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Test Philosophies and High-Incidence Disabilities

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which principle best describes Least Restrictive Environment for students receiving special education services?

a)

Educate with peers using needed supports

b)

Educate only in separate specialized classes

c)

Educate at home to avoid distractions

d)

Educate online to minimize social demands

2.

An IEP should be based on which evaluative document to ensure appropriate services?

a)

Teacher anecdotal records only

b)

Quarterly grade reports summary

c)

Parent interview transcript alone

d)

Full and Individual Evaluation report

3.

Manifestation determination involves two core questions. Which option lists both accurately?

a)

Is behavior linked to disability condition?

b)

Is district implementing all IEP parts appropriately?

c)

Is student meeting all state standards currently?

d)

Is family providing consistent at-home supports?

4.

When circumstances change or an intervention fails, what is the required procedural step?

a)

Remove services until data improve

b)

Wait until the annual review date

c)

Switch placements without team input

d)

Call an ARD committee meeting promptly

5.

Which practice supports confidentiality in special education processes?

a)

Upload reports to public portals

b)

Discuss details with peers at lunch

c)

Share files casually with all staff

d)

Maintain secure records at all times

6.

For bilingual students, what is essential in assessment when languages of instruction and home differ?

a)

Rely on classroom language exposure

b)

Assess only in English for consistency

c)

Test to determine dominant language

d)

Use translator without language testing

7.

REEDs help determine testing needs near a reevaluation date. Which statement aligns with practice?

a)

Testing often completed close to three-year date

b)

Testing always done exactly at two years

c)

Testing scheduled only if parent insists

d)

Testing avoided if prior scores were high

8.

Which technology-related practice aligns with the guide’s philosophy?

a)

Use technology only for advanced students

b)

Use technology to improve curriculum access

c)

Ban technology to reduce distractions

d)

Use technology to replace teacher instruction

9.

Which combination defines deaf-blindness in school eligibility?

a)

Single severe visual impairment only

b)

Concurrent hearing and visual impairments

c)

Single severe hearing impairment only

d)

Mild hearing loss with normal vision

10.

Which specialists are typically involved in evaluating deafness eligibility?

a)

General education teacher alone

b)

Audiologist and hearing specialists

c)

Occupational therapist primarily

d)

Vision teacher only

11.

Differentiate hearing impairment from deafness in educational definitions.

a)

Hearing impairment may be fluctuating; not deafness

b)

Hearing impairment never affects performance

c)

Hearing impairment equals total inability to hear

d)

Hearing impairment requires cochlear implant

12.

Orthopedic impairment eligibility commonly requires which evaluation component?

a)

Ophthalmology field vision testing

b)

Medical evaluation to document condition

c)

Speech-language articulation testing

d)

Audiology threshold testing protocols

13.

Visual impairment eligibility typically needs what assessments?

a)

Neurology consult and MRI screenings

b)

Behavior checklist from homeroom teacher

c)

Audiology exam with classroom observation

d)

Ophthalmology exam and specialized assessor

14.

Which criteria collectively define Emotional Disturbance in schools? Select all that apply.

a)

Inability to learn not explained by other factors

b)

Consistent social maladjustment without ED determination

c)

Difficulty maintaining satisfactory peer relationships

d)

Pervasive mood of unhappiness or depression

15.

Other Health Impairment eligibility requires which components? Select all that apply.

a)

Chronic or acute health problems like ADHD or epilepsy

b)

Exclusive diagnosis of intellectual disability

c)

Adverse effect on educational performance

d)

Medical evaluation to document condition

16.

Which statements describe Specific Learning Disability identification practices? Select all that apply.

a)

Disorder in basic psychological processes for language

b)

Must show strengths and weaknesses across performance

c)

Imperfect ability to listen, think, speak, read, or write

d)

Diagnosed using cognitive and achievement instruments

17.

Who typically diagnoses and treats Speech or Language Impairment in schools?

a)

Classroom teacher with counselor

b)

Occupational therapist exclusively

c)

School nurse and audiologist team

d)

Speech-language pathology staff

18.

Autism eligibility descriptions commonly include which characteristics?

a)

Significant impact on verbal and nonverbal communication

b)

Requirement that symptoms begin after age ten

c)

Difficulties with social interaction and pragmatic language

d)

Engagement in repetitive activities and resistance to change

19.

Which professionals most often test students for Autism eligibility within schools?

a)

Audiologists primarily

b)

Physical education teachers

c)

Licensed Specialists in School Psychology (LSSPs)

d)

Vision specialists exclusively

20.

Intellectual Disability eligibility requires which core elements?

a)

Manifested during the developmental period

b)

Evidence of high achievement test scores

c)

Concurrent deficits in adaptive behavior

d)

Significantly sub-average general intellectual functioning

21.

Match each term to its distinguishing feature in school eligibility.

a)

Deaf-Blindness

1.

Concurrent vision and hearing impairments

b)

Hearing Impairment

2.

May be fluctuating, not deafness

c)

Other Health Impairment

3.

Limited strength or alertness due to health

d)

Specific Learning Disability

4.

Disorder in basic psychological processes

22.

For ID eligibility, what is additionally required regarding adaptive behavior?

a)

At least two areas show deficits

b)

One area shows strengths

c)

Adaptive skills exceed age norms

d)

Adaptive behavior not considered

23.

Which statement best describes Multiple Disabilities under IDEA?

a)

Only orthopedic impairment with ID

b)

Concomitant impairments causing severe needs

c)

Single impairment requiring intense supports

d)

Includes deaf-blindness as a subset

24.

Which condition is explicitly excluded from Multiple Disabilities category?

a)

Deaf-blindness exclusion noted

b)

Autism always excluded

c)

Visual impairment included

d)

Speech impairment excluded

25.

Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) in schools is defined as an injury caused by what?

a)

Congenital genetic abnormality

b)

Pre-natal exposure to toxins

c)

External physical force to the brain

d)

Birth trauma without impact

26.

TBI may result in impairments in which areas?

a)

Cognition and memory

b)

Attention and reasoning

c)

Sensory and motor abilities

d)

Hearing only

27.

Which statement about TBI eligibility is accurate?

a)

Applies to degenerative disorders

b)

Limited to open head injuries only

c)

Includes birth trauma categories

d)

Does not apply to congenital injuries

28.

Which evaluation requirement applies for TBI identification?

a)

Requires medical diagnosis; other testing possible

b)

Requires only classroom observation

c)

Parent report is sufficient alone

d)

IQ test alone determines eligibility

29.

Which document is used first to determine a student’s native language?

a)

Home Language Survey in cumulative folder

b)

Language Proficiency Assessment form

c)

ESL enrollment application

d)

Parent consent agreement

30.

What must the LEA ensure for parents during IEP meetings?

a)

Access to district-wide assessments

b)

Selection of classroom curriculum

c)

Attendance at every classroom session

d)

Understanding proceedings, interpreter as needed

31.

When a child is LEP with a disability, what must the IEP address?

a)

Placement in English-only instruction

b)

Mandatory exit from ESL services

c)

Delay of services until fluency

d)

Provision of services in another language

32.

Which rule governs test materials for CLD students?

a)

Not discriminatory on racial basis

b)

Administered in child’s native language

c)

Always in English regardless

d)

Selected to match cultural background

33.

What must diagnosticians ensure when testing CLD students?

a)

Scores compare to monolingual peers

b)

Assessors avoid using interpreters

c)

Tests prioritize vocabulary difficulty

d)

Tests measure disability, not English skills

34.

Which statement about BICS is accurate?

a)

Academic language proficiency in 5–7 months

b)

Fluent social language develops in 1–3 years

c)

BICS requires formal reading tests

d)

BICS equals CALP ability level

35.

Which statement about CALP is accurate?

a)

Focuses casual conversation only

b)

Developed faster than BICS

c)

Unaffected by schooling quality

d)

Typically achieved within 5–7 years

36.

Why might good conversational ability still mask academic weaknesses?

a)

BICS can be strong while CALP weak

b)

CALP determines social fluency mainly

c)

Tests ignore comprehension entirely

d)

Language dominance never affects results

37.

Language dominance typically refers to what?

a)

Language legally recognized by state

b)

Language learned latest in life

c)

Language spoken by teachers

d)

Language used most of the time

38.

If no LEA staff can test in a child’s native language, what is best practice?

a)

Delay assessment indefinitely

b)

Use untrained volunteer interpreter

c)

Find qualified tester in area

d)

Administer English test exclusively

39.

LEA must ensure a child with a listed disability is not excluded due to what factor?

a)

Prior grade retention alone

b)

Limited English proficiency alone

c)

Parent refusal to meet alone

d)

Low attendance history alone

40.

Order the options from best to last resort for testing LEP students.

a)

Bilingual evaluator

1.

Best option

b)

Trained interpreter

2.

Second option

c)

Professional who speaks language

3.

Third option

d)

Someone who speaks language

4.

Fourth option

e)

Monolingual diagnostician alone

5.

Last resort option

41.

In LEP eligibility, what happens after qualifying for special education?

a)

ESL replaced by general education

b)

No LPAC participation needed

c)

Immediate exit from ESL program

d)

Continue ESL services as enrolled

42.

Who should attend ARD meetings to provide input on language of services?

a)

School psychologist only

b)

General education teacher only

c)

District superintendent only

d)

LPAC representative participates

43.

Which statistical concept estimates error attached to an obtained score?

a)

Standard Error of Measurement

b)

Coefficient of determination

c)

Effect size magnitude

d)

Test-retest interval

44.

How does SEM relate to reliability?

a)

Larger SEM means lower reliability

b)

Larger SEM means higher reliability

c)

SEM unrelated to reliability

d)

SEM applies only to IQ tests

45.

What does a confidence interval represent?

a)

Percentile rank conversion

b)

Difference between two means

c)

Exact observed test score

d)

Range likely including true score

46.

Which statement about stanines is correct?

a)

Median 50, quartiles 25–75

b)

Mean 100, SD 15, scaled 10–90

c)

Mean 10, SD 3, scores 1–10

d)

Mean 5, SD 2, scores 1–9

47.

Which statement best describes the Standard Error of Measurement (SEM)?

a)

Interval between two successive standard scores

b)

Proportion of variance explained by the test instrument

c)

Estimate of error attached to an obtained test score

d)

Average spread of group scores around mean

48.

How does SEM relate to reliability of a test?

a)

SEM is unrelated to reliability metrics

b)

Larger SEM indicates higher reliability

c)

SEM equals the test’s standard deviation

d)

Smaller SEM indicates higher reliability

49.

A 95% confidence interval built from SEM is intended to include which value?

a)

Population mean of all examinees

b)

Observed score on most test occasions

c)

Median of the test’s raw scores

d)

True score with high probability

50.

Stanines are best characterized by which features?

a)

Mean 5 and SD 2 on nine-point scale

b)

Mean 10 and SD 3 on decile scale

c)

Mean 50 and SD 10 on wide scale

d)

Mean 0 and SD 1 on z score scale

51.

Which statement about validity is accurate?

a)

Range of scores likely to contain true score

b)

Degree a test measures intended construct

c)

Amount scores deviate from the mean

d)

Consistency of measurement across occasions

52.

Reliability refers to which property of scores?

a)

Accuracy in measuring the right construct

b)

Consistency or stability of measurement

c)

Transforming raw scores to standard scores

d)

Average performance across a sample

53.

Which formula describes the mean of a set of scores?

a)

Most frequent score in distribution

b)

Sum of all scores divided by count

c)

Sum of squared deviations from mean

d)

Median score in ordered dataset

54.

What does standard deviation represent in score distributions?

a)

Index of test reliability and SEM

b)

Percent of sample below a given score

c)

Extent scores deviate from the mean

d)

Raw scores transformed to a standard scale

55.

Standard scores are primarily used to express what?

a)

Chance probability of observed difference

b)

Average age equivalent for the group

c)

Rank order of raw scores within a class

d)

How far an examinee’s score lies from mean

56.

Which statement correctly defines percentile rank?

a)

Number of standard deviations above the mean

b)

Difference between raw score and group mean

c)

Point indicating proportion at or below a score

d)

Nine-category scale centered at five

57.

Which interpretation of grade equivalent is correct?

a)

Percent of peers scoring below the student

b)

Mean score for students in a given grade

c)

Reflects the grade where a student functions

d)

Standard score on a nine-point stanine

58.

Which interpretation of age equivalent is accurate?

a)

Shows performance similar to a specific age group

b)

Reports position within the standardization sample

c)

Measures variability around the population mean

d)

Indicates the child’s actual chronological age

59.

Which WISC-V index primarily measures a student's capacity to understand word meanings and verbal reasoning?

a)

Fluid Reasoning Index

b)

Processing Speed Index

c)

Visual Spatial Index

d)

Verbal Comprehension Index

60.

On the WISC-V, what is the typical Full Scale IQ mean and standard deviation used for interpreting scores?

a)

Mean 90, SD 10

b)

Mean 100, SD 15

c)

Mean 85, SD 16

d)

Mean 100, SD 12

61.

Which WISC-V index is most associated with tasks like block design and visual puzzles?

a)

Visual Spatial Index

b)

Working Memory Index

c)

Verbal Comprehension Index

d)

Processing Speed Index

62.

The Woodcock-Johnson IV is grounded in which psychological framework?

a)

CHC theory

b)

Behaviorism

c)

Social learning

d)

Psychoanalytic theory

63.

For WJ IV Tests of Cognitive Abilities, which ranges define the Standard and Extended batteries?

a)

Standard 1–10, Extended 11–18

b)

Standard 1–12, Extended 13–20

c)

Standard 1–8, Extended 9–16

d)

Standard 1–6, Extended 7–12

64.

The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition, is often chosen for which student groups?

a)

Hearing impairment only

b)

Gifted mathematics only

c)

Culturally different and language problems

d)

Motor coordination only

65.

Which achievement battery measures all areas including listening comprehension and oral expression?

a)

WIAT-4

b)

WJ IV

c)

Stanford-Binet V

d)

KTEA-3

66.

When suspecting an intellectual disability, adaptive behavior evaluation should include which measure showing low v-Scale scores in at least two areas?

a)

Vineland-3

b)

BASC-3

c)

KABC-II

d)

WISC-V

67.

ABAS-3 is designed to assess what across ten domains?

a)

Language acquisition

b)

Adaptive behavior

c)

Academic fluency

d)

Executive functions

68.

Which informal assessment is specifically used to analyze student behavior patterns for intervention planning?

a)

Portfolio Review

b)

Dynamic Assessment

c)

Curriculum-Based Measurement

d)

Functional Behavioral Assessment (FBA)

69.

Which statement best reflects a requirement before a child is assessed for special education?

a)

School may test without consent in emergencies

b)

Parents must give written permission

c)

Outside evaluations must be considered

d)

Parents must be invited to meetings

70.

Which rights include parents being able to view and obtain copies of their child's records and dispute inaccuracies?

a)

Nondiscriminatory Evaluation

b)

Least Restrictive Environment

c)

Zero Reject

d)

Procedural Safeguards

71.

FAPE guarantees what for children with disabilities?

a)

Private schooling at parents' choice

b)

Free after-school tutoring only

c)

Home instruction regardless of need

d)

Free and appropriate public education

72.

Zero Reject in special education means which of the following?

a)

No child is denied services

b)

Only high-need students qualify

c)

Placement is always general education

d)

Services stop after age 14

73.

Which principle ensures students receive supports to learn alongside peers to the maximum appropriate extent?

a)

Functional Behavioral Assessment

b)

Scaled Score Range

c)

Full Scale IQ

d)

Least Restrictive Environment

74.

Confidentiality rules require what regarding access to a student's disability records?

a)

Post summaries for classroom volunteers

b)

Provide general staff with open access

c)

Keep a record of who accesses the files

d)

Share only with personnel directly working with the child

75.

What is the purpose of an Individualized Education Program (IEP)?

a)

Behavior contract for discipline only

b)

Teacher evaluation and supervision tool

c)

Annually revised plan with goals and services

d)

District-wide curriculum pacing guide

76.

Who must provide informed consent before a special education evaluation can begin, and what minimum waiting period applies after consent is received?

a)

LEA administrator; three school days

b)

Parent/guardian; five school days

c)

General education teacher; seven school days

d)

ARD chair; ten school days

77.

How much prior notice must parents receive before an ARD meeting, and what can they choose to do with that notice?

a)

Five school days; cannot waive

b)

Five school days; may waive

c)

Ten calendar days; may waive

d)

Three school days; cannot waive

78.

Which two criteria must both be met for a student to qualify for special education services at the ARD meeting?

a)

Student meets disability eligibility standards

b)

Student needs specially designed instruction

c)

Parent signs consent for services

d)

Student has passing grades in core classes

79.

Before services start under an IEP, what consent and waiting period apply unless waived?

a)

Parent consent; five school days

b)

Teacher consent; three school days

c)

LEA consent; seven calendar days

d)

ARD consent; ten school days

80.

How often must an annual ARD meeting occur after the initial ARD?

a)

Within one year

b)

Every six months

c)

Within three years

d)

Every two years

81.

By when must a student be re-evaluated, with results reviewed in an ARD meeting?

a)

Every year

b)

Within three years

c)

Within two years

d)

Within five years

82.

What is true about referrals in relation to MTSS/RTI tiers?

a)

Referral can occur without all tiers

b)

Referral only if Tier 2 succeeds

c)

Referral requires completing all tiers

d)

Referral only after Tier 3 fails

83.

Which roles are required members of an ARD committee?

a)

General education teacher

b)

Special education teacher

c)

School nurse

d)

Administrator representing the district

84.

When a student transfers from another district in-state, by when must a transfer ARD occur to accept the IEP or create a temporary IEP?

a)

Within 10 school days

b)

Within 30 school days

c)

Within 20 calendar days

d)

Within 5 school days

85.

For an out-of-state transfer, what must the LEA determine about the previous evaluation and IEP?

a)

Whether evaluation is acceptable

b)

Whether grades improved

c)

Whether services are expensive

d)

Whether parents agreed previously

86.

If a student transfers after school has begun and the current evaluation is acceptable, what is the LEA timeline to convene an annual ARD?

a)

Within 60 school days

b)

Within 30 school days

c)

Within 20 calendar days

d)

Within 10 school days

87.

If a student transfers during summer, what are the two compliant LEA actions?

a)

Implement current IEP on first day

b)

Convene summer ARD to revise IEP

c)

Delay services until fall ARD

d)

Redo the full evaluation within 10 days

88.

If a prior district referred a student but no testing was completed, what should the receiving LEA do?

a)

Decline evaluation until ARD

b)

Wait for state approval

c)

Adopt previous IEP as-is

d)

Set a new deadline with parent

89.

Which option is NOT one of the three ways to resolve special education disagreement?

a)

Mediation service

b)

Complaint resolution process

c)

Due process hearing

d)

Independent educational evaluation

90.

Which practice is prohibited when determining disability or programming?

a)

Assessing in all suspected areas

b)

Using technically sound instruments

c)

Using a single measure alone

d)

Using multiple sources of data

91.

Which statements describe Specific Learning Disability identification?

a)

Use cognitive and achievement instruments

b)

Require pattern of strengths and weaknesses

c)

Confirm with one subtest discrepancy

d)

Diagnose solely with behavior checklist

92.

Which elements are required for Intellectual Disability identification?

a)

Exclusive reliance on academic grades

b)

Deficits in at least two adaptive areas

c)

Overall cognitive score ≤70 accounting for error

d)

Evidence of developmental-period onset

93.

Match each MTSS tier to its typical characteristics.

a)

Tier 1

1.

Core, preventive, all students

b)

Tier 2

2.

Targeted groups, rapid response

c)

Tier 3

3.

Intensive, individual, high intensity

94.

Within CHC theory, which ability focuses on knowledge acquired through culture and instruction?

a)

Visual processing of spatial stimuli

b)

Fluid reasoning for unfamiliar tasks

c)

Short-term memory with working memory

d)

Comprehension knowledge accumulated learning

95.

Ga in CHC theory refers to which skill set?

a)

Auditory processing intake and synthesis

b)

Visual processing spatial analysis

c)

Processing speed rapid rote performance

d)

Long-term storage and retrieval

96.

Which CHC ability is most critical when students are beginning to read in early years?

a)

Fluid reasoning for abstract problems

b)

Visual processing for spatial tasks

c)

Processing speed for rote activities

d)

Auditory processing for sound information

97.

Match each CHC broad ability to its description.

a)

Glr

1.

Long-term storage and retrieval

b)

Gsm

2.

Short-term and working memory

c)

Gv

3.

Visual processing synthesis

d)

Gs

4.

Processing speed efficient performance

98.

Which practice best supports tailoring instruction for student success in reports?

a)

Complex technical language throughout

b)

Specific recommendations aligned to needs

c)

Omitting strengths to focus on deficits

d)

Generic strategies without data

99.

When an evaluation started in another district, what is required of the receiving LEA?

a)

Delay ARD until new testing finishes

b)

Reject data due to jurisdiction

c)

Cooperate to obtain prior evaluation data

d)

Repeat all assessments immediately

100.

Parents who disagree with an evaluation may request which action?

a)

Revocation of existing services

b)

Immediate change of placement

c)

An Independent Educational Evaluation

d)

A due process hearing first

101.

For initial IEP planning, diagnosticians provide input that should be written how?

a)

Highly technical for specialists only

b)

Simple and cohesive for implementation

c)

Narrative without clear connections

d)

Minimal to avoid bias in decisions

102.

Which action ensures assessment results are used appropriately by school personnel?

a)

Distribute widely to all staff

b)

Share only with the student

c)

Archive without stakeholder review

d)

Provide results only to relevant personnel

103.

Effective reports should emphasize what aspect of the student?

a)

What the child can do and needs

b)

Computer-generated narratives

c)

Generic templates for efficiency

d)

Teacher opinions on effort

104.

Which practice should diagnosticians avoid when writing reports?

a)

Connecting weaknesses to classroom needs

b)

Using computer-generated scores alone

c)

Including clear, implementable recommendations

d)

Editing for accuracy and grammar

105.

MDR must occur within what timeframe relative to removal from placement or a significant behavior?

a)

Within 10 school days of removal or event

b)

Within 20 calendar days after notice

c)

Within 5 school days of any removal

d)

At the next scheduled ARD meeting

106.

If behavior is a manifestation of disability or the IEP is not implemented, what must occur regarding removal?

a)

Suspend services for the term

b)

Placement change requires parent consent only

c)

Student cannot be removed from placement

d)

Student can be removed immediately

107.

When MDR leads to FBA and BIP, what should happen if they already exist?

a)

Discard and start over completely

b)

Modify to include current behavior

c)

Leave unchanged to preserve fidelity

d)

Convert into academic interventions

108.

In the ABC model, which term describes what happens before the behavior?

a)

Antecedent preceding conditions

b)

Consequence following outcome

c)

Behavior event itself

d)

Function of behavior motive

109.

Which is NOT listed as a common function of behavior?

a)

Sensory stimulation needs

b)

Attention seeking from peers

c)

Academic grading improvement

d)

Control over tasks or people

110.

If behavior is not a manifestation of disability, what is permissible regarding placement?

a)

IEP must be terminated

b)

Placement must remain unchanged

c)

Change of placement can proceed

d)

Only suspension is allowed

111.

Which elements are central to transition planning for students in special education?

a)

Career development assessments

b)

Student’s post-secondary plans

c)

Community involvement and relationships

d)

Eliminating all services by grade 10