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Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Network security refers to:

a)

Protecting hardware only

b)

Protecting data during transmission

c)

Protecting data, devices, and resources in a network

d)

Monitoring user behavior

2.

The main objective of network security is to:

a)

Increase internet speed

b)

Prevent unauthorized access

c)

Reduce bandwidth

d)

Increase server load

3.

Network security is mainly concerned with:

a)

Software installation

b)

Protecting data integrity, confidentiality, and availability

c)

Backup only

d)

Device configuration

4.

Network security ensures:

a)

High profit

b)

Safe and reliable communication

c)

Instant data delivery

d)

More storage

5.

Firewalls, antivirus, and encryption are examples of:

a)

Network security tools

b)

Routing protocols

c)

Web applications

d)

Data compression tools

6.

Network security is mainly needed due to:

a)

Faster computers

b)

Increase in cyber threats and attacks

c)

Low internet speed

d)

Cheap memory devices

7.

Network security protects against:

a)

Viruses and malware

b)

Unauthorized access

c)

Data theft

d)

All of the above

8.

Which factor increases the need for network security?

a)

Decrease in networking

b)

More isolated systems

c)

Growth of internet and online services

d)

Less use of mobile devices

9.

Security helps organizations to:

a)

Slow down network

b)

Lose data

c)

Maintain privacy of information

d)

Allow unauthorized usage

10.

A network without proper security may result in:

a)

Data breaches

b)

Unauthorized modifications

c)

Service disruption

d)

All of these

11.

Confidentiality refers to:

a)

Ensuring data is correct and accurate

b)

Ensuring data is available when needed

c)

Preventing unauthorized access to information

d)

Ensuring fast network speed

12.

Integrity ensures that:

a)

Data is kept secret

b)

Data is not altered or tampered

c)

Data is always available

d)

Data is authenticated

13.

Availability means:

a)

Data is confidential

b)

Data is correct

c)

Data is accessible to authorized users

d)

Data is modified

14.

Which of the following is a threat to availability?

a)

DDoS attack

b)

Encryption

c)

Firewall

d)

Authentication

15.

Authentication means:

a)

Hiding data

b)

Proving identity of a user

c)

Blocking access

d)

Encrypting data

16.

Non-repudiation means:

a)

User cannot deny sending a message

b)

Data is encrypted

c)

Data is compressed

d)

User is anonymous

17.

Which principle ensures that access is given only to authorized users?

a)

Accountability

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Authorization

d)

Integrity

18.

Accountability is achieved through:

a)

Logging and monitoring

b)

Encryption

c)

Compression

d)

Signal modulation

19.

Which principle ensures that users perform only allowed actions?

a)

Authentication

b)

Authorization

c)

Integrity

d)

Availability

20.

Which attack targets confidentiality?

a)

Sniffing

b)

DDoS

c)

Server crash

d)

Hardware failure

21.

Which attack targets integrity?

a)

Data tampering

b)

Password stealing

c)

DNS poisoning

d)

Both A and C

22.

Which attack targets availability?

a)

DDoS

b)

Spoofing

c)

Keylogging

d)

SQL injection

23.

The primary role of encryption is to ensure:

a)

Availability

b)

Integrity

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Accountability

24.

A cyber attack is defined as:

a)

Installation of antivirus

b)

An attempt to damage, steal or gain unauthorized access to data

c)

Running a legal program

d)

Increasing internet speed

25.

Attackers who break into systems without permission are called:

a)

Hacktivists

b)

Black-hat hackers

c)

White-hat hackers

d)

Analysts

26.

Which of the following is a passive attack?

a)

Eavesdropping

b)

Virus infection

c)

SQL injection

d)

DoS attack

27.

Which is an active attack?

a)

Traffic monitoring

b)

Data modification

c)

Encryption

d)

Backup

28.

Active attacks mainly aim to:

a)

Observe data

b)

Steal data silently

c)

Modify, delete, or inject data

d)

Speed up communication

29.

A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack targets:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Availability

d)

Authentication

30.

Which attack floods a server with fake traffic?

a)

Email spoofing

b)

DDoS attack

c)

Keylogging

d)

Brute force

31.

Which attack tricks users by showing fake websites or messages?

a)

Phishing

b)

Sniffing

c)

Spoofing

d)

DoS

32.

Malware that replicates itself across networks is called:

a)

Worm

b)

Virus

c)

Trojan

d)

Rootkit

33.

Malware hidden within legitimate software is called:

a)

Worm

b)

Trojan horse

c)

Botnet

d)

Sniffer

34.

An attack where an attacker secretly listens to network traffic is:

a)

Phishing

b)

Spoofing

c)

Eavesdropping

d)

DoS

35.

SQL injection exploits vulnerabilities in:

a)

Operating systems

b)

Databases and web applications

c)

Network routers

d)

Browsers only

36.

Brute-force attack is used to:

a)

Steal hardware

b)

Guess passwords

c)

Monitor network

d)

Encrypt data

37.

Ransomware attacks do what?

a)

Encrypt user data and demand payment

b)

Remove malware

38.

Man-in-the-middle attack means:

a)

Two systems communicating normally

b)

An attacker intercepts and modifies communication

c)

Server malfunction

d)

User error

39.

Which of the following is considered a criminal cyber attack?

a)

Unauthorized system access

b)

Sending encrypted data

c)

Backing up files

d)

Installing antivirus

40.

Identity theft is a form of:

a)

Legal activity

b)

Ethical hacking

c)

Cybercrime

d)

Normal operation

41.

Stealing banking credentials is an example of:

a)

Legal attack

b)

Criminal attack

c)

Network upgrade

d)

System testing

42.

Botnets are commonly used for:

a)

File backups

b)

Criminal activities like DDoS attacks

c)

Antivirus programs

d)

Legal auditing

43.

Cyberstalking is considered:

a)

A criminal attack

b)

A passive attack

c)

A legal activity

d)

A network service

44.

A legal attack performed to test systems is called:

a)

Malware attack

b)

Cybercrime

c)

Penetration testing

d)

Phishing

45.

Ethical hackers are also known as:

a)

Black hats

b)

White-hat hackers

c)

Criminals

d)

Rogue agents

46.

Legal attacks require:

a)

No permission

b)

Written authorization

c)

Anonymous identity

d)

Malware usage

47.

The aim of a legal attack is to:

a)

Steal data

b)

Damage the system

c)

Test security strength

d)

Shut down servers

48.

Vulnerability assessment is a:

a)

Criminal activity

b)

Legal security evaluation

c)

Malware infection

d)

Data theft

49.

Which is NOT a legal attack?

a)

Penetration testing

b)

Bug bounty testing

c)

Ethical hacking

d)

Installing spyware without consent

50.

Legal attacks follow which rule?

a)

No rules

b)

Perform secretly

c)

Must follow scope and permission

d)

Use malware only

51.

Passive attacks mainly aim to:

a)

Modify data

b)

Destroy data

c)

Observe or monitor data

d)

Overload the system

52.

Which of the following is a passive attack?

a)

SQL Injection

b)

Eavesdropping

c)

DDoS attack

d)

Data modification

53.

Passive attacks violate which security principle the most?

a)

Integrity

b)

Availability

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Authentication

54.

Traffic analysis is an example of:

a)

Active attack

b)

Passive attack

c)

Both

d)

None

55.

In passive attacks, the attacker:

a)

Interferes with communication

b)

Changes packet contents

c)

Only listens without altering data

d)

Breaks encryption

56.

Active attacks aim to:

a)

Monitor only

b)

Encrypt data

c)

Alter, modify, or inject data

d)

Increase network speed

57.

Which is an example of an active attack?

a)

Traffic analysis

b)

DoS attack

c)

Sniffing

d)

Eavesdropping

58.

Active attacks can violate which of the following?

a)

Confidentiality only

b)

Integrity and availability

c)

Availability only

d)

None

59.

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack is:

a)

Passive

b)

Active

c)

Neither

d)

Legal

60.

Modifying data packets during transmission is:

a)

Passive

b)

Active

c)

Inactive

d)

Secure

61.

Injecting malware into a system is an example of:

a)

Active attack

b)

Passive attack

c)

Legal attack

d)

None

62.

Active attacks are considered more dangerous because:

a)

They are silent

b)

They cause direct damage or disruption

c)

They improve system speed

d)

They cannot be detected

63.

Software supply chain attack targets:

a)

Only hardware

b)

Vendors, developers, and software updates

c)

Network cables

d)

Database only

64.

An attacker who modifies open-source code before distribution is performing:

a)

Active network attack

b)

Software supply chain attack

c)

DoS attack

d)

Legal penetration testing

65.

Which method is commonly used in supply chain attacks?

a)

Using counterfeit hardware

b)

Injecting malicious code into updates

66.

Supply chain attacks are dangerous because:

a)

They do not affect updates

b)

They attack trusted software channels

c)

They can be detected easily

d)

They are limited to hardware

67.

A supply chain attack usually begins at:

a)

End-user device

b)

Software developer, vendor, or third-party provider

c)

Network router

d)

Firewall

68.

Compromising a package manager dependency (e.g., npm, PyPI) is:

a)

Passive attack

b)

Active attack

c)

Supply chain attack

d)

DoS attack

69.

Supply chain attacks mainly violate:

a)

Accountability

b)

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

c)

Availability only

d)

Authentication only

70.

Inserting backdoors in firmware during manufacturing is:

a)

Software supply chain attack

b)

Hardware malfunction

c)

Legal auditing

d)

Passive attack

71.

Cryptography is defined as:

a)

The study of computer hardware

b)

The science of securing information through transformations

c)

The process of deleting data

d)

The study of database systems

72.

The main purpose of cryptography is to ensure:

a)

Data compression

b)

Data backup

c)

Secure communication

d)

Faster transfer

73.

The process of converting plaintext into unreadable ciphertext is:

a)

Decryption

b)

Encryption

c)

Compilation

d)

Hashing

74.

Decryption refers to:

a)

Converting ciphertext back to plaintext

b)

Compressing data

c)

Generating keys

d)

Destroying data

75.

A cryptographic key is used to:

a)

Delete files

b)

Change IP address

c)

Encrypt and decrypt information

d)

Format storage

76.

Which security principle is strongly supported by cryptography?

a)

Availability

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Scalability

d)

Load balancing

77.

Modern cryptography involves:

a)

Only pen-and-paper methods

b)

Mathematical algorithms and keys

c)

Only network routing

d)

Only compression

78.

The output of an encryption algorithm is called:

a)

Plaintext

b)

Ciphertext

c)

Hash value

d)

Packet

79.

Symmetric encryption uses:

a)

One-key for encryption and decryption

b)

Two different keys

c)

No key

d)

Only public key

80.

Symmetric encryption is also known as:

a)

Public key cryptography

b)

Secret key cryptography

c)

No-key cryptography

d)

Cloud encryption

81.

Which of the following is a symmetric algorithm?

a)

RSA

b)

ECC

c)

AES

d)

Diffie-Hellman

82.

Major advantage of symmetric encryption:

a)

High speed and efficiency

b)

No need for keys

c)

Public validation

d)

Easy to break

83.

Major disadvantage of symmetric encryption:

a)

Very slow

b)

Key distribution problem

c)

Needs large bandwidth

d)

Works only on text

84.

Symmetric block ciphers process data in:

a)

Continuous streams

b)

Fixed-size blocks

c)

Random sizes

d)

Only 1-bit at a time

85.

Which of the following is a block cipher?

a)

RC4

b)

AES

c)

ChaCha20

d)

OTP

86.

AES block size is:

a)

64 bits

b)

128 bits

c)

256 bits

d)

32 bits

87.

DES uses a key size of:

a)

32 bits

b)

56 bits

c)

128 bits

d)

256 bits

88.

DES belongs to which type of encryption?

a)

Asymmetric key encryption

b)

Symmetric block cipher

c)

Stream cipher

d)

Hash algorithm

89.

A digest function converts arbitrary input into:

a)

Plaintext

b)

Fixed-size output

c)

Variable-size output

d)

Encrypted text only

90.

Message digests provide:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

c)

Confidentiality + Availability

d)

Authentication only

91.

A good hash function must be:

a)

Reversible

b)

One-way

c)

Two-way

d)

Interactive

92.

Digest functions are used mainly in:

a)

Data confidentiality

b)

Password storage and integrity verification

c)

Data compression

d)

Firewall routing

93.

A good digest function must avoid:

a)

Collisions

b)

Fixed length output

94.

Digest functions are:

a)

Encryption algorithms

b)

Non-reversible hash functions

c)

Two-way conversion functions

d)

Used to decrypt messages

95.

Which attack tries to find two different messages with the same hash?

a)

Replay attack

b)

Collision attack

c)

Trojan attack

d)

Brute force

96.

Public key cryptography uses:

a)

One key

b)

Two keys (public + private)

c)

No keys

d)

Same key for both sides

97.

Public key cryptography is also known as:

a)

Symmetric cryptography

b)

Secret-key cryptography

c)

Asymmetric cryptography

d)

Digest cryptography

98.

In public key encryption, the public key is used for:

a)

Decryption

b)

Encryption

c)

Hashing

d)

Signing

99.

The private key must always be:

a)

Publicly available

b)

Stored in the cloud

c)

Kept secret

d)

Shared with everyone

100.

Public key cryptography mainly supports:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Authentication

c)

Non-repudiation

d)

All of the above

101.

The main mathematical concept behind public key cryptography is:

a)

Easy arithmetic

b)

One-way functions

c)

File compression

d)

Bit flipping

102.

Public key cryptography is slower than symmetric cryptography because:

a)

It uses small keys

b)

It uses complex mathematical operations

c)

It does not use keys

d)

It requires compression

103.

RSA is a(n) _____ encryption algorithm.

a)

Symmetric

b)

Asymmetric

c)

Hashing

d)

Block cipher

104.

RSA security is based on:

a)

Matrix multiplication

b)

Prime factorization problem

c)

Linear algebra

d)

Graph theory

105.

RSA uses two keys known as:

a)

Encryption key and checksum

b)

Public key and private key

c)

Hash key and digest key

d)

Session key and MAC key

106.

In RSA, plaintext is raised to power e and mod n to perform:

a)

Decryption

b)

Encryption

c)

Compression

d)

Hashing

107.

In RSA, decryption is performed using:

a)

Public key

b)

Private key

c)

Hash key

d)

Session key

108.

In RSA, n (the modulus) is generated by:

a)

Adding two primes

b)

XOR of primes

c)

Multiplying two large primes

d)

Dividing two primes

109.

The RSA key pair is generated using:

a)

Two random numbers

b)

Two large prime numbers

c)

One prime and one composite number

d)

Only one prime

110.

Typical RSA key length considered secure today is:

a)

64 bits

b)

128 bits

c)

1024 bits

d)

2048 bits or higher

111.

RSA is preferred for:

a)

Bulk data encryption

b)

Key exchange and digital signatures

c)

Encrypting large files directly

d)

Hashing data

112.

A digital signature provides:

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Integrity

113.

Digital signatures ensure that the message:

a)

Cannot be decrypted

b)

Has not been altered

c)

Is compressed

d)

Contains no malware

114.

Digital signature is created using the sender’s:

a)

Password

b)

Private key

c)

Public key

d)

Hash key

115.

Digital signature verification uses the sender’s:

a)

Private key

b)

Public key

c)

AES key

d)

Session key

116.

A digital signature is basically:

a)

Encrypted plaintext

b)

Encrypted hash value

c)

Encrypted ciphertext

d)

A virus checker

117.

Which algorithm is commonly used for digital signatures?

a)

DES

b)

AES

c)

RSA

d)

RC4

118.

Which security principle is strongest in digital signatures?

a)

Confidentiality

b)

Non-repudiation

c)

Availability

d)

Compression

119.

A digital signature proves:

a)

Sender identity

b)

Data integrity

c)

Non-repudiation

d)

All of the above

120.

Digital signatures require:

a)

Hashing + public key cryptography

b)

Only AES

c)

Only hashing

d)

Only symmetric keys

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