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A-levels chapter 13

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which set lists only private sector forms of business ownership?

a)

State schools, public hospitals, ministries

b)

Sole traders, partnerships, limited companies

c)

Societies, charities, cooperatives

d)

Local authorities, central government, NHS

2.

Public sector organisations are best described as entities that are

a)

Owned by individuals seeking dividends

b)

Owned and operated by the government

c)

Created to avoid paying any taxes

d)

Run by volunteers without revenue

3.

Which statements correctly describe private sector organisations?

a)

Funded entirely by taxation revenues

b)

Owned and operated by individuals or groups

c)

Always provide free universal services

d)

Primarily pursue profit-oriented goals

4.

Not-for-profit organisations, such as societies and charities, typically

a)

Aim solely to maximise short-term profit

b)

Distribute profits to private shareholders

c)

Reinvest surpluses to advance a mission

d)

Operate as ministries within government

5.

Which feature best explains why many entrepreneurs choose a sole trader structure?

a)

Mandatory shareholder meetings

b)

Complex governance and reporting

c)

Shared control with partners

d)

High independence in decision-making

6.

A key advantage for a sole trader operating a small business is the ability to:

a)

Outsource all operations to managers

b)

Avoid any involvement in daily tasks

c)

Provide personal service and supervise all areas

d)

Rely on multiple co-owners for input

7.

Which statement about establishing a sole trader is most accurate?

a)

It requires issuing shares to raise equity first

b)

It must register as a limited company immediately

c)

It is easy to set up legally with a business name

d)

It needs approval from a board of directors

8.

What does the income statement of a sole trader primarily show?

a)

Market share and growth rate

b)

Cash budgets for next year

c)

List of owners and employees

d)

Profit or loss for the period

9.

The statement of financial position for a sole trader reports:

a)

Assets of the business

b)

Liabilities of the business

c)

Owner’s capital balance

d)

Projected future revenues

10.

Which pair correctly matches a financial statement with what it shows?

a)

Statement of financial position – tax expense only

b)

Income statement – assets and liabilities

c)

Statement of financial position – daily sales

d)

Income statement – profit or loss

11.

Which statement best reflects the legal definition of a partnership under the Partnership Act 1890?

a)

A relation between persons carrying on a business in common for profit

b)

A contract to share assets without business activity

c)

A company formed by shareholders with limited liability

d)

A temporary joint venture with no profit motive

12.

In a partnership, which aspect is inherently shared among partners?

a)

Personal hobbies and vacations

b)

Voting rights in public elections

c)

Ownership of unrelated properties

d)

Profits, responsibilities, and risks

13.

Under the default rules of the Partnership Act 1890, how are profits and losses divided if no agreement states otherwise?

a)

Proportionate to capital only

b)

Based on seniority of partners

c)

Equally among all partners

d)

At the discretion of the managing partner

14.

Which item is NOT allowed by default under the Partnership Act 1890 unless an agreement states otherwise?

a)

Sharing profits equally each year

b)

Charging interest on partners’ drawings

c)

Recording partners’ capital accounts

d)

Contributing capital to the business

15.

By default, what entitlement do partners have regarding salaries?

a)

A salary proportional to effort

b)

No partner is entitled to a salary

c)

A salary only for managing partners

d)

A fixed monthly salary for all

16.

What is the default position on interest on partners’ capital under the Act of 1890?

a)

Interest must be paid at five percent

b)

Interest is not allowed on capital

c)

Interest rate follows bank prime rate

d)

Interest is paid if profits exceed target

17.

If a partner contributes more capital than agreed, what default interest applies to the excess?

a)

Three percent per year on excess

b)

Five percent per year on excess

c)

No interest allowed on excess

d)

Market rate set by bank on excess

18.

Which matters are commonly specified in a partnership agreement to vary default rules?

a)

Division of profits and losses

b)

Partners’ salaries

c)

Depreciation methods of national tax law

d)

Interest on capital and drawings

19.

Which scenario correctly illustrates shared risks in a partnership?

a)

Risks are transferred to suppliers only

b)

Only newest partner bears all risks

c)

Each partner bears risks jointly

d)

One partner bears all losses alone

20.

Which statement about advantages and disadvantages of partnerships is most accurate?

a)

They offer shared responsibility but never conflicts

b)

They diversify expertise yet may share liabilities

c)

They guarantee limited liability for all partners

d)

They prevent any need for decision sharing

21.

Which change would require an explicit partnership agreement rather than relying on default rules?

a)

Sharing profits equally among partners

b)

Paying salaries to selected partners

c)

Keeping capital accounts for partners

d)

Recording business revenue and expenses

22.

Which charge is prohibited by default on partners’ drawings?

a)

Sales tax on merchandise

b)

Depreciation on fixed assets

c)

Interest on amounts withdrawn

d)

Late fees on supplier invoices

23.

In the table, a partnership has capital contributed in the ratio 1:1:1 with each partner investing £80,000. What is the total partnership capital?

a)

£160,000 total capital

b)

£200,000 total capital

c)

£320,000 total capital

d)

£240,000 total capital

24.

Using the 1:2:3 ratio row, what is Partner C's share of total capital expressed as a simplified fraction?

a)

3/7 of total capital

b)

1/3 of total capital

c)

1/2 of total capital

d)

3/6 of total capital

25.

Which statement best describes a limited company in the diagram?

a)

A business identical to its owners

b)

A sole trader with shared profits

c)

A separate legal entity from owners

d)

A partnership with unlimited liability

26.

According to the comparison chart, which features are advantages of a limited company over a sole trader?

a)

Protected personal liability

b)

Greater credibility with clients

c)

Simpler administration overall

d)

Ability to pay dividends

27.

Which feature is a typical trade-off when moving from sole trader to limited company, as shown in the chart?

a)

More complex setup process

b)

Lower administrative burden overall

c)

No tax efficiency benefits

d)

No change in compliance duties

28.

A founder wants limited personal risk and the option to distribute profits via dividends. Based on the diagram, which structure fits these goals best?

a)

Operate as a sole trader

b)

Remain an unregistered business

c)

Form a limited company

d)

Create an informal partnership

29.

Which requirement is specific to becoming a public limited company (plc) in the UK?

a)

At least one shareholder only

b)

Must avoid listing on any market

c)

Issued share capital over £50,000

d)

Shares cannot be transferred privately

30.

A private limited company (Ltd) must have which minimum governance structure?

a)

At least two members and two directors

b)

Two directors who are not shareholders

c)

A board of at least five directors

d)

At least one member and one director

31.

Which statement best describes share trading for a private limited company?

a)

Shares can only be issued to the government

b)

Shares must be quoted on the Stock Exchange

c)

Shares are not publicly traded but transferable privately

d)

Shares are freely traded without valuation issues

32.

Which statement about a plc is accurate?

a)

It cannot have more than one director

b)

It may raise capital publicly on stock markets

c)

It has no minimum issued share capital

d)

It must float shares on a public exchange

33.

Identify all true statements about private limited companies (select all that apply).

a)

At least one member and one director required

b)

No minimum issued share capital requirement

c)

Often small and family-owned businesses

d)

Shares are publicly quoted for easy valuation

34.

Which set lists the core financial statements prepared internally by a limited company?

a)

Income statement and statement of financial position

b)

Cash budget and capital maintenance schedule

c)

Trial balance and bank reconciliation

d)

Statement of cash flows only

35.

What is the primary additional statement that follows the income statement for a limited company?

a)

Notes on accounting policies

b)

Director’s remuneration report

c)

Statement of cash flows

d)

Statement of changes in equity

36.

The statement of changes in equity mainly shows which of the following?

a)

How profit is distributed and linked to equity

b)

Only the closing cash and bank balances

c)

The fair values of marketable securities

d)

Tax computations for the fiscal year

37.

Dividends are best described as which of the following?

a)

Distributions of profit to shareholders

b)

Mandatory interest paid to lenders

c)

Capital raised from issuing shares

d)

Government grants for listed firms

38.

Which combination correctly differentiates plc from Ltd status?

a)

Plc: public capital raising allowed; Ltd: private share transfers

b)

Plc: no directors needed; Ltd: two directors minimum

c)

Plc: shares never issued; Ltd: shares must be quoted

d)

Plc: no capital threshold; Ltd: £50,000 minimum

39.

Which role primarily checks that financial statements comply with standards and laws rather than preparing day‑to‑day records?

a)

Accountant within the finance department

b)

Auditor responsible for independent review

c)

Controller overseeing internal controls

d)

Treasurer managing cash and liquidity

40.

In a limited company, who is most responsible for maintaining accurate accounting records and producing reports for management?

a)

External auditor conducting statutory audits

b)

Controller supervising accounting systems

c)

Equity investor providing share capital

d)

Loan officer from the commercial bank

41.

Which sources count as internal financing for a business?

a)

Retained profits kept in the business

b)

Bank overdraft used for operations

c)

Depreciation funds set aside internally

d)

Owner’s personal injection as equity

42.

Which statement best distinguishes equity from loans as funding methods?

a)

Equity exchanges ownership for capital

b)

Loans permanently dilute voting control

c)

Equity requires fixed interest and collateral

d)

Loans provide funds without future obligations

43.

Which situation is most appropriate for seeking a grant over other financing options?

a)

A routine purchase of inventory

b)

A temporary cash flow shortfall

c)

A leveraged buyout of a competitor

d)

A project matching public policy goals