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Worksheets

ORION 111-127

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following means that individuals have the understand basic health information to make appropriate health?

a)

Health literacy

b)

Cultural competency

c)

Communication skills

d)

Professional communication

2.

A pharmacist is working in a busy community pharmacy where has several patients at the counter. A patient brought to you for Sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following is the best way of communication with you to provide counseling?

a)

Ask other patients to leave the pharmacy in order to communicate with the patient

b)

To protect patient privacy, no need to communicate; just provide the drug to him

c)

Ask the patient to move to a private area in the pharmacy to hear you clearly and ask questions

d)

Write down the instructions on a paper and provide it to him, talking to him in front of other patients

3.

Which of the following scenarios is considered a violation of the ethics?

a)

Submitting a research approval extension request to institutional review board after failing to finish the project within the approved period

b)

Distributing questionnaires to patients waiting in emergency to collect information about their health status without a consent page

c)

Calling patients to collect information after telling them about the project and getting their agreements

d)

Drawing blood samples after getting the approval from institutional review board

4.

There are four principles in biomedical ethics these ethics autonomy, justice, beneficence, and one more principle. Which of following is the fourth principle of biomedical ethics?

a)

Privacy

b)

Dilemmas

c)

Non-maleficence

d)

Conflict of interest

5.

Which of the following documents created by the World Medical Association is the statement of ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects?

a)

Ethics Code

b)

Belmont Report

c)

Nuremberg Code

d)

Declaration of Helsinki

6.

Which one of the following statements accurately explain the idea of “Diffusion of innovation therapy for health promotion”?

a)

Psychological process of creativity

b)

The way people develop new ideas

c)

How new ideas are controlled by a culture

d)

The method of disseminating innovative ideas through a culture

7.

Which of the following measurements is used to assess patient adherence?

a)

Drug utilization reviews

b)

Medication Event System

c)

Medication Possession Ratio

d)

Medication therapy management

8.

Which of the following best describe pharmacy health literacy assessment?

a)

Measure how well the pharmacy is serving patients with limited health literacy skills

b)

Discover gaps in the written information provided to served patients

c)

Explore understanding of health care information by the illiterate

d)

Assess the level of literacy in the served patients

9.

Research investigators must submit all research protocols to the institutional review board and obtain approval before performing the research. What is the main purpose of this board?

a)

To help in collecting the data

b)

To provide the needed fund for the research

c)

To safeguard the rights of human research subjects

d)

To calculate the most appropriate sample size for the research

10.

Which of the following is used as an electronic medication dispenser to improve medication adherence?

a)

Text messaging

b)

Cell phone calendar

c)

E-pill Multi Alarm Time Cap

d)

Med-E-Lert Automatic Pill Dispenser

11.

A pharmacy department needs to design a system to maximize the value of the drug therapy to the patients. Which of the following systems should the pharmacy department operate?

a)

Patient safety program

b)

Pharmacy benefit management

c)

Pharmacy networking and bar-coding system

d)

Communication with the prescriber and the therapist

12.

Which of the following is the major risk associated with the use of over-the-counter drugs?

a)

Increased cost without benefit

b)

Decreased drug–drug interactions

c)

Increased potential for misuse and abuse

d)

Increased risk of adverse events

13.

Which of the following situations allow for accepting verbal order?

a)

In a code status

b)

To start chemotherapy

c)

When prescriber is on vacation

d)

For a non-formulary drug request

14.

Which of the following is the best approach for your patient when his/her objective measures of adherence are inconsistent with the subjective measures?

a)

“I noticed there were some missing refills of your medication and I’m concerned that there might be a problem”

b)

“Your refill records provide that you did not refill your medication for the past few months; do you want to be refilled now?”

c)

“Many of my patients have some difficulties remembering to take their medication; what kind of problems have you experienced?”

d)

“Sounds like you are not sure about how to take your medicine; show me how to take it”

15.

A patient visits pharmacy with fever and cough but has no prescription. The patient requests acetaminophen, dextromethorphan syrup, glycerin suppository, and amoxicillin 500 mg capsules. Which of the following needs prescription for delivery?

a)

Amoxicillin capsules

b)

Glycerin suppository

c)

Acetaminophen tablet

d)

Dextromethorphan syrup

16.

Which of the following systems can be integrated with computerized physician order entry to guide physician during prescribing medications?

a)

Smart plumbs

b)

Barcode systems

c)

Electronic distribution cabinets

d)

Clinical decision support system

17.

Which of the following is considered a direct method to measure adherence?

a)

Pill count

b)

Pharmacy record

c)

Patients’ questionnaires

d)

Body drug concentration

18.

Which of the ethical principles do you violate as a pharmacist when you take time and give consultations to only a relative?

a)

Justice

b)

Autonomy

c)

Beneficence

d)

Non-maleficence

19.

The treatment of tuberculosis (AntiTB) involves multiple medication that has to be taken for a long period of time. Which of the following is the best way to ensure patient adherence to AntiTB?

a)

Apply Direct Observed Therapy, short-course strategy (DOT)

b)

Add multivitamins to increase absorption of AntiTB

c)

Interview the patient to assess their knowledge about AntiTB

d)

Review current medications profile to avoid drug–drug interaction with AntiTB

20.

Which of the following is the name of the body responsible for the approval of research in health institutions?

a)

Date Review Board

b)

Research Review Board

c)

Institutional Review Board

d)

Date and Safety Monitoring Board

21.

A hospital conducted a pharmacovigilance (PV) activity to detected events after certain treatment, by asking patients directly and patient records. Which of the following is the type of PV activity conducted by?

a)

Active PV

b)

Passive PV

c)

Mandatory PV

d)

Spontaneous PV

22.

Which of the following fetal adverse effects are seen with the use of finasteride during pregnancy?

a)

Growth restrictions

b)

Genital abnormality

c)

Neural tube defects

d)

Placental abruptions

23.

What is the main absorptive function of the colon?

a)

Iron

b)

Triglycerides

c)

Water and glucose

d)

Sodium, chloride, and water

24.

Which of the following parts of the body does urea synthesis take?

a)

Liver

b)

Heart

c)

Blood

d)

Kidney

25.

Which of the following agents can exert an antipsychotic effect which appears to be due to a dopamine receptor blockade in the central nervous system?

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Bupropion

c)

Bromocriptine

d)

Chlorpromazine

26.

A patient with major depression should receive antidepressant therapy for at least

a)

2 weeks

b)

6 weeks (not for major depression)

c)

2 months

d)

6 months

27.

Which of the following drugs is used for positive symptoms of schizophrenia

a)

Haloperidol

b)

Levodopa

c)

Sertraline

d)

Citalopram

28.

What is the Clozapine test monitoring

a)

Neutropenia (ANC)

b)

Liver functions

c)

Kidney functions

d)

Testing of vitamin B12 levels

29.

A 22-year-old male presents to the primary care physician with complaints of an uncomfortable sensation in his legs during the day and he must constantly move them. History reveals that he has schizophrenia and is treated with antipsychotics over the last three months. Which of the following antipsychotic agents is this patient most likely to take

a)

Clozapine

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Olanzapine

d)

Risperidone

30.

A patient (she was an elderly, about 75) has a seizure, a history of arrhythmia, and is diagnosed with depression. What's the best management

a)

Bupropion

b)

Paroxetine

c)

Imipramine

31.

Which of the following drugs is used for premature ejaculation

a)

Atenolol

b)

Dapoxetine

c)

Olanzapine

d)

Aripiprazole

32.

Which of the following is a pharmacological property of chlorpromazine

a)

Antihistamine

b)

Antiemetic drug

c)

Cholinesterase inhibitor

d)

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

33.

Which of the following is the effect of smoking on serum olanzapine levels?

a)

has no effect

b)

Increase in serum olanzapine levels

c)

decrease in serum olanzapine levels

d)

decrease in olanzapine levels initially then increase in it

34.

An 18-year-old obese girl with newly diagnosed depressive illness is being advised to start antidepressant treatment. Which of the following is best to initiate?

a)

Bupropion

b)

Paroxetine

c)

Mirtazapine

d)

Amitriptyline

35.

A 68-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes, neuropathy and seizures has been newly diagnosed with depressive illness. Which of the following medication would be best to initiate?

a)

Bupropion

b)

Duloxetine

c)

Paroxetine

d)

Amitriptyline

36.

A 27-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive checking and cleaning habits since childhood. Obsessive compulsive disorder is diagnosed. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

a)

Phentermine

b)

Clomipramine

c)

Levetiracetam

d)

Methylphenidate

37.

Which of the following drugs that are used for mania has a narrow therapeutic index?

a)

lithium

b)

haloperidol

c)

aripiprazole

d)

cholbazepam

38.

Which of the following drugs that are used for mania has a narrow therapeutic index?

a)

Lithium

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Aripiprazole

d)

Clonzepam

39.

COPD category B ttt?

a)

ipratropium

b)

Tiotropium

40.

What is the therapeutic use of salbutamol?

a)

antibiotic

b)

antiemetic

c)

anticoagulant

d)

bronchodilator

41.

Which of the following receptors is the main site of action for salbutamol to produce its pharmacological activity in asthma?

a)

Beta 1 agonist

b)

Beta 2 agonist

c)

Alpha 2 agonist

d)

Alpha 2 antagonist

42.

Which agent is a powerful dilator of bronchial smooth muscle and can be used in the treatment of patients with asthma?

a)

phenoxybenzamine

b)

entacapone

c)

propranolol

d)

albuterol

43.

Which biosimilar drug is approved for the treatment of moderate to severe allergic asthma?

a)

Infliximab

b)

Efalizumab

c)

Omalizumab

d)

Trastuzumab

44.

Which of the following is a side effect of albuterol?

a)

Convulsion

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Hypotension

45.

Case about status asthmaticus?

a)

SABA

b)

LABA

c)

ICS

d)

Methylprednisolone

46.

Medication used with exercise-induced asthma?

a)

Tiotropium

b)

Cromolyn

c)

Cortisone

d)

Salmeterol

47.

Which of the following is a side effect of using inhaled corticosteroids in a patient with bronchial asthma?

a)

Oral candidiasis

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

48.

A non-smoker patient suffers from wheezing and chest tightness. What medication should he use?

a)

B2 agonist

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Omalizumab

49.

A woman suffers from an acute asthma attack. What is the best choice for her attack?

a)

Ipratropium

b)

Tiotropium

c)

Corticosteroids

50.

Patient with lab results normal except for hypokalemia (was 3). Which is the most likely cause?

a)

Inhaled corticosteroids

b)

Leukotriene antagonist

c)

Inhaled beta agonist

d)

Inhaled antimuscarinic

51.

Asthma classification for a patient who has cough twice weekly with no interference with daily activity:

a)

Intermittent

b)

Mild persistent

c)

Moderate persistent

d)

Severe persistent

52.

What is the maximum beyond-use date of a repackaged drug?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

9 months

53.

Phenobarbital prescription as outpatient for how many days?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

70

d)

90

54.

Narcotics prescription?

a)

7 days

b)

3 days

c)

1 month

d)

6 months

55.

Non-narcotics prescription?

a)

7 days

b)

3 days

c)

1 month

d)

6 months

56.

Patient came to the pharmacy with a prescription that was prescribed 95 days ago; what should you do?

a)

dispense the necessary medication only

b)

dispense for one month only

c)

ask the patient for the latest prescription

d)

refuse dispense

57.

Who can open pharmacy in Saudia?

a)

Only Saudi citizen

b)

Can be non Saudi but registered pharmacists should be there to manage shifts

c)

Can be non Saudi but manager should be Saudi citizen

d)

only pharmacist can open

58.

Which ministry is responsible for cases of recovery and the number of diseases during the Hajj season?

a)

WHO

b)

SFDA

c)

MOHAU (ministry of hajj and umrah)

d)

Ministry of Health

59.

A fresh graduate was employed by a pharmaceutical company. The company asked her to create a direct-to-consumer advertisement of one of their products that is sold in two dosages: one for prescription and one dosage is sold OTC. Soon after the ad, the Saudi FDA contacted the company to take it down. Explain why?

a)

Because direct-to-consumer advertisement is prohibited in Saudi Arabia

b)

Because advertisement of prescription products is prohibited in Saudi Arabia

c)

Because they did not pay an initial fee

60.

Who is responsible to promote the health in Saudi Arabia?

a)

Saudi Food and Drug Authority (SFDA)

b)

Ministry of Education (MOE)

c)

Ministry of Health (MOH)

d)

Health Colleges

61.

Which of the following best describes the structure of the healthcare systems in Saudi Arabia?

a)

Primary care based

b)

Private based care

c)

3-tier system

d)

2-tier system

62.

Who is responsible for producing regulation for practicing health professions that include pharmacist?

a)

Minister of Health (MOH)

b)

Dean of the college of pharmacy

c)

Executive director of Saudi Food and Drug Authority

d)

Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS)

63.

Which governmental agency gives approval to generic medical enter the drug market in Saudi Arabia after completing all requirements?

a)

Ministry of Health (MOH)

b)

Ministry of Commerce (MOC)

c)

Saudi Food and Drug Authority (SFDA)

d)

Saudi Commission for Health Specialists (SCFHS)

64.

Which of the following governmental bodies is responsible for diseases prevention during Hajj?

a)

Ministry of Health

b)

Saudi Health Council

c)

Saudi Food and drug authority

d)

Saudi commission for Health specialists

65.

Which of the following local organization's primary mission is to the safety and quality of healthcare in health institution?

a)

Saudi central board for accreditation of healthcare institutions (CBAHI)

b)

Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS)

c)

Saudi Food and Drug Authority (SFDA)

d)

Saudi pharmaceutical Society (SPS)

66.

Which of the following is the time after which morphine empty vials are to be discarded?

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

9 months

d)

12 months

67.

Which of the following is the validity of diazepam prescription (in days) according to ministry of health rules and regulation?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

10

d)

14

68.

A pharmacist is hired as in charge of controlled medication pharmacist made inventory record for controlled medications pharmacy before the old pharmacist left. Which of the following is most likely to receive the original record?

a)

Pharmacy

b)

Hospital Administration

c)

Medical Record Department

d)

Saudi Food and Drug authority

69.

Which of the following drugs causes water retention?

a)

codeine

b)

tramadol

c)

indomethacin

d)

acetaminophen

70.

When to use Erythropoietin?

a)

iron deficiency

b)

B12

c)

folic acid

71.

Polystyrene role?

a)

Y ca

b)

Y k

c)

Y ca

d)

Y k

72.

Reabsorption of amino acid in renal tubules occurs in which part?

a)

Distal convolutions

b)

proximal convolutions

c)

loop of Henle

d)

collecting duct

73.

Which of the following medications may alter the renal function?

a)

isoniazid

b)

gentamicin

c)

acetaminophen

d)

cyclophosphamide

74.

What is the indication of sevelamer in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

a)

hypercalcemia

b)

aluminum toxicity

c)

hypermagnesemia

d)

hyperphosphatemia

75.

An 80-year-old female patient is admitted to the hospital for pyelonephritis with sepsis. Past medical history: myocardial infarction, heart failure, hypertension, osteoporosis. She is initiated on trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX). Other medications: lisinopril, digoxin, furosemide, carvedilol, and calcium carbonate. Her labs are shown in the table. Which of the following is the best assessment for this patient’s renal function?

a)

Her SCr is in the normal range, and no dosage adjustments are necessary

b)

Her SCr is in the normal range but her BUN is elevated, so dosages may need to be adjusted

c)

Because of the pyelonephritis, she will have renal dysfunction, and dosages may need to be adjusted

d)

Because of her age, she will have some degree of renal dysfunction and dosage may need to be adjusted

76.

Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide

77.

What is the clinical indication for Epotin Alpha?

a)

anemia in renal failure patient

b)

iron deficiency anemia

c)

anemia in pregnancy

d)

sickle cell anemia

78.

Which pharmacokinetic parameter estimates the renal function?

a)

serum creatinine

b)

intrinsic clearance

c)

blood urea nitrogen

d)

creatinine clearance

79.

Which of the following is the mechanism by which probenecid increases the duration of action of ampicillin when administered at the same time?

a)

Increasing the glomerular filtration

b)

Increasing the intestinal absorption

c)

Inhibition of renal tubular secretion

d)

Inhibition of renal tubular reabsorption

80.

Which of the following is the reason why magnesium-containing antacids should be avoided in patients with renal failure?

a)

Increased renal elimination of magnesium

b)

Decreased renal elimination of magnesium

c)

Increased magnesium absorption in renal failure

d)

Decreased magnesium absorption in renal failure

81.

Target hemoglobin in kidney disease on Darbepoetin?

a)

10–12 g/dL

b)

7–9 g/dL

c)

12–14 g/dL

d)

15–17 g/dL

82.

Treatment of metabolic alkalosis?

a)

calcium carbonate

b)

saline

c)

ringer lactate

d)

dopamine IV

83.

Which of the following prevent renal injury?

a)

Vit C

b)

Vit D

c)

i.v fluid

84.

Metabolic acidosis what is increase?

a)

Pco2

b)

CO2

c)

COH

85.

In metabolic acidosis, what is decreased?

a)

Pco2

b)

HCO3

c)

CO2

86.

A patient with metabolic alkalosis and edema should use which therapy?

a)

Ringer

b)

Isotonic solution

c)

Acetazolamide

87.

Estimating GFR using creatinine clearance by the Cockcroft–Gault equation is used for which patients?

a)

Patients on dialysis

b)

Patients with AKI

c)

Patients with normal kidney function

d)

Patients with stable CKD

88.

Why is thiazide not recommended in kidney patients?

a)

Because it is expensive

b)

Not used in case of kidney impairment

c)

Causes depletion in K and Na

89.

In the ICU, what is the best thing to do in order to evaluate kidney function?

a)

BUN and urine volume

b)

Quantity on a daily basis

c)

Urinalysis

90.

Which of the following drugs used in rheumatoid arthritis can be dosed once a week?

a)

Hydroxychloroquine

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Sulfasalazine

d)

Prednisone

91.

A 68-year-old man was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 1 month ago. He has high disease activity as per the patient activity scale and erosions on radiograph. A trial of non-pharmacologic therapy is ineffective. Which of the following is the best drug therapy?

a)

Hydroxychloroquine

b)

Mercaptopurine

c)

Adalimumab

d)

Abatacept

92.

A 73-year-old man is diagnosed with osteoarthritis of the knee. Which of the following is the best initial therapy?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Gabapentin

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Glucosamine sulfate

93.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking methotrexate and is still not improved after 3 months. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Add adalimumab and abatacept

b)

Add hydroxychloroquine

c)

Continue methotrexate

d)

Switch to another medication

94.

In which situation is methotrexate contraindicated?

a)

Pediatric patients

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Breastfeeding

d)

Heart failure

95.

A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis of initially mild severity took methotrexate for 3 months; the disease has progressed to moderate. What should be done?

a)

Continue methotrexate

b)

Add hydroxychloroquine

c)

Start abatacept

d)

Start adalimumab plus abatacept

96.

Which type of medication error is most difficult to prevent?

a)

Omission error

b)

Wrong-time error

c)

Incorrect duration of treatment

d)

Allergic reactions to an unknown patient

97.

Which of the following prescriptions has the greatest potential to cause a medication error?

a)

Amlodipine 5.0 mg PO OD

b)

Thyroxine 25 mcg PO daily

c)

Acetaminophen 500 mg PO TID

d)

Regular insulin 5 units subcutaneously STAT

98.

A patient’s medication was changed from carbamazepine to phenytoin. A technician pulled 100 mg tablets of phenobarbital instead of the prescribed 30 mg tablets, and the pharmacist did not notice when checking. The patient received a higher dose of phenobarbital and was hospitalized for observation. Which statement best characterizes this situation?

a)

This is an adverse drug reaction

b)

The physician should have informed the pharmacist about the prescription change

c)

The patient should be aware of what was prescribed and the difference

d)

This is a preventable medication error if the pharmacy employs safety measures

99.

An ambulatory care pharmacist received a prescription for liraglutide under REMS from a bariatric endocrine consultant; as per medication under REMS, documents should be provided to the patient. Which of the following is the meaning of REMS beside the name?

a)

This medication has teratogenicity effect

b)

This medication is under restriction and evaluation medication strategy

c)

This medication is under Risk Evaluation and Mitigation

d)

This medication is under Restriction Evaluation Medication

100.

Which of the following drugs require extra precautions during handling to ensure medication safety?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Potassium

c)

Dopamine

d)

Thiamine

101.

Which of the following effects is considered an adverse drug reaction related to extension of a drug's pharmacological action?

a)

Hypotension with nifedipine

b)

Hepatic necrosis with acetaminophen

c)

Dry mouth with tricyclic antidepressants

d)

Interstitial nephritis secondary to penicillin

102.

To ensure safe and proper disposal of hazardous waste, a color-coded system was created. Which of the following colors is the color of hazardous waste containers?

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

yellow

d)

orange

103.

A patient returned phenytoin 30 mg suspension bottles to the pharmacy. He explained that when he opened the second after consuming the first one, he noticed the solution was different. The pharmacist dispensed another bottle to the patient and recorded the event in the patient profile. Which one of the following reports should the pharmacist use for the product?

a)

Opportunity Report form

b)

Quality Defects Reporting Form

c)

Adverse Drug Event Reporting Form

d)

Medication Returned by patient form

104.

Which of the following needs a double check?

a)

Anti inflammatory

b)

Anti depression

c)

Anti thrombosis

d)

Antibiotics

105.

Which of the following is required to consider an adverse drug event report?

a)

drugs dose

b)

patients tall

c)

event name

d)

D- reports phone

106.

What is the most common source of infection in a sterile area?

a)

People

b)

roof

c)

table

d)

equipment

107.

What is the highest risk when an error happens?

a)

Look Like Medication

b)

High Alert Medication

c)

Sound Like Medication

108.

Who is the first one to prevent medication error?

a)

Pharmacist

b)

Nurse

c)

Doctor

d)

Patient

109.

During a patient-centered pharmaceutical care clinic, what is the difference between errors and violations?

a)

Errors are common but violations are rare

b)

Errors can be corrected but violations cannot be corrected

c)

Errors are made by experienced professionals, but violations are made by inexperienced professionals

110.

Which of the following systems can be integrated with computerized physician order entry to guide physicians during prescribing medications?

a)

Smart plumbs

b)

barcode systems

c)

Electronic distribution cabinets

d)

Clinical decision support system

111.

A nurse ordered epinephrine from the pharmacy. Fifteen minutes later she called the pharmacy and no one answered. Then she took a vial from the crash cart, prepared it herself for the patient, and administered it safely to the patient. What did this nurse do wrong?

a)

prepare the medication herself

b)

Used the crash cart for non-emergency cases

c)

There was a high chance of error

112.

Which of the following substances is used to disinfect gloves during compounding sterile products?

a)

liquid soap

b)

sterile water

c)

70% isopropyl alcohol

d)

povidone-iodine

113.

Which of the following is required to consider an adverse drug event report a valid report?

a)

Drug dose

b)

Patients tall

c)

Event name

d)

Reporter's phone

114.

Which of the following method is successful in reducing medication error and enhance patient safety in hospitals?

a)

Performing continuous education sessions on safe dispensing

b)

Providing the pharmacy with the most updated drug references

c)

Implementation of computerized physician order entry (CPOE) system

d)

Encourage medical staff to participate in conferences and scientific meetings regular

115.

Which of the following error detection strategies result in limiting detection?

a)

bar-coding

b)

trigger tools

c)

voluntary reporting

d)

mandatory reporting

116.

A patient is admitted to the hospital for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. During hospital stay, the patient receives IV diltiazem and is discharged on oral diltiazem plus his previous antihypertensive medication verapamil. Which of the following medication error-reduction programs would most likely have helped to prevent this duplication of therapy?

a)

Bar Coding

b)

High-Risk Drug Protocol

c)

Medication Reconciliation

d)

Computerized physician order entry

117.

A 25-years-old male is admitted due to hypersensitivity reaction to some drug ingestion four hours ago. Patient is given a drug which causes dilation of vessels in muscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart. Which of the following is the most likely drug given?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Isoproterenol

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Metaproterenol

118.

Which of following is a vasopressor that is given in a fixed dose without titration for patients with septic shock?

a)

dopamine

b)

vasopressin

c)

epinephrine