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T6 - Application Security

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An organization wants to ensure that security requirements are formally identified before application design begins. During which SDLC phase should this primarily occur?

a)

Planning

b)

Requirements definition

c)

Design

d)

Coding

2.

A security analyst reviews source code without executing it and identifies unsafe string handling. Which technique is being used?

a)

Static code analysis

b)

Fuzz testing

c)

Dynamic application security testing

d)

Regression testing

3.

Which SDLC phase most directly focuses on integrating individual software components and validating functionality?

a)

Design

b)

Coding

c)

Testing

d)

Training and transition

4.

Which environment is intended to mirror production while preventing impact on live users?

a)

Test

b)

Decommissioning

c)

Development

d)

Staging

5.

An organization automates builds, testing, and deployment while embedding security checks throughout the process. This approach best aligns with:

a)

DevSecOps practices

b)

Traditional waterfall development

c)

Agile without security oversight

d)

Post-deployment hardening

6.

Which DevOps concept emphasizes frequent code commits to a shared repository?

a)

Continuous validation

b)

Continuous monitoring

c)

Continuous integration

d)

Continuous deployment

7.

Which risk is most associated with automated CI/CD pipelines lacking proper security validation?

a)

Reduced system availability

b)

Increased developer workload

c)

Introduction of untested vulnerabilities into production

d)

Delayed application releases

8.

A developer uses parameterized SQL queries to prevent malicious input manipulation. Which secure coding principle is being applied?

a)

Encoding output

b)

Enforcing access controls

c)

Validating all inputs

d)

Leveraging secure frameworks

9.

Which OWASP proactive control emphasizes encrypting sensitive data both at rest and in transit?

a)

Implement security logging

b)

Protect data everywhere

c)

Handle errors securely

d)

Secure database access

10.

An API that lacks rate limiting is most susceptible to which risk?

a)

Denial-of-service conditions

b)

Privilege escalation

c)

Directory traversal

d)

Replay attacks

11.

Which testing method executes code and observes runtime behavior?

a)

Dependency checking

b)

Static analysis

c)

Code review

d)

Dynamic analysis

12.

Which advantage is unique to static code analysis compared to dynamic testing?

a)

Identifies runtime configuration flaws

b)

Operates without executing the application

c)

Detects memory leaks in production

d)

Simulates real-world attack patterns

13.

Fuzz testing is particularly effective at identifying:

a)

Business logic errors

b)

Cryptographic weaknesses

c)

Memory handling issues

d)

Authorization misconfigurations

14.

Which condition most limits the effectiveness of fuzz testing?

a)

Incomplete monitoring of test progress

b)

Insufficient network bandwidth

c)

Excessive logging output

d)

Use of compiled languages

15.

An attacker inserts malicious SQL commands through user input fields. This is an example of:

a)

Code injection

b)

Command injection

c)

Cross-site scripting

d)

SQL injection

16.

Blind SQL injection differs from standard SQL injection because it:

a)

Targets only stored procedures

b)

Does not return visible query results

c)

Uses encrypted payloads

d)

Requires administrative credentials

17.

Which method relies on observing application response delays to extract database information?

a)

Union-based SQL injection

b)

Timing-based blind SQL injection

c)

Content-based blind SQL injection

d)

Stored SQL injection

18.

An application returns no data after an unexpected query modification. This behavior most strongly suggests:

a)

Content-based blind SQL injection vulnerability

b)

Timing-based SQL injection resistance

c)

Secure input validation

d)

Database connection failure

19.

Which mitigation best prevents SQL injection attacks?

a)

Output encoding

b)

Parameterized queries

c)

Database replication

d)

Error suppression

20.

An attacker injects operating system commands through a vulnerable application interface. This is classified as:

a)

Command injection

b)

SQL injection

c)

XML injection

d)

Code injection

21.

Which characteristic increases the risk of command injection?

a)

Strong authentication controls

b)

Direct execution of user-supplied input

c)

Client-side input validation

d)

Use of encryption for input fields

22.

Which environment hosts the live application accessed by end users?

a)

Staging

b)

Production

c)

Development

d)

Test

23.

Why is change management critical when moving code between environments?

a)

It eliminates regression testing

b)

It increases application performance

c)

It enforces accountability and auditability

d)

It reduces development time

24.

Which SDLC phase typically represents the longest operational timeframe?

a)

Testing

b)

Planning

c)

Training and transition

d)

Operations and maintenance

25.

What is the primary goal of secure coding practices?

a)

Increase development speed

b)

Reduce software licensing costs

c)

Improve user interface consistency

d)

Minimize exploitable vulnerabilities

26.

Which OWASP control focuses on denying access by default?

a)

Implement digital identity

b)

Protect data everywhere

c)

Enforce access controls

d)

Secure database access

27.

Which API security requirement ensures that users can only perform permitted actions?

a)

Authorization

b)

Authentication

c)

Input encoding

d)

Rate limiting

28.

Which API risk arises when excessive data is returned in responses?

a)

Injection

b)

Broken authentication

c)

Insufficient logging

d)

Excessive data exposure

29.

Which testing approach best identifies vulnerabilities during runtime execution?

a)

Static analysis

b)

Manual code review

c)

Dependency mapping

d)

Dynamic analysis

30.

Why is continuous monitoring essential in CI/CD pipelines?

a)

It detects vulnerabilities introduced after deployment

b)

It replaces regression testing

c)

It ensures deployment consistency

d)

It reduces build times

31.

Which secure coding principle addresses improper error messages?

a)

Encode output

b)

Handle errors and exceptions

c)

Validate all inputs

d)

Secure database access

32.

Which factor most increases the effectiveness of automated security testing?

a)

Post-deployment testing only

b)

Limited test scope

c)

Integration into CI/CD workflows

d)

Manual execution oversight

33.

What is a key limitation of static code analysis?

a)

Requires executing the application

b)

Generates excessive false negatives

c)

May miss runtime configuration issues

d)

Cannot analyze compiled code

34.

Which phase ensures users are trained before full production release?

a)

Training and transition

b)

Coding

c)

Decommissioning

d)

Testing

35.

Which SDLC phase formally ends a system’s lifecycle?

a)

Maintenance

b)

Operations

c)

Transition

d)

Decommissioning

36.

Which injection type targets directory services using LDAP queries?

a)

SQL injection

b)

XML injection

c)

LDAP injection

d)

DLL injection

37.

Which secure practice minimizes reliance on custom authentication logic?

a)

Encode output

b)

Enforce access controls

c)

Leverage security frameworks

d)

Implement digital identity

38.

Which concept ensures security considerations are shared across development and operations teams?

a)

Agile development

b)

DevSecOps

c)

Waterfall methodology

d)

Secure SDLC

39.

Which risk increases when APIs lack proper authentication?

a)

Buffer overflows

b)

Memory exhaustion

c)

Unauthorized data access

d)

Replay attacks

40.

Which testing method is best suited for identifying known vulnerability patterns?

a)

Fuzz testing

b)

Manual testing

c)

User acceptance testing

d)

Static analysis

41.

Why is input validation insufficient when implemented only on the client side?

a)

It increases latency

b)

It can be bypassed by attackers

c)

It conflicts with encryption

d)

It limits usability

42.

Which secure coding practice directly supports nonrepudiation?

a)

Error handling

b)

Input validation

c)

Secure logging

d)

Encryption

43.

Which factor most complicates blind SQL injection attacks?

a)

Encrypted databases

b)

Lack of visible output

c)

Database normalization

d)

Strong authentication

44.

Which environment typically supports quality assurance activities?

a)

Decommissioned

b)

Test

c)

Development

d)

Production

45.

Which API protection limits abuse from automated requests?

a)

Authorization

b)

Rate limiting

c)

Tokenization

d)

Input encoding

46.

Which SDLC phase determines feasibility and cost considerations?

a)

Testing

b)

Design

c)

Requirements

d)

Planning

47.

Which practice best reduces technical debt over time?

a)

Delaying security testing

b)

Ongoing secure coding standards

c)

Manual patch management

d)

Post-incident remediation

48.

Which vulnerability arises when an application executes attacker-supplied code libraries?

a)

XML injection

b)

DLL injection

c)

SQL injection

d)

Command injection

49.

Which CI/CD risk increases without proper access controls?

a)

Unauthorized code deployment

b)

Privilege escalation

c)

Data exfiltration

d)

Memory exhaustion

50.

Which secure coding control helps prevent privilege escalation?

a)

Least privilege enforcement

b)

Secure logging

c)

Input encoding

d)

Output sanitization

51.

Which testing method generates large volumes of malformed input?

a)

Regression testing

b)

Static analysis

c)

Fuzzing

d)

Penetration testing

52.

Which attack inserts attacker-written scripts into web pages viewed by other users?

a)

SQL injection

b)

Cross-site scripting

c)

Command injection

d)

Directory traversal

53.

Which SDLC phase focuses on architectural decisions and data flows?

a)

Testing

b)

Requirements

c)

Planning

d)

Design

54.

Which API flaw allows users to access data belonging to others?

a)

Broken object level authorization

b)

Excessive data exposure

c)

Injection vulnerabilities

d)

Insufficient logging

55.

Which control ensures sensitive credentials are not stored in plaintext?

a)

Access logging

b)

Secure password storage

c)

Input validation

d)

Output encoding

56.

Which secure coding practice reduces attack surface?

a)

Removing unused features

b)

Logging all input

c)

Error handling

d)

Increasing code complexity

57.

Which DevOps benefit most directly improves response time to security incidents?

a)

Infrastructure scaling

b)

Reduced deployment frequency

c)

Automated monitoring

d)

Code reuse

58.

Which testing approach best identifies logic flaws during execution?

a)

Code linting

b)

Dependency scanning

c)

Dynamic analysis

d)

Static analysis

59.

Which injection attack targets XML parsers?

a)

LDAP injection

b)

Command injection

c)

XML injection

d)

SQL injection

60.

Which phase ensures deployed software continues to function securely?

a)

Testing

b)

Operations and maintenance

c)

Training

d)

Planning

61.

Which factor most contributes to successful DevSecOps adoption?

a)

Delayed testing cycles

b)

Dedicated security teams only

c)

Shared responsibility across roles

d)

Manual security reviews

62.

Which attack modifies queries without displaying results to users?

a)

Stored SQL injection

b)

Union SQL injection

c)

Reflected SQL injection

d)

Blind SQL injection

63.

Which mitigation best addresses command injection risks?

a)

Output encoding

b)

Secure logging

c)

Database encryption

d)

Input validation and sanitization

64.

Which practice ensures vulnerabilities are not reintroduced after fixes?

a)

User acceptance testing

b)

Regression testing

c)

Fuzz testing

d)

Static analysis

65.

Which SDLC benefit improves predictability and consistency?

a)

Ad hoc development

b)

Secure SDLC adoption

c)

Rapid prototyping only

d)

Minimal documentation

66.

Which API control prevents credential reuse attacks?

a)

Authorization

b)

Input encoding

c)

Strong authentication

d)

Rate limiting

67.

Which testing limitation applies to dynamic analysis?

a)

Produces excessive false positives

b)

May miss code paths not executed

c)

Cannot test running applications

d)

Requires source code access

68.

Which secure coding practice ensures sessions are properly managed?

a)

Log errors

b)

Validate inputs

c)

Secure cookies

d)

Encrypt databases

69.

Which environment is typically isolated for developers?

a)

Production

b)

Development

c)

Test

d)

Staging

70.

Which SDLC phase confirms functional requirements are met?

a)

Design

b)

Decommissioning

c)

Planning

d)

Testing

71.

Which risk increases when APIs lack proper authorization checks?

a)

Data exposure

b)

Buffer overflows

c)

Injection attacks

d)

Replay attacks

72.

Which practice helps detect suspicious application behavior after deployment?

a)

Input validation

b)

Static analysis

c)

Secure logging and monitoring

d)

Code signing

73.

Which injection attack leverages database delay functions?

a)

Timing-based blind SQL injection

b)

Error-based SQL injection

c)

Union SQL injection

d)

Content-based SQL injection

74.

Which SDLC activity ensures security controls are built into design decisions?

a)

Requirements gathering

b)

Regression testing

c)

User training

d)

Secure design reviews

75.

Which overarching goal ties together secure coding, testing, and deployment?

a)

Simplifying user experience

b)

Eliminating all vulnerabilities

c)

Reducing application attack surface

d)

Maximizing development speed