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CSA3703 - Software Testing: Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

_____ must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur.

a)

Test Strategy

b)

Test Plan

c)

Test Design

d)

High Level document

2.

Testing Process comprised of

a)

Test Plan and Test Cases

b)

Test log and Test Status

c)

Defect Tracking

d)

All of the above

3.

As a tester, what is your main objective in reviewing a requirement document?

a)

To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business need

b)

To ascertain that each requirement is both testable and uniquely identifiable

c)

To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business need, testable, and uniquely identifiable

d)

To ascertain that each requirement is uniquely identifiable

4.

We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

a)

Each test stage has a different purpose.

b)

It is easier to manage testing in stages.

c)

We can run different tests in different environments.

d)

The more stages we have, the better the testing.

5.

Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

a)

They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.

b)

They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

c)

Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

d)

Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

6.

A failure is:

a)

Found in the software; the result of an error.

b)

Departure from specified behavior.

c)

An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.

d)

A human action that produces an incorrect result.

7.

Enough testing has been performed when

a)

Time runs out.

b)

The required level of confidence has been achieved.

c)

No more faults are found

8.

Test design mainly emphasizes all the following except

a)

Data planning

b)

Test procedures planning

c)

Mapping the data and test cases

d)

Data synchronization

9.

Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

a)

It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.

b)

It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.

c)

It reduces defect multiplication.

d)

It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

10.

Which of the following is NOT a reasonable testing objective?

a)

To find faults in the software

b)

To prove that the software has no faults

c)

To give confidence in the software

d)

To find performance problems

11.

In Life cycle approach to testing, test execution occurs ______

a)

During testing phase

b)

During requirement phase

c)

During coding phase

d)

None of the above.

12.

A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

a)

An error

b)

A fault

c)

A failure

d)

A defect

13.

What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?

a)

How well you know a particular technique

b)

The objective of the test

c)

How appropriate the technique is for testing the application

d)

Whether there is a tool to support the technique

14.

Which of the following are characteristics of testable software?

a)

Observability

b)

Simplicity

c)

Stability

d)

All of the above

15.

The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following:

a)

Explaining the objectives

b)

Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.

c)

Follow up

d)

Individual Meeting preparations

16.

A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.

a)

Moderator

b)

Scribe

c)

Author

d)

Manager

17.

Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review? i. Manager ii. Moderator iii. Scribe / Recorder iv. Assistant Manager

a)

ii,iii,iv are true

b)

i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.

c)

ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.

d)

i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

18.

Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through?

a)

Scenario, Dry Run, Peer Group

b)

Pre Meeting Preparations

c)

Formal Follow Up Process

d)

Includes Metrics

19.

Which of the following term describes testing?

a)

Finding broken code

b)

Evaluating deliverable to find errors

c)

A stage of all projects

d)

None of the mentioned

20.

What type of fault remains in the system for some period and then disappears?

a)

Permanent

b)

Transient

c)

Intermittent

d)

Non-Permanent

21.

Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?

a)

Fault prevention

b)

Fault removal

c)

Fault tolerance

d)

All of the mentioned

22.

A system maintaining its integrity while accepting a temporary halt in its operation is said to be in a state of

a)

Full Fault Tolerance

b)

Graceful Degradation

c)

Fail Soft

d)

Fail Safe

23.

Which of the following Error Detection checks is not a part of Application detection?

a)

Hardware checks

b)

Timing checks

c)

Reversal checks

d)

Coding checks

24.

Exception handling is a type of

a)

Forward error recovery mechanism

b)

Backward error recovery mechanism

c)

Top recovery mechanism

d)

Bottom recovery mechanism

25.

All fault-tolerant techniques rely on

a)

Integrity

b)

Dependability

c)

Redundancy

d)

Inter-dependability

26.

It is imperative for communicating processes to reach consistent recovery points to avoid the _effect, with backward error recovery mechanism.

a)

Static

b)

Dynamic

c)

Domino

d)

Whirlpool

27.

What do you understand by V&V in software testing?

a)

Verified Version

b)

Version Validation

c)

Verification and Validation

d)

Version Verification

28.

When does the testing process stops?

a)

When resources (time and budget) are over

b)

When some coverage is reached

c)

When quality criterion is reached

d)

Testing never ends

29.

Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes

a)

A compliant product

b)

Good quality output

c)

Delivery within budget and schedule

d)

All of the mentioned

30.

Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs

a)

Prevention

b)

Internal Failure

c)

External Failure

d)

Appraisal

31.

According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?

a)

Process control

b)

Document control

c)

Control of non-conforming products

d)

Servicing

32.

The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as

a)

Quality of design

b)

Quality of conformance

c)

Quality of testing

d)

None of the mentioned

33.

What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?

a)

Prevention

b)

Internal Failure

c)

External Failure

d)

Appraisal

34.

Non-conformance to software requirements is known as

a)

Software availability

b)

Software reliability

c)

Software failure

d)

None of the mentioned

35.

Software project manager is engaged with software management activities. He is responsible for _____.

a)

Project planning

b)

Monitoring the progress

c)

Communication among stakeholders

d)

All mentioned above

36.

Which quality deals with the maintaining the quality of the software product?

a)

Quality assurance

b)

Quality control

c)

Quality Efficiency

d)

None of the above

37.

The interviews, which are held between two persons across the table is _____.

a)

Written

b)

Non-structured

c)

Group

d)

One-to-one

38.

How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

No form exists

39.

Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem?

a)

Putnam

b)

Myers

c)

Boehm

d)

Putnam and Myers

40.

Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition?

a)

External inputs

b)

External outputs

c)

External process

d)

Internal Inputs

41.

The main guide for selecting test cases is

a)

To assess risks

b)

To assess quality

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

None of the above

42.

Which of the following is not a risk reduction scheme?

a)

Priority category scheme

b)

Risk analysis

c)

Interviewing

d)

None of the above

43.

The potential problems are identified and their probabilities and impacts are given weights in which technique

a)

Priority categorization scheme

b)

Risk analysis

c)

Interviews

d)

None of the above

44.

Risk exposure is given by which formula

a)

It is the product of probability of occurrence of risk and its impact

b)

It is the sum of probability of its occurrence and its impact

c)

It is the standard deviation of the sum of its probability and its impact

d)

None of the above

45.

A risk matrix

a)

Allows the testers to evaluate and rank potential problems by giving weights to probability or severity value as necessary

b)

Allows testers to assign thresholds that classify the potential problems into priority categories

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

None of the above

46.

In diagonal band prioritisation scheme

a)

Severity equals probability

b)

Severity is never equal to probability

c)

Either (a) or (b)

d)

Both (a) and (b)

47.

Some managers found out that

a)

Reducing the number of test cases

b)

Increased the number of test cases

c)

It does not affect the number of test cases

d)

None of the above

48.

Equivalence partitioning is a technique for?

a)

Correction regression testing

b)

Retest-all strategy

c)

Combinational explosion

d)

None of the above

49.

The test cases derived from use cases

a)

Are most useful in uncovering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.

b)

Are most useful in uncovering the defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system.

c)

Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system.

d)

Are most useful in covering the defects at the integration level.

50.

Several techniques for using test execution information to prioritize test cases for regression testing include,

a)

Techniques that order test cases based on their total coverage of code components.

b)

Techniques that order test cases based on their total coverage of code components not previously covered.

c)

Techniques that order test cases based on their estimated ability to reveal faults in the code components that they cover.

d)

All of the above

51.

Test management primarily focuses on

a)

Coding

b)

Planning and controlling testing activities

c)

Writing documentation

d)

Designing UI

52.

Testing and debugging goals must be defined during

a)

Deployment

b)

Test Planning

c)

Maintenance

d)

Coding

53.

Which document defines how testing will be carried out?

a)

SRS

b)

Test Plan

c)

Vision Document

d)

Test Strategy

54.

A test plan is usually prepared by the

a)

Developer

b)

Client

c)

Test Manager

d)

End user

55.

Which of the following is NOT a test plan component?

a)

Test items

b)

Risks and mitigation

c)

Network design

d)

Schedule

56.

Test objectives describe:

a)

The overall goals and success criteria for testing activities

b)

The scope of features to be developed in the product

c)

The coding standards to be followed by developers

d)

The deployment strategy for releasing the product

57.

A Test Plan Attachment usually contains:

a)

Test Data

b)

Source Code

c)

User Manuals

d)

Sales Forecast

58.

Locating test items refers to identifying:

a)

Stakeholders

b)

Requirements

c)

The components to be tested

d)

Hardware setup

59.

The final outcome of testing is documented in the:

a)

Bug log

b)

Test report

c)

Risk matrix

d)

Review form

60.

A test result report should be:

a)

Complex

b)

Understandable

c)

Brief only

d)

Confidential

61.

Which group creates test policies and procedures?

a)

End users

b)

Management

c)

Operation staff

d)

Customers

62.

The testing specialist group mainly deals with:

a)

Designing UI

b)

Executing tests

c)

Writing business proposals

d)

Marketing strategies

63.

A policy document defines:

a)

Test cases

b)

Rules and guidelines for testing

c)

Coding style

d)

Regression timelines

64.

Testing and debugging are:

a)

Same

b)

Opposites

c)

Complementary

d)

Not related

65.

Debugging is performed by:

a)

Tester

b)

Developer

c)

Customer

d)

Project Manager

66.

The role of testing group in planning includes:

a)

Estimating resources

b)

Creating UI mockups

c)

Deployment activities

d)

Database setup

67.

A testing group must possess skills such as:

a)

UX design

b)

Analytical and technical skill

c)

Sales negotiation

d)

Photography

68.

Building a testing group involves:

a)

Hiring and skill development

b)

Removing automation

c)

Stopping training

d)

Changing product features

69.

Which of the following is a part of test policy development?

a)

Test coverage rules

b)

Marketing strategy

c)

UI design guideline

d)

None

70.

Test scheduling includes:

a)

Debug steps

b)

Timeline for activities

c)

Code style guidelines

d)

Customer survey

71.

A good test plan must be:

a)

Ambiguous

b)

Flexible and clear

c)

Confidential

d)

Very lengthy

72.

Entry and exit criteria define:

a)

Who writes code

b)

When testing starts and stops

c)

Cost of project

d)

Business risks

73.

Risk analysis in test planning helps in:

a)

Increasing product defects

b)

Mitigating issues before testing

c)

Reducing coverage

d)

Removing manual testing

74.

Scope of testing identifies:

a)

What will be tested

b)

What will NOT be tested

c)

Both a and b

d)

Only test schedule

75.

A good test report must include:

a)

Test results and defect statistics

b)

Source code

c)

Budget

d)

All emails

76.

Traceability matrix is used for:

a)

Linking requirements to test cases

b)

Designing UI

c)

Managing budget

d)

Database mapping

77.

The primary audience for a test report is:

a)

Testers only

b)

Developers and managers

c)

End users

d)

Public

78.

Test metrics help in:

a)

Measuring effectiveness

b)

Debugging

c)

Changing UI

d)

Deployment

79.

Resource planning determines:

a)

Code architecture

b)

Hardware, software, manpower required

c)

User feedback

d)

UI color

80.

Communication in testing must be:

a)

Delayed

b)

Clear and continuous

c)

One-time

d)

Optional

81.

Test environment setup includes:

a)

Hardware setup

b)

Software installation

c)

Database setup

d)

All of the above

82.

Which group approves the final test strategy?

a)

Test Engineer

b)

Management

c)

Customer

d)

Developer

83.

Test execution is guided by:

a)

Test strategy

b)

Test plan

c)

Both a and b

d)

None

84.

A bug triage meeting is held to:

a)

Write test cases

b)

Prioritize defects

c)

Train new users

d)

Perform acceptance testing

85.

A stable testing team improves:

a)

Defect count

b)

Test consistency and accuracy

c)

Cost of product

d)

Deployment time

86.

Test planning begins during:

a)

Requirement phase

b)

Deployment phase

c)

Maintenance phase

d)

After coding

87.

Test execution schedule defines:

a)

Who will run tests and when

b)

User interface details

c)

Network setup

d)

Business strategy

88.

Test deliverables include:

a)

Test plan

b)

Test scripts

c)

Test report

d)

All of the above

89.

Pilot testing is mainly done during:

a)

Planning

b)

Final acceptance testing

c)

Deployment

d)

Debugging

90.

A skilled testing group reduces:

a)

Test accuracy

b)

Risk of product failure

c)

Customer satisfaction

d)

Regression coverage

91.

A review of the test plan ensures:

a)

Proper test coverage

b)

UI consistency

c)

Code formatting

d)

Packaging

92.

Test management tools help in:

a)

Writing code

b)

Tracking test cases and results

c)

Marketing

d)

Billing

93.

Which skill is most important for testers?

a)

Analytical thinking

b)

Drawing

c)

Singing

d)

Cooking

94.

Test policy defines:

a)

High-level test guidelines

b)

Individual test steps

c)

Debug instructions

d)

Code comments

95.

A defect reporting system must track:

a)

Status

b)

Priority

c)

Severity

d)

All of the above

96.

Test control ensures:

a)

Testing stays on schedule

b)

Testers stop reporting bugs

c)

UI is updated

d)

Database is clean

97.

Stakeholders use test reports to:

a)

Approve release decisions

b)

Change UI theme

c)

Write test cases

d)

Debug code

98.

A well-defined testing policy helps in:

a)

Standardizing testing process

b)

Increasing software size

c)

Reducing quality

d)

Avoiding automation

99.

Testing maturity improves when:

a)

Policies and procedures evolve

b)

Tester skill decreases

c)

Communication stops

d)

No documentation exists

100.

The final goal of test management is:

a)

Finding all bugs

b)

Delivering high-quality software

c)

Reducing development time only

d)

Running test cases