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READINGS MD 3.3

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A machine used in testing steel generally strike the specimen with an energy from 220 to 265 ft-lb:

a)

Izod test

b)

Charpy test

c)

Rockwell test

d)

Test blocks

2.

The area in the machine shop whose metal is being melted to form a new shape is the:

a)

foundry area

b)

tool and die

c)

welding area

d)

mass production area

3.

Which of the following is not the work of the machinist?

a)

re-boring

b)

overhauling

c)

grinding

d)

boring

4.

The machine which can flatten surface on a horizontal, vertical or angular plane is:

a)

drilling machine

b)

shaper machine

c)

power saw

d)

lathe machine

5.

Which of the following is not part of a lathe machine?

a)

fan

b)

carriage

c)

headstock

d)

tailstock

6.

One important skill that operators of machine tools must have an understanding of measurement which demands:

a)

speed

b)

neatness

c)

precision

d)

sociability

7.

Which of the following metals is non-magnetic?

a)

manganese steel

b)

cast steel

c)

alloy steel

d)

cast iron

8.

Which tool does not belong to the group?

a)

vise grip

b)

feeler gage

c)

torque wrench

d)

adjustable wrench

9.

What process does not belong to the group?

a)

brazing

b)

soldering

c)

hardening

d)

resistance welding

10.

A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates while the feed is stationary:

a)

shaping

b)

milling

c)

turning

d)

reaming

11.

Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron?

a)

gray iron

b)

white iron

c)

malleable iron

d)

lead iron

12.

Which of the following is not used to temper steel?

a)

oil bath

b)

brine/salt bath

c)

steam bath

d)

water bath

13.

Which of the following is not a part of a headstock?

a)

anvil

b)

spindle

c)

motor

d)

back gear

14.

The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is:

a)

fatigue strength

b)

bending strength

c)

torsional strength

d)

compressive strength

15.

Which of the following metal is easy to chisel?

a)

alloy steel

b)

manganese steel

c)

stainless steel

d)

cast iron

16.

Ferrous metal contains a relatively large amount of:

a)

manganese

b)

carbon

c)

sulfur

d)

phosphorous

17.

Which of the following is not a classification of iron ore?

a)

siderite

b)

hematite

c)

sulfurite

d)

magnetite

18.

All of the following materials are used in the quenching process for steel manufacturing except

a)

air

b)

brine

c)

hydrogen

d)

water

19.

Herringbone gears are gears which:

a)

do not operate on parallel shafts

b)

have a line of contact between the teeth

c)

tend to produce and trust on the shafts

d)

consist of two left-handed helical gears

20.

Steel used as a wire in concrete is for

a)

increased material density.

b)

increased yield strength.

c)

shrinkage and expansion control.

d)

increased abrasion resistance.

21.

The internal stresses existing in a welded connection are

a)

relieved by x-ray analysis

b)

may be relieved when the weld is peened

c)

not relieved when the weld is peened

d)

not relieved by heat treatment

22.

In the usual spur gearing, the:

a)

pitch circle and base circle are the same

b)

working depth includes the clearance

c)

tooth outline are always cycloidal curves

d)

tooth outline are usually involute curves

23.

One of the following is not common terms relating to the classification of fits:

a)

tunking

b)

snug

c)

medium force fit

d)

bound

24.

The use of mixtures (hydrated lime, fly ash, etc.) with concrete is to

a)

reduce weight.

b)

increase durability.

c)

improve workability, hardening, or strength characteristics

d)

accelerate curing.

25.

Stainless steel is obtained principally by the use of which alloying elements:

a)

chromium

b)

nickel

c)

carbon

d)

tungsten

26.

It is generally recommended and normal for a designer to add a hunting tooth to evenly distribute the wear on meshing teeth like a 53-teeth gear meshes with a 30-teeth pinion. Find the rotation of pinion to mesh with the same pair of teeth again.

a)

120

b)

81

c)

61

d)

53

27.

A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates, and the feed is stationary, is called:

a)

Planning

b)

Shaping

c)

Turning

d)

Reaming

28.

One of the following metals which respond to heat treatment:

a)

cast iron

b)

wrought iron

c)

medium carbon steel

d)

low carbon steel

29.

Schedule 40 pipe refers

a)

to stress

b)

low quality

c)

standard wall pipe

d)

standard diameter

30.

Which of the following is not a strength property of metals?

a)

tensile strength

b)

rocking strength

c)

fatigue strength

d)

torsional strength

31.

A machine used in shaping metal by means of abrasive wheel or the removal of metals with an abrasive is called:

a)

planer machine

b)

power saw

c)

shaper machine

d)

grinding machine

32.

Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel?

a)

expansion mandrel

b)

taper mandrel

c)

contraction mandrel

d)

gang mandrel

33.

The kind of center which is being attached and meshed to the tailstock spindle which is also static while the work is rotating is:

a)

dead center

b)

live center

c)

focal center

d)

work center

34.

Which of the following is the only allotropic alloy of steel?

a)

aluminum alloys

b)

copper alloys

c)

magnesium

d)

iron-carbon alloys

35.

During the quenching process in heat treating steel, agitation of the fluids used in the quenching has what effect on the severity of the quenching?

a)

increases quenching severity

b)

decreases quenching severity

c)

has no effect on quenching severity

d)

reverses quenching severity

36.

The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress for a circular section equal to:

a)

22

b)

23\frac{2}{3}

c)

32\frac{3}{2}

d)

34\frac{3}{4}

37.

When a solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces of the same type on all its faces, the ratio of volumetric strain to linear strain along any of the three axes will be equal to:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3\sqrt{3}

d)

3

38.

The ratio of bulk modulus to shear modulus for Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will be equal to:

a)

3/23/2

b)

5/65/6

c)

1

d)

6/36/3

39.

The stress–strain curve for a glass rod during a tensile test is:

a)

A straight line

b)

A parabola

c)

A sudden break

d)

An irregular curve

40.

When shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at that section will be:

a)

Zero

b)

Minimum

c)

Maximum

d)

Minimum or maximum

41.

The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel as compared to its ultimate compressive stress will be:

a)

Same

b)

More

c)

Less

d)

More or less depending on other factors

42.

The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as:

a)

Unit stress

b)

Bulk modulus

c)

Modulus of rigidity

d)

Modulus of elasticity

43.

For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension is nearly:

a)

Same

b)

Half

c)

One-third

d)

Two-third

44.

Select the one that has no unit:

a)

Kinematics viscosity

b)

Surface tension

c)

Bulk modulus

d)

Strain

45.

When a part is constrained to move and heated, it develops:

a)

Principal stress

b)

Tensile stress

c)

Compressive stress

d)

Shear stress

46.

The tensile stress of a material is given by:

a)

Maximum load during test over original cross-sectional area

b)

Average load during test over original cross-sectional area

c)

Maximum load during test over area at the time of fracture

d)

Average load during the test over the area at the time of fracture

47.

The size of hole that is drilled in plates for riveting is:

a)

Equal to the diameter of rivet shank

b)

Slightly smaller than the diameter or rivet shank

c)

1.5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size

d)

1.5 to 2 mm larger than the diameter of the rivet for rivets of 25 mm and above size

48.

The horsepower that can be transmitted by a shaft 60 mm diameter at 180 rpm with permissible shear stress of 850 kg/cm^2 shall be approximately:

a)

30-35

b)

35-50

c)

50-60

d)

60-85

49.

A column is called short column when:

a)

The length is more than 30 times the diameter

b)

Slenderness ratio is more than 120

c)

The length is less than 8 times the diameter

d)

The slenderness ratio is more than 32

50.

Which one is the correct statement about true stress-strain method?

a)

There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain.

b)

True stress is load per unit area(actual) and similarly true strain is determined under actual conditions.

c)

This method can be used for compression test as well

d)

It is more sensitive to changes in mechanical conditions.

51.

The total strain energy stored in a body is called:

a)

Resilience

b)

Proof resilience

c)

Modulus of resilience

d)

Toughness

52.

A material that is capable of absorbing a large quantity of energy before fracture is called:

a)

Ductility

b)

Toughness

c)

Resilience

d)

Shock proof

53.

Coaxing increases the:

a)

Strength by reversible cycling

b)

Corrosion resistance by spraying

c)

Hardness by surface treatment

d)

Fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal successively

54.

Two shafts made up of mild steel one having circular cross section and the other being hollow circular with inner diameter half of the outer diameter. The ratio of the torque that can be transmitted in two cases given by:

a)

22

b)

17/1617/16

c)

11

d)

15/1615/16

55.

For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear stress is equal to:

a)

Is uniform throughout

b)

Has maximum value at the axis

c)

Has maximum value at the surface

d)

Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum value at the surface of the shaft

56.

In laminated spring the strips are provided in different lengths for:

a)

Economy

b)

Reduction in weight

c)

Improved appearance

d)

Equal distribution of stress

57.

Select the one for which diamond riveted joint can be adopted:

a)

Butt joint

b)

Lap joint

c)

Double riveted lap joints

d)

All types of joints

58.

Hoop stress refers to:

a)

Circumferential tensile stress

b)

Compressive stress

c)

Radial stress

d)

Longitudinal stress

59.

Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of:

a)

Linear stress to longitudinal strain

b)

Stress to volumetric strain

c)

Shear stress to shear strain

d)

stress to strain

60.

1 Meganewton per square meter is equal to:

a)

1,000,000 N/mm^2

b)

10,000 N/mm^2

c)

100 N/mm^2

d)

1 N/mm^2

61.

The value of shear stress changes is induced in the shaft because of the applied couple that:

a)

From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference

b)

From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference

c)

From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference

d)

From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference

62.

In the design of pulley, key and shaft:

a)

All three are design for same strength

b)

Key is made weaker link

c)

Pulley is made weaker

d)

Shaft is made weaker

63.

The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is:

a)

Maximum at inner surface and decreases towards outer surface

b)

Minimum at inner surface and increases towards outer surface

c)

Minimum at inner and outer surface and maximum in middle

d)

Maximum at inner and outer surfaces and minimum in middle

64.

Autofrettage is the method of:

a)

Calculating stresses in thick cylinders

b)

Relieving thick cylinders

c)

Pre-stressing thick cylinders

d)

Increasing life of thick cylinders

65.

Ties are load carrying members that carry:

a)

Torsional loads

b)

Axial compressive loads

c)

Axial tension loads

d)

Transverse loads

66.

If the areas of cross sections of square and circular beams are same and both are put to equal bending moment, then the correct statement is:

a)

The circular beam is more economical

b)

The square beam is more economical

c)

Both the beams are equally strong

d)

Both the beams are equally economical

67.

In actual machines:

a)

Mechanical advantage is unity

b)

Mechanical advantage is less than unity

c)

Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio

d)

Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio

68.

The essential condition of equilibrium of a body is:

a)

The algebraic sum of horizontal components of all forces must be zero

b)

The algebraic sum of vertical component of all forces must be zero

c)

The algebraic sum of forces about a point must be zero

d)

All of the above

69.

Coulomb friction is:

a)

Friction between two electrically charged bodies

b)

Friction between two bodies having relative motion

c)

Friction between a solid and a liquid

d)

Friction between two dry surfaces

70.

The coefficient of friction is equal to:

a)

The angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction

b)

The tangent of the angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of the normal reaction and the limiting friction

c)

The tangent of the angle of the net resultant force with the direction of motion

d)

The tangent of the angle between the normal reaction and direction of limiting friction

71.

The limiting force of friction is equal to:

a)

The value of friction force that stops the movement of the body

b)

The value of friction force that cannot exceed under a given situation

c)

The friction force when the body is just about to move

d)

The friction force acting on a body when it is in motion

72.

Ice is slippery when a man walks on it because:

a)

It has a smooth surface

b)

It has no friction

c)

It is very chilly

d)

Increase of pressure causes it to melt

73.

One joule is the same as:

a)

10810^8 ergs

b)

10^7 ergs

c)

10610^6 ergs

d)

10510^5 ergs

74.

Static friction is:

a)

Always greater than the dynamic friction

b)

Always less than the dynamic friction

c)

Always equal to the dynamic friction

d)

Either greater or more than the dynamic friction

75.

When two forces that act at a point are such that if the direction of one is reversed, the direction of the resultant is turned through 90°, the forces must be:

a)

Equal in magnitude

b)

Inclined at less than 90°

c)

Inclined at more than 90°

d)

Acting at 180°

76.

The curve of a catenary by nature is:

a)

Ellipse

b)

Hyperbolic

c)

Circular

d)

Parabolic

77.

If the only force acting on two bodies is their mutual interactions and if both bodies start from rest, the distance travelled by each will be a:

a)

Proportional to the masses of the bodies

b)

Inversely proportional to the masses of the bodies

c)

Inversely proportional to the square of the masses of the bodies

d)

Directly proportional to the square of the masses of the bodies

78.

Which statement is correct?

a)

A body cannot have any energy without having momentum

b)

A body can have kinetic energy without having momentum

c)

A body in motion will always have kinetic energy more than the potential energy

d)

None of the above

79.

A man is standing near the edge of a uniformly rotating platform about an axis passing through its center. The speed of rotation of the platform will decrease if he

a)

Moves towards the axis of rotation

b)

Accepts a heavy bag from one of its friends standing nearby and hold it in his hand

c)

Extend his arms outwards

d)

Jumps out from the platform

80.

A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a

a)

Lower pair

b)

sliding pair

c)

higher pair

d)

cylindrical pair

81.

Select the one that is a higher pair

a)

Thomson indicator mechanism

b)

Harts straight line mechanism

c)

Cross by indicator mechanism

d)

Tooth gearing mechanism

82.

The mechanism used to enlarge or reduce moments for reproducing drawings to different scales is called

a)

Clinograph

b)

Tri-square

c)

Graphometer

d)

Bantograph

83.

When a ship traveling in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous

a)

Rolling

b)

Pitching

c)

steering

d)

All of the above

84.

Slip in belt drive is

a)

Loss power

b)

Difference between the angular velocity of two pulleys

c)

Difference between the velocities of two pulleys

d)

Difference between the linear speed of the rim of pulley and the belt on it

85.

In case of flat belt drive the length of belt in case of:

a)

Open belts depend on sum of the diameters of pulleys

b)

Open belts depend on difference of the diameters of pulleys

c)

Cross belts depend on the sum of the diameters of pulleys

d)

Cross belts depend on the difference of the diameters of the pulleys

86.

Kinematic pairs are those pairs that have:

a)

Point or line contact between the two elements when in motion

b)

Surface contact between the two elements when in motion

c)

Elements of pairs not held together mechanically

d)

Two elements that allow relative motion

87.

A cam with a roller follower would constitute, which type of pair?

a)

Lower pair

b)

Higher pair

c)

Open pair

d)

Close pair

88.

The pitch point on a cam is:

a)

Any point on pitch curve

b)

The point of cam pitch circle that has the maximum pressure angle

c)

A point at a distance equal to pitch circle radius from the center

d)

None of the above

89.

The cam angle is:

a)

The angle of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower

b)

Angle subtended by live portion of cam at the cam center

c)

The angle subtended at the cam center by the portion of cam during which the follower moves

d)

The angle subtended by the cam at the cam center when the follower dwells.

90.

Module can be expressed in:

a)

mm

b)

mm/no. of teeth

c)

Dimensionless

d)

None of the above

91.

A reverted gear train is one in which:

a)

The direction of rotation of first and last gear is opposite

b)

The direction of rotation of first and last gear is the same

c)

The first and last gear are on the same shaft

d)

The first and last gear are essentially on separate but parallel shafts.

92.

In case of spur gears the flank of the tooth is:

a)

The part of the tooth surface lying below the pitch surface

b)

The curve forming face and flank

c)

The width of the gear tooth measure axially along the pitch surface

d)

The surface of the top of the tooth.

93.

In case of cross helical worm, the axes of two shafts are:

a)

Parallel

b)

Intersecting

c)

Non-parallel

d)

Non-parallel-non-intersecting

94.

In case of gears the addendum is given by:

a)

One module

b)

2.157 x module

c)

1.57 x module

d)

1.25/module

95.

Gears for watches are generally manufactured by:

a)

Die casting

b)

Machining on hobber

c)

Machining on a gear shaper

d)

Stamping

96.

In case of helical gears, the axial plane is given by:

a)

Diametral pitch over sine of helix angle

b)

Diametral pitch over cosine of helix angle

c)

Diametral pitch over cotangent of helix angle

d)

Diametral pitch over tangent of helix angle

97.

A cam wherein the follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of the cam is called:

a)

Cylindrical cam

b)

Reciprocating cam

c)

None of the above

d)

Circular cam

98.

Rope brake dynamometer uses:

a)

Oil as lubricant

b)

Water as lubricant

c)

Grease as lubricant

d)

No lubricant

99.

Which of the following dynamometer is widely used for absorption of wide range of powers at wide range of speeds?

a)

Hydraulic

b)

Belt transmission

c)

Rope brake

d)

Electric generator

100.

In a balancing machine the units for unbalance measurements are:

a)

cps

b)

gram

c)

gm-cm-cps

d)

gm-cm

101.

The supply of working fluid to the engine to suit the load continuous can be controlled by:

a)

expansion valve

b)

slide valve

c)

flywheel

d)

Governor

102.

The function of a governor is to:

a)

Store energy and give up whenever needed

b)

Regulate the speed during one cycle of a prime mover

c)

Increase variation of speed

d)

Adjust the variation of speed by varying the input to the engine

103.

According to law of gearing:

a)

Teeth should be involute type

b)

Clearance between mating teeth should be provided

c)

Dedendum should be equal to 1.157 m

d)

None of these

104.

Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts whose axes are:

a)

Parallel

b)

Non-coplanar

c)

Non-intersecting

d)

None of the above

105.

If D and T are the pitch circle diameter and number of teeth of a gear, then its circular pitch:

a)

D/TD/T

b)

πT/D\pi T/D

c)

T/DT/D

d)

πD/T\pi D/T

106.

If D1 and T1 are the diameter and number of teeth of gear 1 and D2 and T2 are the corresponding values of another gear in mesh, then speed ratio N1/N2 will be equal to:

a)

D1/D2D_1/D_2

b)

D1/D2×T2/T1D_1/D_2 \times T_2/T_1

c)

T1/T2T_1/T_2

d)

D2/D1D_2/D_1

107.

Cold working:

a)

Increases the fatigue strength

b)

Decreases the fatigue strength

c)

Has no influence on fatigue strength

d)

None of the above

108.

The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is:

a)

20∘20^\circ

b)

30∘30^\circ

c)

10∘10^\circ

d)

45∘45^\circ

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