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Ch. 17

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes a base station from a mobile radio in an EMS system?

a)

Base stations are fixed high-power sites; mobile radios are vehicle-mounted units

b)

Base stations are handheld units; mobile radios are dispatch-only devices

c)

Base stations use cell networks; mobile radios use wired telephone lines

d)

Base stations transmit only; mobile radios receive only

2.

Match each EMS radio component to its primary function.

a)

Base station

1.

Fixed site hub with higher output power

b)

Mobile radio

2.

Vehicle-mounted two-way unit for field use

c)

Repeater

3.

Retransmits low-power signals at higher power over distance

d)

Telemetry

4.

Wireless transfer of patient data like ECGs

3.

Which practice best maintains FCC compliance and professional tone during EMS radio use?

a)

Use plain English and avoid codes

b)

Use slang to sound conversational

c)

Identify patients by full legal names

d)

Transmit long narratives without pauses

4.

Match each radio practice to its purpose.

a)

Wait one second after pressing PTT

1.

Prevents first words from being cut off

b)

Speak 2–3 inches from mic

2.

Improves clarity and volume control

c)

Avoid patient names on air

3.

Protects privacy and professionalism

d)

Keep transmissions brief

4.

Reduces channel congestion

5.

You are Ambulance 6 staged at Magnolia and Third for an assault. Police radio that the scene is secure. What should your next transmission be?

a)

Acknowledge and respond to the scene

b)

Request patient’s name from dispatch

c)

Ask for a different hospital destination

d)

Report hospital ETA from staging

6.

Which sequence correctly lists the first four elements of a structured radio medical report?

a)

Unit identification, ETA, patient age/sex, chief complaint

b)

Chief complaint, ETA, unit identification, mental status

c)

Patient age/sex, unit identification, baseline vitals, chief complaint

d)

ETA, unit identification, pertinent history, mental status

7.

Match each radio report element to its purpose.

a)

Estimated time of arrival

1.

Tells hospital when to expect patient

b)

Baseline vital signs

2.

Provides objective initial physiologic data

c)

Pertinent history of present illness

3.

Explains onset, severity, associated symptoms

d)

Response to emergency care

4.

States change after treatments en route

8.

During radio contact for medical direction, which practice best prevents miscommunication when you receive an order?

a)

Acknowledge briefly and carry it out immediately

b)

Paraphrase the order using simpler language

c)

Repeat the order word for word back to the physician

d)

Delay confirmation until after the next set of vitals

9.

Which action best demonstrates therapeutic communication when first making contact with an anxious adult patient?

a)

Stand above to show authority and speak quickly

b)

Maintain eye contact and speak clearly at calm pace

c)

Use complex medical terms to build credibility

d)

Avoid explaining procedures to reduce questions

10.

Match each communication guideline with its primary purpose.

a)

Use eye contact

1.

Shows interest and attentiveness

b)

Position at or below eye level

2.

Reduces intimidation and builds rapport

c)

Use simple, clear language

3.

Prevents confusion and lowers anxiety

d)

Be honest about procedures

4.

Preserves trust even when pain may occur

11.

You arrive to find a school-age child frightened and clinging to a caregiver. Which plan is most appropriate to gain cooperation while preparing for transport?

a)

Direct orders with rapid movements and minimal talk

b)

Discuss adult details using clinical terminology

c)

Speak softly at eye level and explain steps briefly

d)

Avoid eye contact to reduce perceived pressure

12.

An older adult introduces herself as “Dr. Rivera” but later says, “You can call me Ana.” What is the most appropriate EMS response?

a)

Immediately use first name without confirming

b)

Continue using formal title to show respect

c)

Use nicknames to build quick rapport

d)

Alternate between first and last names randomly

e)

Ask which name she prefers to be called

13.

Which statement best describes a core function of the prehospital care report (PCR)?

a)

It provides a record of care and patient status changes

b)

It is used only for agency billing and inventory

c)

It documents dispatch times but not patient findings

d)

It replaces verbal reports to hospital staff entirely

14.

Match each PCR format or tool to its primary feature or use.

a)

Electronic PCR systems

1.

Allow direct data entry and hospital data transfer

b)

Paper PCR forms

2.

Serve as handwritten or printed backup documentation

c)

Drop (transfer) report

3.

Abbreviated report used when full PCR cannot be finished

15.

Which item is part of the NHTSA minimum data set for patient information collected at first contact?

a)

Chief complaint and AVPU mental status

b)

Crew member certification levels

c)

Hospital bed assignment details

d)

Insurance carrier and policy number

16.

An EMT documents: adult patient alert to person and place, pulse 96 regular, respirations 20 unlabored, skin warm and dry, capillary refill under 2 seconds, denies shortness of breath and chest pain. What part of this entry best illustrates pertinent negatives?

a)

Skin warm and dry to touch

b)

Denies shortness of breath and chest pain

c)

Alert to person and place only

d)

Pulse 96 regular and strong

17.

Which statement best defines a pertinent negative in a prehospital narrative?

a)

An opinion about the patient’s demeanor or attitude

b)

A positive sign that confirms a differential diagnosis

c)

Any unrelated symptom omitted from the assessment

d)

A finding expected but absent and documented clearly

18.

Match each documentation guideline to its correct application.

a)

Use quotation marks

1.

Record the chief complaint in the patient’s own words

b)

Avoid nonstandard abbreviations

2.

Prevent confusion that can lead to patient care errors

c)

Include objective data

3.

Document measurable findings like vital signs

d)

If it’s not written down, you didn’t do it

4.

Ensure all interventions appear as performed

19.

You assessed a patient with chest pain who denied shortness of breath and had BP 110/80. Which narrative entry is most appropriate?

a)

Patient probably having a heart attack; pressure 110/80 noted

b)

Patient chest discomfort; vitals seem fine according to partner

c)

Patient states chest pain, denies dyspnea; BP 110/80 measured

d)

Patient says chest pain; no breathing issues mentioned by bystanders

20.

Under HIPAA, which practice best protects patient confidentiality during transport and handoff?

a)

Placing the completed report in a locked box until transfer

b)

Discussing the case with other crews at the station break room

c)

Texting the receiving nurse a photo of the monitor strip

d)

Leaving the only report copy with the ambulance billing office

21.

Which action is REQUIRED when a competent patient refuses EMS care or transport?

a)

Document risks explained and patient understanding

b)

Leave immediately without further assessment

c)

Avoid consulting any medical direction protocols

d)

Offer no further care or advice to the patient

22.

Match each refusal documentation element to its purpose.

a)

Patient signature

1.

Confirms informed refusal by patient

b)

Witness signature

2.

Verifies the refusal was observed

c)

Narrative description

3.

Details assessment, risks discussed, and instructions

d)

Refusal information sheet copy

4.

Provides written aftercare and contact guidance

23.

You assess an alert adult with minor complaints who declines transport. Vitals are stable. The patient refuses to sign the form. What is the BEST next step to reduce liability and ensure patient safety?

a)

Discard the unsigned form and clear the call

b)

Transport the patient against will using restraints

c)

Have a neutral witness sign and document counseling

d)

Stop documentation to avoid creating legal risk

24.

Which action correctly corrects a handwritten error on a paper prehospital care report (PCR)?

a)

Erase the mistake and rewrite the correct statement neatly

b)

Black out the wrong text so it cannot be read later

c)

Draw a single line, initial it, and add the correct note

d)

Tear off the page and transcribe the entire report again

25.

Match each documentation issue with the best EMS documentation response.

a)

Later-discovered error after report sent

1.

Create dated addendum with initials and correction

b)

Omission of vital signs during transport

2.

Document why only one set was obtained

c)

Incorrect medication administered

3.

Record event, notify medical direction promptly

d)

Patient moved among hospitals in an MCI

4.

Use triage tag to track care across facilities

26.

An EMT realizes a coworker deliberately altered a PCR to hide a missed oxygen administration. What is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Ignore it because patient received other treatments

b)

Quietly fix the wording to protect the team

c)

Wait until the next shift to discuss casually

d)

Report the falsification through proper channels

27.

Which situation most clearly requires completing a special situation report in addition to the PCR?

a)

Minor equipment malfunction with no impact

b)

Routine single-patient fall with no injuries

c)

Exposure to a patient’s bloodborne pathogen

d)

Transport delay due to heavy city traffic

28.

Which item must be included when completing a prehospital care report (PCR)?

a)

Unit fuel level and weather notes

b)

Mechanism of injury and billing details

c)

Ambulance mileage and tire wear

d)

Hospital staffing and bed counts

29.

Match each EMS radio term to its best description.

a)

Base station

1.

Fixed-site two-way at hospital/dispatch

b)

Repeater

2.

Retransmits low-power signals at higher power

c)

Portable radio

3.

Handheld two-way unit

d)

Telemetry

4.

Wireless sending and receiving of data

30.

You arrive to find bystanders gave the patient aspirin before EMS arrival. During your medical radio report to the hospital, how should you integrate this information to support patient care and legal documentation?

a)

Include it with treatment history and note effects

b)

Omit it to keep the report brief

c)

Mention only if asked by medical control

d)

Record later and exclude from radio traffic