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DUMSA_6.1

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ______ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

a)

SmartView Web Application

b)

SmartTracker

c)

SmartMonitor

d)

SmartReporter

2.

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection 'Host Port Scan' from 'Medium' to 'High' Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

a)

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

b)

The Access Control Policy.

c)

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

d)

The Threat Prevention Policy.

3.

When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to __________ to enforce changes.

a)

Publish database

b)

Activate policy

c)

Install policy

d)

Save changes

4.

The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

a)

The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.

b)

No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

c)

Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

d)

The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.

5.

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

a)

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.

b)

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

c)

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

d)

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.

6.

Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

a)

Concurrent policy packages

b)

Concurrent policies

c)

Global Policies

d)

Shared policies

7.

When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

a)

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

b)

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

c)

R81.10 does not support Layers

d)

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

8.

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

a)

Application database

b)

AppWiki

c)

Application-Forensic Database

d)

Application Library

9.

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

a)

Automatic Static NAT

b)

Manual Hide NAT

c)

Automatic Hide NAT

d)

Manual Static NAT

10.

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

a)

SecureID

b)

Radius

c)

DynamicID

d)

TACACS

11.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

a)

CPM

b)

HTTPS

c)

FWD

d)

CPD

12.

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

a)

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

b)

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

c)

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

d)

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

13.

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.

a)

Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security

b)

Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway

c)

Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

d)

Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management

14.

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) __________ Server.

a)

SecurID

b)

LDAP

c)

NT domain

d)

SMTP

15.

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

a)

Tracking

b)

Log

c)

None

d)

Alert

16.

Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?

a)

Networks

b)

Users

c)

Time

d)

Machines

17.

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

a)

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

b)

Static NAT

c)

Static Route

d)

HTTPS Inspection

18.

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

a)

Identity Collector

b)

Endpoint VPN client

c)

SmartConsole

d)

Proxy Server

19.

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

a)

admin

b)

superuser

c)

monitor

d)

altuser

20.

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

a)

IPS blade

b)

IPSEC VPN Blade

c)

Identity Awareness Blade

d)

Firewall Blade

21.

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

a)

Inspection Policies

b)

Shared Policies

c)

Unified Policies

d)

Standard Policies

22.

Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

a)

Upper; Application

b)

First two; Internet

c)

Lower; Application

d)

First two; Transport

23.

Fill in the blanks: The ______ collects logs and sends them to the ______.

a)

Log server; Security Gateway

b)

Log server; security management server

c)

Security management server; Security Gateway

d)

Security Gateways; log server

24.

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

a)

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

b)

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

c)

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

d)

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

25.

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

a)

Access Control

b)

Threat Emulation

c)

Threat Prevention

d)

QoS

26.

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

a)

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

b)

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

c)

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

d)

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

27.

Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

a)

SmartDashboard

b)

SmartEvent

c)

SmartView Monitor

d)

SmartUpdate

28.

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

a)

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

b)

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

c)

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

d)

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

29.

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

a)

clish

b)

Monitor

c)

Read-only

d)

Bash

30.

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Two

d)

Infinite

31.

In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

a)

Manage and Settings

b)

Logs and Monitor

c)

Security Policies

d)

Gateways and Servers

32.

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

a)

Cannot reach the Security Gateway.

b)

The gateway and all its Software Blades are working properly.

c)

At least one Software Blade has a minor issue, but the gateway works.

d)

Cannot make SIC between the Security Management Server and the Security Gateway

33.

In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

a)

Publish changes

b)

Save changes

c)

Install policy

d)

Install database

34.

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

a)

To filter out specific content.

b)

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

c)

To see what users are doing.

d)

Ensure security and privacy of information.

35.

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

a)

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

b)

SmartConsole, Standalone, and Security Management

c)

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

d)

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

36.

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

a)

Standalone

b)

Remote

c)

Distributed

d)

Bridge Mode

37.

Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

a)

cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.

b)

In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

c)

WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.

d)

Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

38.

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

a)

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

b)

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

c)

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

d)

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

39.

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

a)

Central and Local.

b)

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

c)

On-premise and Public Cloud.

d)

Security Gateway and Security Management.

40.

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

a)

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

b)

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

c)

Analyze log entries and identify events.

d)

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

41.

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

a)

Application Independence

b)

High Performance

c)

Scalability

d)

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

42.

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

a)

Original packet and translated packet

b)

Manipulated packet and original packet

c)

Translated packet and untranslated packet

d)

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

43.

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

a)

IPS

b)

Application Control and URL Filtering

c)

Threat Emulation

d)

Anti-virus

44.

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items. Choose the correct statement.

a)

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

b)

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

c)

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

d)

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

45.

Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

a)

Firewall

b)

Identity Awareness

c)

Application Control

d)

URL Filtering

46.

For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?

a)

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default

b)

Automate NAT rules are supported for Network objects only.

c)

Automatic NAT rules are supported for Host objects only.

d)

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is disabled by default

47.

What is the user ID of a user that have all the privileges of a root user?

a)

User ID 1

b)

User ID 2

c)

User ID 0

d)

User ID 99

48.

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

a)

print cplic

b)

show licenses

c)

fwlic print

d)

cplic print

49.

What are two basic rules Check Point recommending for building an effective security policy?

a)

Accept Rule and Drop Rule

b)

Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule

c)

Explicit Rule and Implied Rule

d)

NAT Rule and Reject Rule

50.

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

a)

Full

b)

Custom

c)

Complete

d)

Light

51.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Gaia command line?

a)

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_di and use CLISH for monitoring. Expert mode is used only for OS level tasks

b)

Configuration changes should be done in mgmt_cli and use expert-mode for OS-level tasks.

c)

Configuration changes should be done in expert-mode and CLISH is used for monitoring

d)

All configuration changes should be made in CLISH and expert-mode should be used for OS-level tasks.

52.

When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?

a)

First - Internal user database, then LDAP servers in order of priority, finally the generic external user profile

b)

First the Internal user database, then generic external user profile, finally LDAP servers in order of priority.

c)

First the highest priority LDAP server, then the internal user database, then lower priority LDAP servers, finally the generic external profile

d)

The external generic profile, then the internal user database finally the LDAP servers in order of priority.

53.

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets _____ data from requests generated by the accounting client

a)

Location

b)

Payload

c)

Destination

d)

Identity

54.

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

a)

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

b)

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

c)

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

d)

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

55.

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

a)

8080

b)

80

c)

4434

d)

443

56.

Fill in the blank Backup and restores can be accomplished through

a)

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole

b)

WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate

c)

CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

d)

SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

57.

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

a)

Custom

b)

Terminal

c)

Full

d)

Light

58.

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the "+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

a)

Drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

b)

Enable the "Application Control" blade on a gateway

c)

Enable "Applications & URL Filtering" on the policy layer where the rule is being created

d)

First create some applications to add to the rule

59.

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

a)

IPS

b)

Anti-Virus

c)

Anti-Spam

d)

Anti-bot

60.

Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers use what protocol?

a)

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

b)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

c)

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

d)

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

61.

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

a)

add users to your Gaia system.

b)

assign privileges to users.

c)

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

d)

edit the home directory of the user.

62.

Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses _____ to communicate with the gateway

a)

UDP

b)

CCP

c)

TDP

d)

HTTP

63.

Choose what BEST describes a Session

a)

Ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway

b)

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out

c)

Locks the policy package for editing

d)

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

64.

Where can alerts be viewed?

a)

SmartView Monitor

b)

Threat Prevention policy

c)

SmartUpdate

d)

CLI of the gateway

65.

If there is an Accept Implied Policy set to "First", what is the reason Jorge cannot see any logs?

a)

Log Implied Rule was not set correctly on the track column on the rules base

b)

Track log column is set to Log instead of Full Log

c)

Track log column is set to none

d)

Log Implied Rule was not selected on Global Properties

66.

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

a)

Firewall, URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

b)

Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

c)

Firewall, NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

d)

Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

67.

Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a __________ should be installed.

a)

contract file

b)

security gateway

c)

VPN certificate

d)

policy package