine-Valine-Histidine-Valine