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Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and other similar organism

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Meaning of 'staphyle'

a)

Bunch of grapes

b)

Bunch of cherries

c)

Bunch of tomatoes

d)

Bunch of germs

2.

Origin of the word 'staphyle'

a)

Greece

b)

Latin

c)

Belrussian

d)

Old English

3.

Which family was Staphylococcus initially joined with?

a)

Micrococcaceae

b)

Bacillales

4.

Which family is Staphylococcus under now?

a)

Bacillales

b)

Micrococcaceae

5.

Which has a clinical significance?

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Micrococcus

6.

Is Staphylococcus a

a)

Gram positive cocci

b)

Gram negative cocci

c)

Gram positive bacilli

d)

Gram negative bacilli.

7.

Staphylococcus is

a)

Motile, spore forming

b)

Non motile, non spore forming

c)

Non motile, spore forming

d)

Motile, non spore forming

8.

Staphylococcus' cultural characteristics

a)

Facultative

b)

Aerobic

c)

Anaerobic

d)

Depends

9.

S. aureus subspecies are

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

10.

Is Staphylococcus a part of the bodiy's natural flora?

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Staphylococcus incubation periiod

a)

14hrs

b)

30-3hrs

c)

18-24hrs

d)

10hrs

12.

Staphylococcus colony characteristics

a)

Medium sized, cream-coloured, pink

b)

Medium sized, cream colored, black, buttery looking

c)

Medium-sized, cream colored, rarely light gold, buttery looking

d)

Medium-sized, cream colored, black, buttery looking

13.

What gives S. aureus colonies its golden color?

a)

Staphyloxanthin

b)

Acid production

c)

Yellow dye

d)

Urochrome

14.

Staphylococcus produces pus

a)

True

b)

False

15.

S. epidermidis is more virulent than S. aureus.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

A common contaminant in blood culture

a)

S. aureus

b)

S. saphrophyticus

c)

S. haemolyticus

d)

S. epidermidis

17.

Shows resistance to vancomycin

a)

S. epidermidis

b)

S. saphrophyticus

c)

S. haemolyticus

d)

S. hyicus

18.

It resembles S. aureus infection

a)

S. saphrophyticus

b)

S. epidermidis

c)

S. lugdenensis

d)

S. warneri

19.

Staphylococcus incubation periiod

a)

14hrs

b)

30-3hrs

c)

18-24hrs

d)

10hrs

20.

It contains mecA gene

a)

S. saphrophyticus

b)

S. epidermidis

c)

S. haemolyticus

d)

S. lugdenensis

21.

It codes for oxacillin resistance

a)

mecA

b)

MecG

c)

MecS

d)

MecO

22.

Identification lf S. lugdenensis

a)

Oxacillin resistance

b)

Oxacillin suscpetibility

c)

Vancomycin resistance

d)

Vancomycin susceptibility

23.

First leading cause of UTI

a)

S. saphrophyticus

b)

Naesseria

c)

E.coli

d)

Lactobacillus spp.

24.

Second most common cause of UTI

a)

E. coli

b)

S. saphrophyticus

c)

Naesseria

d)

Lactobacillus spp.

25.

S. saphrophyticus usually infects

a)

Urinary tract of young female

b)

Urinary tract of young male

c)

Urinary tract of old women

d)

urinary tract of old men

26.

The most virulent among all staphylococcus

a)

S. aureus

b)

S. epidermidis

c)

S. Haemolyticus

d)

S. lugdenensis

27.

S. aureus colonizes

a)

Unsterile moist site

b)

Sterile site

c)

Dry site

28.

Deeper tissue infection caused by S. aureus

(a)  

29.

Superficial infection caused by S. aureus

a)

Impetigo

b)

Cellulitis

c)

Acne

d)

Boil

30.

S. aureus can be recovered from

(a)  

31.

It has site to bind FC portion of IgG

a)

Protein B

b)

Protein C

c)

Protein A

d)

Protein D

32.

Protein A protects bacteria from

(a)  

33.

Enzyme that forms fibrin around the bacteria

a)

Coagulase

b)

Fibrinogenase

c)

Alpha-fibronectinase

d)

Beta-fibrinogenpeptidase

34.

Disrupts beta-lactam ring

a)

Alpha - lactamase

b)

Anti-beta-lactamic

c)

Antibody

d)

Beta-lactamase

35.

Disrupts smooth muscle in blood vessel

a)

Alpha toxin

b)

Beta toxin

c)

Gamma toxin

d)

Delta toxin

36.

Alpha toxin is toxic to

a)

Rbc

b)

Wbc

c)

Liver cells

d)

Platelets

e)

Cancer cells

37.

Sphingomyelinase C is found in

a)

Alpha toxin

b)

Beta toxin

c)

Delta toxin

d)

Gamma toxin

38.

What is hot-cold lysin for

a)

Enhances temperature

b)

Enhances bacterial growth in extreme temperatures

c)

Enhances hemolytic activity

d)

Enhances bacterial resistance to extreme temperatures

39.

CAMP Test meaning

(a)  

40.

CAMP test is for

a)

Identification of group B staphylococcus

b)

Identification of group B micrococci

c)

Identification of group B gonococci

d)

Identification of group B streptococci

41.

Meaning of PVL

(a)  

42.

Which is associated with PVL

a)

Alpha toxin

b)

Beta toxin

c)

Gamma toxin

d)

Delta toxin

43.

Which produces delta toxin

a)

S. epidermidis

b)

S. saphrophyticus

c)

S. aureus

d)

S. haemolyticus

44.

Which exhibits non specific toxicity to other mammalian cells

a)

Alpha toxin

b)

Beta toxin

c)

Gamma toxin

d)

Delta toxin

45.

What causes the spreading factor

a)

Degradation of fats and oils

b)

Lysis of fibrin clots

c)

Destructoon of tissue proteins

d)

Breakdown of proteoglycans in connective tissue

46.

This lyzes fibrin clots

a)

Staphylokinase

b)

Hyaluronidase

c)

Fibrinase

d)

Serinase

47.

Facilitates colonisation of sebaceous glands

a)

Lipids

b)

Lipochrome

c)

Lipase

d)

Mannitol

48.

Destroys tissue proteins

a)

Proteinase

b)

Proteases

49.

Causes pyrogenic exotoxin C

(a)  

50.

Can tampons cause toxic shock syndrome?

a)

Yes

b)

No

51.

Oppotunistic pathogens

a)

S. warneri

b)

S. capitis

c)

S. simulans

d)

S. hyicus

52.

Media of choice for Staphylococcus

a)

SBA

b)

CAP

c)

FTM

d)

DEXTROSE

e)

BHI broth

53.

A growth in McConkey Agar indicates staphylococcus

a)

True

b)

False

54.

SELECTIVE MEDIA for Staphylococcus

a)

PEA

b)

CNA

c)

MSA

d)

MSA + PHENOL RED

e)

CHROMagar

55.

Test to differentiate S. aureus from other staphylococcus

a)

Coagulase test

b)

Oxidase test

c)

Catalase test

d)

Blood test

56.

This staphylococcus ferments mannitol and resembles S. aureus in MSA

a)

S. intermedius

b)

S. haemolyticus

c)

S. saphrophyticus

d)

S. warneri

57.

Color of MRSA colonies in CHROMagar

a)

Violet

b)

Gold

c)

Mauve

d)

Brown

e)

Maroon

58.

Fastidious staphylococcus may require

a)

Hemin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Plasma

d)

Menadione

e)

CO2

59.

Differentiates (+) micrococcus and staphylococcus from (-) streptococcus spp.

a)

Oxidase test

b)

Citrate test

c)

Catalase test

d)

Coagulase test

60.

What degrades hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen

(a)  

61.

What is produced in the catalase test

(a)  

62.

2 types of coagulase test

a)

Slide test

b)

Paper test

c)

Tube test

d)

Production test

63.

Slide test detects

(a)  

64.

Heavy suspensions in slide test are mixed with

a)

Saline

b)

Drop of plasma

c)

Drop of blood

d)

Tap water

65.

Agglutination in slide test means

a)

Positive result

b)

Negative result

66.

Gives false (+) result to slide test

a)

S. lugdenensis

b)

S. schleiferi

c)

S. haemolyticus

d)

S. epidermidis

67.

Negative result of slide test should be followed up by

a)

Blood test

b)

Paper test

c)

Tube test

68.

Tube test detects

a)

Free protein

b)

Free fibrin

c)

Free coagulase

d)

Free love

69.

Extracellular molecule that causes a clot to form when bacterial cells are incubated in plasma

(a)  

70.

In the tube test, Staphylocoagulase reacts with

(a)  

71.

A negative result of the tube test must be reincubated for

a)

18hrs

b)

3hrs

c)

42hrs

d)

24hrs

72.

Gives false (+) to tube test

a)

S. intermedius

b)

S. epidermidis

c)

S. hyicus

d)

S. schleiferi

73.

Coagulase negative

a)

S. epidermidis

b)

S. haemolyticus

74.

PYR test reagent

(a)  

75.

S. aureus is - - - - in PYR test

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

76.

PYR detects

a)

Pyrrolidonyl arylamidase activity

b)

Pyrolidnil arylamide activity

c)

Pyrolytic arylamide activity

d)

Pyrrolidonyl acrylamide activity

77.

What is the substrate of PYR test

a)

Pyrroglutamic-ß-napthanol

b)

Pyrroglutamyl-ß-naphthylamide

78.

Color of PYR reagent

a)

Light blue

b)

Bright orange

c)

Bright red

d)

Cherry red

79.

The following is true except:

a)

PYR (+) =bright red

b)

PYR (+) = precipitate

c)

PYR (+) = yellow

d)

PYR (-) = Staphylococcus aureus

80.

VP test indicator

a)

Phenol red

b)

Phenol blue

c)

Methyl red

d)

Methyl blue

81.

Acetyl methyl carbinol or acetoin is detected in

a)

O/F test

b)

VP test

c)

PYR test

d)

Catalase test

82.

Determines magnitude of resistance

a)

Zone of prohibition

b)

Zone of inhibition

c)

Zone of nothingness

d)

Zone of emptiness

83.

Staphylococcus is lysostaphin susceptible

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Staphylococcus is resistant to the following except:

a)

Lysostaphin susceptibility

b)

Lysozyme

c)

Bacitracin suscpetibility

85.

Cytochrome C is identified in

a)

Lysostaphin susceptibility

b)

Lysozyme

c)

Bacitracin suscpetibility

d)

Modified oxidase

e)

Microdase test

86.

Microdase test differentiates staphylococcus from

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Micrococcus

87.

Which is true

a)

Positive Microdase test is blue

b)

Staphylococcus is susceptible to bacitracin

c)

S. aureus is PYR positive

d)

Streptococcus is catalase positive

88.

S. epidermidis may show susceptibility to Bacitracin and resistance to Furazolidone

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Immunodiagnosis uses protein coated carrier particles

a)

True, it is protein

b)

False, it should be plasma

90.

Immunodiagnosis has high specificity and sensitivity than typical plasma slide test

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Immunodiagnosis negative results should be confirmed by

a)

Tube coagulase test

b)

Nucleic Acid amplification test

c)

MALDI-TOF

92.

Immunodiagnosis can detect clumping factor and protein A

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Capsular antigens

a)

6,8

b)

5,8

c)

6,5

d)

7,8

94.

More sensitive, less specific

a)

3rd generation agglutination kits

b)

4th generation agglutination kits

95.

Coagulase (-) staphylococcus

a)

S. hominis

b)

S. epidermidis

c)

S. haemolyticus

d)

S.hyicus

96.

Mainstay for antimicrobial therapy

a)

Methicillin

b)

Oxacillin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Nafcillin

97.

mecA genes mediates production of

a)

ß-lactamase

b)

Hyaluronidase

c)

Coagulase

d)

Catalase

98.

An altered penicillin - binding protein

a)

PBP-2a

b)

PBP-2b

c)

PBP-2c

d)

PBP-2D

99.

Gene mecA is carried by

a)

SSmec

b)

SCCmec

c)

SCSmec

d)

CCSmec

100.

S. aureus oxacillin resistance can be screened with Mueller-Hinton Agar supplemented by

a)

4% NaHCl

b)

4%NaCl

c)

4% NaOH

d)

4% NSS

101.

Isolates greater than ____ are susceptible

a)

21mm

b)

22mm

102.

Gold standard for MRSA identification

a)

Molecular and nucleic acid probes

b)

PCR

103.

Macrolide resistance is resistance against

a)

Macrolides-Lincosamide-Streptogramin B group

b)

Macrolides-Lincosamide-Streptogramin D group

c)

Macrolides-Lincosamide-Streptogramin C group

d)

Macrolides-Lincosamide-Streptogramin A group

104.

Treatment to acne

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Oxacillin

d)

Methicillin

105.

What alters ERM

a)

MecA

b)

methylase

106.

Disk diffusion test the oresence of erythromycin

a)

True

b)

False

107.

VRSA

a)

MIC 4-8 mg/mL

b)

MIC >16 mg/mL

108.

Vancomycin resistance principle

a)

Organism can undergo genetic changes making the vancomycin ineffective

b)

Organism can undergo structural changes making the vancomycin ineffective

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