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Unit Rev test 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Software testing is mainly performed to:

a)

Add features

b)

Improve code style

c)

Detect defects

d)

Increase development time

2.

Testing is considered an engineering activity because:

a)

It involves guesswork

b)

It follows systematic processes and methods

c)

It is done only by developers

d)

It does not require planning

3.

A defect in software is also called:

a)

Fault

b)

Debug

c)

Enhancement

d)

Resource

4.

Which term refers to the expected output of a test?

a)

Test case

b)

Test oracle

c)

Test suite

d)

Test report

5.

"Testing as a process" means testing is:

a)

Performed randomly

b)

Structured with defined steps

c)

Optional

d)

Done only after debugging

6.

A principle of software testing is:

a)

Testing can prove software is error-free

b)

Exhaustive testing is possible

c)

Testing reduces risk

d)

Testing guarantees success

7.

Which role focuses on defect prevention rather than detection?

a)

Developer

b)

Tester

c)

Customer

d)

Product owner

8.

Defects that occur due to misunderstanding requirements fall under:

a)

Logical defects

b)

Functional defects

c)

Documentation defects

d)

Requirement defects

9.

A repository storing historical defect information is called:

a)

Test environment

b)

Defect repository

c)

Test strategy

d)

Test matrix

10.

Which of the following is NOT a software testing principle?

a)

Early testing

b)

Testing helps in risk reduction

c)

Exhaustive testing is feasible

d)

Defects cluster in modules

11.

The person performing verification and validation is known as:

a)

Debugger

b)

Designer

c)

Tester

d)

Maintainer

12.

Testing is part of which phase of SDLC?

a)

Requirement gathering

b)

Maintenance

c)

Verification and validation

d)

Deployment

13.

Defect examples help testers to:

a)

Learn coding

b)

Improve debugging

c)

Understand defect patterns

d)

Rewrite requirements

14.

A process helps maintain software quality by:

a)

Making testing optional

b)

Providing repeatable steps

c)

Allowing random testing

d)

Ignoring user feedback

15.

One of the main goals of testing is to:

a)

Increase system cost

b)

Discover defects early

c)

Reduce documentation

d)

Avoid user involvement

16.

A defect discovered after release is called:

a)

Bugs

b)

Failures

c)

Fault

d)

Feature

17.

A tester plays an important role by:

a)

Writing business requirements

b)

Validating software functionality

c)

Designing network infrastructure

d)

Creating hardware manuals

18.

Defect classes help in:

a)

Categorizing defects

b)

Removing test planning

c)

Improving coding standards

d)

Increasing cost

19.

Testing ensures:

a)

Zero maintenance

b)

Product quality and reliability

c)

Software is always error-free

d)

Faster coding

20.

Origins of defects include:

a)

Human mistakes

b)

Automation

c)

Deployment

d)

Hardware upgrades

21.

A tester requires a:

a)

Debugger

b)

Test plan

22.

The main output of the testing process is:

a)

Design document

b)

Test report

c)

Marketing brochure

d)

Code standards

23.

Which role verifies that the software meets user needs?

a)

Developer

b)

Tester

c)

Manager

d)

Designer

24.

A defect repository helps in:

a)

Removing test cases

b)

Tracking defect history

c)

Increasing project failures

d)

Removing communication

25.

Testing can never show that the software is:

a)

Working correctly

b)

Free of defects

c)

Ready for release

d)

Functional

26.

Documentation defects are caused by:

a)

Wrong user manuals

b)

Wrong coding

c)

Hardware malfunction

d)

Test execution

27.

Testing is mainly executed to:

a)

Reduce development

b)

Improve software quality

c)

Make design complex

d)

Remove users

28.

Debugging is done by:

a)

Customers

b)

Developers

c)

Testers

d)

Managers

29.

Test design includes:

a)

Building hardware

b)

Writing test cases

c)

Selling software

d)

Installing OS

30.

Defects cluster principle states:

a)

Bugs spread uniformly

b)

A small number of modules contain most defects

c)

No module has defects

d)

All bugs appear randomly

31.

Testing should start:

a)

After coding

b)

As early as possible

c)

Only during release

d)

After deployment

32.

A test process includes:

a)

Planning, designing, executing, reporting

b)

Only reporting

c)

Only execution

d)

Only planning

33.

Failures are visible during:

a)

Coding

b)

Test execution

c)

Requirement gathering

d)

Design

34.

The goal of testing is to find defects:

a)

Early and cost-effectively

b)

Only after release

c)

Without documentation

d)

Without feedback

35.

Defects introduced during coding are called:

a)

Logic defects

b)

Syntax defects

c)

Requirement defects

d)

Management defects

36.

A tester must have skills in:

a)

Understanding requirements

b)

Cooking

c)

Marketing

d)

Hardware repair

37.

Software quality depends on:

a)

Only coding

b)

Process and testing

c)

Luck

d)

Documentation

38.

Defect repository supports:

a)

Defect tracking

b)

Resource deletion

c)

Uncontrolled testing

d)

Ignoring patterns

39.

Testing makes software:

a)

Dependent

b)

Reliable

c)

Useless

d)

Restricted

40.

The role of tester involves:

a)

Predicting defects

b)

Confirming expected behaviors

c)

Writing OS code

d)

Managing servers

41.

Testing reduces:

a)

User experience

b)

Failure risk

c)

Document size

d)

System speed

42.

Defects caused by unclear UI are:

a)

Performance defects

b)

Usability defects

c)

Syntax defects

d)

Logical defects

43.

A good testing process must be:

a)

Repeatable and measurable

b)

Random

44.

Testing provides:

a)

Confidence in software

b)

Uncertainty

c)

More complexity

d)

Poor quality

45.

A defect becomes a failure when:

a)

Code compiles

b)

It produces incorrect behavior during execution

c)

Test case passes

d)

User approves

46.

Testing verifies:

a)

If software behaves as expected

b)

Future features

c)

Hardware condition

d)

Developer skill

47.

Defects can be prevented by:

a)

Reviewing requirements

b)

Skipping testing

c)

Delaying planning

d)

Avoiding documentation

48.

Tester-Developer collaboration improves:

a)

Confusion

b)

Error patterns

c)

Product quality

d)

Delay

49.

Testing adds value by:

a)

Identifying defects before release

b)

Removing documentation

c)

Making software slower

d)

Increasing user complaints

50.

What is the primary purpose of generating questions?

a)

To assess knowledge

b)

To increase workload

c)

To avoid learning

d)

To confuse learners

51.

Which of the following is a benefit of generating questions?

a)

Increases errors

b)

Limits understanding

c)

Reduces engagement

d)

Enhances critical thinking

52.

Generating questions can help in:

a)

Reducing interest

b)

Creating confusion

c)

Hindering communication

d)

Clarifying concepts

53.

What is the primary benefit of generating questions?

a)

Enhancing understanding

b)

Increasing confusion

c)

Delaying learning

d)

Reducing engagement

54.

Generating questions can be useful for:

a)

Assessing comprehension

b)

Creating distractions

c)

Avoiding discussions

d)

Limiting knowledge

55.

Which of the following is a key reason to generate questions?

a)

To promote critical thinking

b)

To complicate topics

c)

To discourage participation

d)

To simplify concepts

56.

What is the primary purpose of generating questions in a learning environment?

a)

To limit discussion

b)

To create confusion

c)

To enhance engagement

57.

Which of the following is a benefit of generating questions?

a)

Increasing distractions

b)

Encouraging critical thinking

c)

Reducing knowledge retention

58.

Generating questions can lead to:

a)

Improved understanding of concepts

b)

Decreased interest in the subject

c)

Less interaction among peers

59.

What is the main purpose of generating questions in a learning environment?

a)

To enhance retention of information

b)

To create confusion among learners

c)

To increase the workload of instructors

d)

To avoid engagement with the material

60.

Which of the following is a benefit of generating questions?

a)

It eliminates the need for study materials

b)

It reduces the need for feedback

c)

It complicates the learning process

d)

It helps in assessing understanding

61.

Generating questions can lead to:

a)

Less interaction in discussions

b)

Improved critical thinking skills

c)

More distractions during learning

d)

Increased memorization without understanding

62.

What is a primary advantage of generating questions during learning?

a)

It increases memorization without understanding

b)

It limits the scope of discussion

c)

It fosters deeper engagement with the material

d)

It makes the learning process more tedious

63.

Which of the following is a key aspect of effective question generation?

a)

Questions should avoid challenging assumptions

b)

Questions should encourage critical thinking

c)

Questions should be vague and open-ended

d)

Questions should be based solely on rote memorization

64.

Generating questions can lead to:

a)

Less interaction in group settings

b)

Decreased motivation to learn

c)

Enhanced retention of information

d)

Increased confusion among learners

65.

What is a key advantage of generating questions during a learning process?

a)

It promotes active engagement

b)

It complicates discussions

c)

It hinders understanding

d)

It reduces curiosity

66.

Generating questions can help in:

a)

Creating confusion

b)

Encouraging critical thinking

c)

Limiting exploration

d)

Stagnating knowledge

67.

Which of the following is a method to enhance learning through question generation?

a)

Passive listening

b)

Group discussions

c)

Solo study

d)

Avoiding feedback

68.

What is the significance of generating questions in a collaborative learning environment?

a)

To create confusion

b)

To reduce participation

c)

To enhance collaborative skills

d)

To foster competition

69.

How can generating questions improve retention of information?

a)

By making learning passive

b)

By encouraging active engagement

c)

By limiting discussion

d)

By increasing distractions

70.

Which of the following is a potential drawback of not generating questions during learning?

a)

Improved retention

b)

Increased understanding

c)

Decreased critical thinking

d)

Enhanced collaboration

71.

What is the primary benefit of generating questions in a study group?

a)

To create competition

b)

To enhance group collaboration

c)

To reduce participation

d)

To complicate discussions

72.

Generating questions can help learners to:

a)

Ignore the material

b)

Enhance critical thinking skills

c)

Increase confusion

d)

Reduce engagement

73.

Which of the following is a key reason for generating questions during a lecture?

a)

To distract students

b)

To simplify the content

c)

To promote active learning

d)

To limit understanding

74.

What is an effective strategy for generating questions during a study session?

a)

Focusing solely on memorization

b)

Encouraging peer discussions

c)

Avoiding feedback from others

d)

Limiting the scope of topics

75.

Which of the following best describes the role of questions in enhancing learning?

a)

They simplify complex concepts too much

b)

They promote deeper engagement with the material

c)

They distract from the main content

d)

They create barriers to understanding

76.

How does generating questions contribute to collaborative learning?

a)

By isolating learners

b)

By fostering group interaction

c)

By reducing the need for discussion

d)

By complicating the learning process

77.

What is a benefit of generating questions during a discussion?

a)

It discourages critical thinking

b)

It complicates the topic

c)

It fosters deeper understanding

d)

It reduces participation

78.

How does generating questions contribute to collaborative learning?

a)

By promoting group interaction

b)

By increasing confusion

c)

By isolating learners

d)

By limiting perspectives

79.

Which of the following is a key reason for generating questions in educational settings?

a)

To reduce the need for feedback

b)

To simplify the material

c)

To enhance engagement and curiosity

d)

To create barriers to learning

80.

Which tools help to support static testing?

a)

Static analysis tools and test execution tools.

b)

Review tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.

c)

Dynamic analysis tools and modelling tools.

d)

Review tools and static analysis tools.

81.

Which test activities are supported by test harnesses?

a)

Test management and control.

b)

Test design and implementation.

c)

Test execution and logging.

d)

Performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

82.

What are the potential benefits from using test automation?

a)

Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing.

b)

Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.

c)

Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.

d)

Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.

83.

Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?

a)

Data-driven and keyword-driven.

b)

Data-driven and capture-driven.

c)

Capture-driven and keyhole-driven.

d)

Playback-driven and keyword-driven.

84.

Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?

a)

Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.

b)

Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.

c)

Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.

d)

Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.

85.

Which of the following is a goal for a pilot project for introducing a tool into an organization?

a)

Decide which tool to acquire.

b)

Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.

c)

Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support, and commercial aspects.

d)

Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.

86.

Engineer Silvia is testing a solution and the solution FAILS?

What should she do?

Choose all the correct answers.

a)

She should try to know what did not go right and fix it.

b)

She should get mad and give up.

c)

She should understand that sometimes thing do not work as planned.

d)

She should try to use other materials for the same designs.

87.

When designing a solution its always

to _________ the solution.

a)

Design

b)

Throw away

c)

Ignore

d)

Test

88.

Good engineers will always test a

solution ____________.

a)

Cero times

b)

Multiple times

c)

One time

d)

Two times

89.

Why should we have MULTIPLE

solutions to test?

a)

If we have multiple solutions we have LESS chances of success.

b)

If we have multiple solutions we have MORE chances of success.

c)

If we have ONE solution we have more chances of success.

d)

If we have ONE solution we have less chances of success?

e)

I

90.

Identify which figure shows the waterfall model software process.

a)

b)

c)

d)

91.

A software process models represents which of the following:

a)

The way in which software is developed

b)

The way in which software processes data

c)

The way in which software is used

d)

The way in which software may fail

92.

choose the one which is not Strength of Waterfall model.

a)

Simplicity

b)

rigidity

c)

flexibility

d)

easy to manage

93.

The incremental model of software development is _____________

a)

Reasonable approach when requirements are well defined

b)

A good approach when working a core product is required quickly

c)

The best approach to use for projects with large development teams

d)

The revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

94.

What is NOT one of the challenges of Reuse-Oriented Software Engineering?

a)

Quality Assurance.

b)

Modularity and flexibility.

c)

Licensing issues.

d)

Dependency Management.

95.

The order in which test levels are performed is:

a)

Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System

b)

Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

c)

Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance

96.

Beta Testing is done at:

a)

Developer’s end

b)

User’s end

c)

User’s & Developer’s end

97.

What are the various Testing Levels?

a)

Unit Testing

b)

System Testing

c)

Integration Testing

d)

All of the mentioned

98.

Effective testing will reduce _______ cost.

a)

maintenance

b)

design

c)

coding

d)

documentation

99.

SDLC stands for

a)

software development life cycle

b)

system development life cycle

c)

software testing life cycle

d)

software defined life cycle

100.

White box testing is also known

a)

Block box testing

b)

system testing

c)

unit testing

d)

glass box testing