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Introduction to Server Security

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which characteristic most distinguishes servers from clients in enterprise environments?

a)

Hosting essential business services

b)

Used mainly by individual users

c)

Operate with lower privilege levels

d)

Limited exposure to network threats

2.

Why are servers considered high-value targets for cyber attackers?

a)

They are rarely connected to the internet

b)

They run only during business hours

c)

They have fewer network interfaces

d)

They store critical services and data

3.

What does 24/7 availability imply for server security risk?

a)

Reduced need for authentication

b)

Fewer maintenance windows

c)

Continuous attack opportunities

d)

Guaranteed uptime for clients

4.

Which statement best describes multiple network connections on servers?

a)

Eliminate need for firewalls entirely

b)

Limit interface types to one protocol

c)

Reduce exposure to external threats

d)

Increase functionality and entry points

5.

Which attribute is typical of client systems compared to servers?

a)

Require constant uptime

b)

Host authentication services

c)

Primarily for individual users

d)

Expose many network entry points

6.

Compromise of a server is more severe mainly because servers are essential to what?

a)

Personal entertainment

b)

Business continuity

c)

Single user preferences

d)

Local file printing

7.

Which scenario best illustrates exploiting unpatched vulnerabilities on a server?

a)

Outdated software without patches

b)

Latest firmware installed promptly

c)

Strong passwords rotated weekly

d)

Ports closed and filtered carefully

8.

An attacker uses automated tools to guess RDP or SSH credentials repeatedly. What attack method is this?

a)

Man-in-the-middle snooping

b)

SQL injection on databases

c)

Phishing privileged users

d)

Brute-forcing remote access

9.

Which configuration issue most likely leaves a server open to unauthorized access?

a)

Misconfigured ports or services

b)

Encrypted tunnels for backups

c)

Multi-factor authentication enabled

d)

Role-based access enforced

10.

Which scenario best describes a privilege escalation attack on a server?

a)

A guest logs out after finishing a session

b)

A backup job runs with limited permissions

c)

A user gains admin rights through weak settings

d)

A service denies access to normal users

11.

What is a common impact of ransomware targeting file shares?

a)

Weak passwords allow faster remote logins

b)

Deleted logs improve system performance temporarily

c)

Encrypted files disrupt operations until payment

d)

Open ports increase bandwidth for downloads

12.

Attackers exfiltrate data from exposed databases primarily when the database is

a)

Disconnected and air-gapped permanently

b)

Improperly secured or publicly accessible

c)

Encrypted with strong keys at all times

d)

Hosted only on local personal devices

13.

Which remote access services are commonly brute-forced by attackers?

a)

RDP and SSH for remote control

b)

NTP and SNMP for time checks

c)

FTP and SMTP for email routing

d)

DNS and DHCP for name resolution

14.

A misconfigured server allows an attacker to gain higher-level access. Which preventive approach directly addresses this risk?

a)

Frequent user interface redesign projects

b)

Adding more decorative themes to consoles

c)

Secure configuration baselines applied consistently

d)

Increasing screen brightness for visibility

15.

An organisation wants to reduce the chance of attackers moving deeper after a breach. Which combined strategy is most effective?

a)

Daily social media updates from admins

b)

Longer coffee breaks for IT staff

c)

Patch management, hardening, and secure baselines

d)

Purchasing more office printers quickly

16.

Which description best defines patch management in an IT environment?

a)

Process of acquiring, testing, and installing updates

b)

Method of replacing entire systems during outages

c)

Policy of disabling unused services for performance

d)

Routine of backing up data before monthly maintenance

17.

Which option correctly distinguishes security patches from bug fixes?

a)

Security patches address vulnerabilities exploited by attackers

b)

Bug fixes prevent social engineering through staff training

c)

Security patches improve UI responsiveness and features

d)

Bug fixes add new capabilities to operating systems

18.

A company delays applying a widely available security patch for an SMB exploit. Which outcome is most likely?

a)

Known exploits remain open and attacks can scale

b)

Server storage increases and backups complete faster

c)

User authentication becomes impossible across domains

d)

Network bandwidth usage drops under normal load

19.

In the WannaCry case, what critical lesson should IT teams learn about patch timelines?

a)

Patches may exist months before attacks occur

b)

Vendors rarely release patches for major exploits

c)

Attacks only follow immediately after disclosure

d)

Ransomware never targets legacy network protocols

20.

During the Identify step of the patch management lifecycle, which action is most appropriate?

a)

Subscribe to vendor alerts and inventory software

b)

Disable automatic updates on production servers

c)

Prioritize UI enhancements over security updates

d)

Wait for quarterly audits to discover new patches

21.

Which step focuses on evaluating relevance and severity to prioritize patches?

a)

Identify vulnerabilities and affected assets

b)

Monitor metrics and user feedback post-patch

c)

Deploy patches during maintenance windows

d)

Assess relevance and severity for prioritization

22.

What is the primary purpose of testing patches in a controlled environment?

a)

To speed up production deployment timelines

b)

To ensure no new issues or conflicts appear

c)

To document long-term performance impacts

d)

To confirm user acceptance and feedback loops

23.

During deployment, what practice minimizes disruption?

a)

Immediate rollout to all endpoints

b)

Unscheduled overnight deployments

c)

Scheduled maintenance window deployment

d)

Deploy only to least critical systems

24.

Why should a rollback plan accompany deployment?

a)

To meet vendor licensing requirements

b)

To revert if unforeseen issues occur

c)

To accelerate patch installation speed

d)

To avoid the need for testing

25.

Which activity confirms that all intended fixes are operational after patching?

a)

Regression testing in staging

b)

Verification through logs and acceptance

c)

Prioritization based on severity

d)

Continuous monitoring of metrics

26.

What ongoing action helps identify long‑term effects of a patch?

a)

One‑time verification checklist

b)

Immediate production deployment

c)

Continuous monitoring and feedback

d)

Single round of functional testing

27.

Which statement best reflects safe deployment guidance shown?

a)

Deploy straight to production without tests

b)

Roll back first, then deploy patches

c)

Only test for performance, skip functionality

d)

Never deploy to production without testing

28.

A patch addresses a critical vulnerability on a payment server. Which step determines how quickly it should be applied?

a)

Verify logs after deployment

b)

Identify assets and patch sources

c)

Assess severity and system criticality

d)

Test with performance benchmarks

29.

You completed functional and regression tests. What should happen next in the lifecycle?

a)

Document verification outcomes

b)

Monitor metrics for anomalies

c)

Deploy to production with rollback

d)

Assess again before planning

30.

Which set of tests is recommended before production rollout?

a)

Backup restore and disaster drills

b)

Penetration and social engineering

c)

Functional, regression, performance

d)

Usability and accessibility testing

31.

After deployment, users report slower response times. Which step addresses this issue?

a)

Assessment of severity

b)

Testing in isolation

c)

Verification of fixes

d)

Monitoring and feedback

32.

What evidence would most strongly support that a patch succeeded in fixing an error?

a)

Deployment occurred during maintenance

b)

No anomalies in long‑term metrics

c)

User feedback is generally positive

d)

Targeted log entries show resolved faults

33.

Which statement best defines hardening in the context of servers?

a)

Allowing more public access to increase usability

b)

Restricting attack paths by securing configurations

c)

Expanding services to improve user features

d)

Making servers faster through hardware upgrades

34.

What is an attack surface?

a)

All ways an attacker can interact with the system

b)

Only the open network ports on a server

c)

Only the services running with admin rights

d)

Just the public website and login page

35.

Which action most directly reduces the attack surface?

a)

Changing server hardware to newer models

b)

Enabling all optional services for flexibility

c)

Disabling unnecessary services and unused ports

d)

Increasing the number of admin accounts

36.

Why is applying the latest security patches important?

a)

It improves graphics performance for users

b)

It protects against known vulnerabilities and exploits

c)

It guarantees zero downtime for the server

d)

It replaces the need for access controls entirely

37.

A server is used only as a database and has pre‑installed email and web services. What should the admin do first to harden the server?

a)

Stop and disable the unnecessary web and email services

b)

Change hardware to increase processing speed

c)

Create additional admin accounts for redundancy

d)

Open more ports to improve throughput

38.

Which ports should typically NOT be changed on a public web server?

a)

SSH and RDP remote management ports

b)

File transfer ports used by backups

c)

Database service internal communication ports

d)

HTTP and HTTPS website access ports

39.

What is a practical risk of leaving default credentials enabled on a server?

a)

Network latency will increase for all clients

b)

CPU usage will spike under normal workloads

c)

Automated attacks can easily gain unauthorized access

d)

Users will lose access to their files

40.

Which step adds an additional layer of protection by reducing common scans, but does not replace other measures?

a)

Installing more third‑party applications

b)

Allowing anonymous administrative access

c)

Changing default service ports like SSH or RDP

d)

Enabling every pre‑installed service

41.

An internal application is installed but never used and exposes a listening port. What is the best hardening action?

a)

Remove the application and close its port

b)

Restrict internet access to the network

c)

Keep it installed for future needs

d)

Create a new user account for the app

42.

Which benefit does configuring host firewall rules primarily provide on a server?

a)

Automatically patches operating system vulnerabilities

b)

Encrypts all data stored on the server

c)

Ensures only authorized connections are allowed

d)

Blocks all outbound traffic by default

43.

Which practice best strengthens admin account security?

a)

Share one admin password across teams

b)

Require complex, regularly updated passwords

c)

Use memorable dictionary words

d)

Disable password expiration policies

44.

What is the main goal of restricting remote access to RDP/SSH?

a)

Reduce hardware costs for servers

b)

Lower CPU usage during peak hours

c)

Decrease risk of unauthorized access

d)

Improve website loading performance

45.

Which action aligns with the least privilege principle for services?

a)

Use default permissions for every account

b)

Allow temporary unrestricted access

c)

Assign only permissions needed for tasks

d)

Grant full admin rights to all services

46.

Why should unused applications be removed from a server?

a)

They can create unpatched vulnerabilities

b)

They guarantee faster login times

c)

They improve network throughput

d)

They increase storage capacity

47.

Which statement about logging and auditing is most accurate?

a)

They replace firewall configurations

b)

They make passwords unnecessary

c)

They help detect and respond to incidents

d)

They eliminate all cyber threats

48.

Which approach best manages who has server admin rights?

a)

Rotate admin rights randomly weekly

b)

Set permanent admin rights for interns

c)

Limit access to a trusted small group

d)

Grant admin access to all developers

49.

Which protocol should be disabled to avoid insecure remote command-line access?

a)

SFTP, protecting file transfers safely

b)

HTTPS, securing web traffic end-to-end

c)

SSH, using strong encryption by default

d)

Telnet, using plaintext authentication

50.

Which statement explains the importance of service minimization?

a)

Each open port can be an attack entry point

b)

Open ports consume extra disk space

c)

Closed ports slow down network traffic

d)

Fewer services reduce encryption overhead

51.

Which action is recommended for remote access security on servers?

a)

Allow RDP from any public IP

b)

Permit SSH without key authentication

c)

Disable multi-factor authentication (MFA)

d)

Restrict access to trusted IP addresses

52.

Which service and version is flagged as risky and should be disabled?

a)

SMBv3, modern secure alternative

b)

SMBv1, outdated file sharing protocol

c)

NTPv4, time synchronization service

d)

DNSSEC, secure name resolution add-on

53.

Which password policy element is explicitly recommended for admin accounts?

a)

Numbers only with six characters

b)

Avoid complex characters for usability

c)

Mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, special characters

d)

Reuse old passwords every six months

54.

Which statement best describes a security configuration baseline for servers?

a)

A temporary checklist for one-time installation tasks

b)

A benchmark of recommended secure settings applied consistently

c)

A minimum set of default open services for performance

d)

A list of optional features to customize user experience

55.

Which item is typically included in a baseline’s settings to enhance security?

a)

Game mode and screen refresh rates

b)

Font libraries and color profiles

c)

Password policies and user rights

d)

Wallpaper themes and desktop icons

56.

Which benchmark is widely recognized as an industry standard for secure configuration?

a)

HTML5 accessibility rules

b)

CIS Benchmarks for systems

c)

PCI DSS merchant tiers

d)

IEEE 802.11 wireless profiles

57.

Which standard is specifically used by the U.S. Department of Defense for system hardening?

a)

DISA STIG guidance

b)

ISO 8601 dates

c)

TLS 1.3 cipher suites

d)

W3C web specifications

58.

Why should organizations follow a baseline across all servers?

a)

It guarantees faster boot times regardless of hardware

b)

It eliminates the need for monitoring and logging

c)

It ensures consistent security posture and reduces misconfigurations

d)

It prevents all zero-day exploits without patches

59.

Which example best represents a before/after hardening comparison?

a)

Measuring disk space used by photos

b)

Documenting open ports reduced and services disabled

c)

Listing favorite applications installed by users

d)

Comparing CPU temperatures during gaming sessions

60.

How do vendor baselines, like Microsoft or Red Hat recommendations, help security teams?

a)

They provide comprehensive documentation to aid audits and compliance

b)

They automate all incident response tasks without analysts

c)

They replace the need for network firewalls entirely

d)

They guarantee no vulnerabilities will ever be found