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CSA3703 - Software Testing MCQs (Worksheet Extraction)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a)

linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.

b)

the precise differences in versions of software component source code.

c)

facilities to compare test results with expected results.

d)

restricted access to the source code library

2.

Test cases are designed during:

a)

test recording.

b)

test configuration.

c)

test planning.

d)

test specification

3.

In case of Large Systems

a)

only few tests should be run

b)

test cases written by good test engineers should be executed

c)

only good test cases should be executed

d)

testing should be on the basis of risk

4.

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

a)

big-bang

b)

top down

c)

bottom up

d)

functional incrimination

5.

Test Conditions are derived from

a)

test design

b)

test cases

c)

test data

d)

specifications

6.

Pick the best definition of quality

a)

quality is job one

b)

zero defects

c)

work as designed

d)

conformance to requirements

7.

Fault Masking is

a)

creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

b)

error condition hiding another error condition

c)

masking a fault by developer

d)

masking a fault by a tester

8.

One key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

a)

lack of technical documentation

b)

lack of test tools on the market for developers

c)

lack of objectivity

d)

lack of training

9.

In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:

a)

takes minutes of the meeting

b)

takes telephone calls

c)

mediates between people

d)

writes the documents to be reviewed

10.

Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a)

decision table

b)

design

c)

code

d)

requirements

11.

How much testing is enough?

a)

this question is easy to answer

b)

this question is impossible to answer

c)

the answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements

d)

this answer depends on the maturity of your developers

12.

Which of the following is the component test standard?

a)

ieee 610

b)

ieee 829

c)

bs7925-1

d)

bs7925-2

13.

Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?

a)

ieee610

b)

ieee829

c)

bs7925-1

d)

bs7925-2

14.

The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a)

iso/iec 12207

b)

bs 7925-1

c)

ansi/ieee 729

d)

ansi/ieee 829

15.

Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a)

incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

b)

incidents may be raised against user requirements.

c)

incidents require investigation and/or correction.

d)

incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

16.

Which of the following is false?

a)

in a system two different failures may have different severities.

b)

a fault need not affect the reliability of a system.

c)

a system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.

d)

undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

17.

Which of the following is the odd one out?

a)

white box

b)

functional

c)

structural

d)

glass box

18.

Which of the following is a static test?

a)

coverage analysis

b)

code inspection

c)

usability assessment

d)

installation test

19.

Which of the following is a black box design technique?

a)

statement testing

b)

error- guessing

c)

equivalence partitioning

d)

usability testing

20.

Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

a)

design based

b)

bottom-up

c)

big-bang

d)

top-down

21.

Expected results are:

a)

only important in system testing

b)

most useful when specified in advance

c)

only used in component testing

d)

derived from the code

22.

Incidents would not be raised against:

a)

requirements

b)

documentation

c)

improvements suggested by users

d)

test cases

23.

Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

a)

non-functional system testing

b)

component testing

c)

user acceptance testing

d)

maintenance testing

24.

What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics?

a)

management review

b)

inspection

c)

walkthrough

d)

post project review

25.

Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a)

operating systems

b)

live data

c)

test documentation

d)

user requirement documents

26.

Maintenance testing is:

a)

testing to maintain business advantage

b)

testing a released system that has been changed

c)

testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need

d)

updating tests when the software has changed

27.

Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

a)

state transition testing

b)

syntax testing

c)

lcsaj

28.

What can static analysis NOT find?

a)

memory leaks

b)

unreachable ("dead") code

c)

the use of a variable before it has been defined

d)

array bound violations

29.

In prioritizing what to test, the most important objective is to:

a)

test high risk areas.

b)

find as many faults as possible.

c)

obtain good test coverage.

d)

test whatever is easiest to test.

30.

Which of the following is false?

a)

an incident can be raised against documentation.

b)

an incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.

c)

incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.

d)

incidents should always be fixed.

31.

Phase Definition. It will come under

a)

cmm level 1

b)

cmm level 2

c)

none

32.

Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as

a)

adhoc testing

b)

unit testing

c)

regression testing

d)

functional testing

33.

Acceptance testing is known as

a)

beta testing

b)

greybox testing

c)

test automation

d)

white box testing

34.

Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?

a)

full regression testing

b)

unit regression

c)

regional regression

d)

retesting

35.

What are the Types of Integration Testing?

a)

big bang testing

b)

bottom up testing

c)

top down testing

d)

all the above

36.

A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as

a)

process metric

b)

product metric

c)

test metrics

37.

Which is non-functional software testing?

a)

unit testing

b)

block box testing

c)

performance testing

d)

regression testing

38.

The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called as?

a)

delivery process

b)

testing process

c)

software process

39.

Executing the same test case on a modified build called as

a)

regression testing

b)

retesting

c)

ad hoc testing

d)

sanity testing

40.

Which is Black-Box Testing method?

a)

equivalence partitioning

b)

code coverage

c)

fault injection

41.

The review process for a particular review begins with a ________ by the author to the moderator in formal review.

a)

request for review

b)

requirement analysis

c)

notice for review

d)

goal design

42.

Configuration management procedures be implemented during ________

a)

test execution

b)

test planning

c)

test design

d)

test success

43.

__________ of information refers to protecting information from being modified by unauthorized parties.

a)

confidentiality

b)

authentication

c)

authorization

d)

integrity

44.

__________ looks for known security issues by using automated tools to match conditions with known vulnerabilities.

a)

discovery

b)

vulnerability scan

c)

security assessment

d)

penetration test

45.

__________ is driven by an Audit or a Risk function to look at a specific control or compliance issue.

a)

security audit

b)

vulnerability scan

c)

vulnerability assessment

d)

penetration test

46.

__________ simulates an attack by a malicious party.

a)

security audit

b)

vulnerability scan

c)

vulnerability assessment

d)

penetration test

47.

__________ builds upon Vulnerability Assessment by adding manual verification to confirm exposure.

a)

security audit

b)

security assessment

c)

vulnerability assessment

d)

penetration test

48.

Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?

a)

integration testing

b)

regression testing

c)

system testing

d)

user acceptance testing

49.

What are the Testing Levels?

a)

unit testing

b)

integration testing

c)

system testing and acceptance testing.

d)

all the above

50.

Defect Management process does not include

a)

defect prevention

b)

deliverable base-lining

c)

management reporting

d)

none of the above

51.

Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?

a)

10-20

b)

40-50

c)

70-80

d)

5-10

52.

How much testing is enough

a)

this question is impossible to answer

b)

the answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements

c)

the answer depends on the maturity of your developers

d)

the answer should be standardized for the software development industry

53.

Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

a)

operability

b)

observability

c)

simplicity

d)

robustness

54.

Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?

a)

simple loops

b)

nested loops

c)

concatenated loops

d)

all of the above

55.

Inspections can find all the following except

a)

variables not defined in the code

b)

spelling and grammar faults in the documents

c)

requirements that have been omitted from the design documents

d)

how much of the code has been covered

56.

When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a)

a small team to establish the best way to use the tool

b)

everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool

c)

the independent testing team

d)

the vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

57.

Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

a)

system testing

b)

usability testing

c)

performance testing

d)

both b & c

58.

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

a)

when the code is complete

b)

when the design is complete

c)

when the software requirements have been approved

d)

when the first code module is ready for unit testing

59.

Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a)

requirements

b)

design

c)

code

d)

decision table

60.

Independent Verification & Validation is

a)

done by the developer

b)

done by the test engineers

c)

done by management

d)

done by an entity outside the project's sphere of influence

61.

Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a)

syntax testing

b)

equivalence partitioning

c)

stress testing

d)

modified condition/decision coverage

62.

Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a)

boundary value analysis

b)

usability testing

c)

performance testing

d)

security testing

63.

Test cases are designed during:

a)

test recording

b)

test planning

c)

test configuration

d)

test specification

64.

Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

a)

checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

b)

logging the outcome of test execution.

c)

assessing if more tests are needed.

d)

writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

65.

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

a)

test analysis and design

b)

test implementation and execution

c)

test closure activities

d)

evaluating exit criteria and reporting

66.

Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase

a)

test analysis and design

b)

test implementation and execution

c)

test closure activities

d)

evaluating exit criteria and reporting

67.

Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

a)

operating systems

b)

test documentation

c)

live data

d)

user requirement document

68.

Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase

a)

test analysis and design

b)

test planning and control

c)

test closure activities

d)

evaluating exit criteria and reporting

69.

A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?

a)

pareto analysis

b)

cause-and-effect diagram

70.

Variance from product specifications is called?

a)

report

b)

requirement

c)

defect

71.

Verification is

a)

process based

b)

product based

72.

White box testing is not called as ________

a)

glass box testing

b)

closed box testing

c)

open box testing

d)

clear box testing

73.

Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as

a)

pareto analysis

b)

cause and effect diagram

c)

swot analysis

d)

pie charts

74.

Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?

a)

full regression testing

b)

unit regression

c)

regional regression

d)

retesting

75.

The testing which is done by going through the code is known as,

a)

unit testing

b)

blackbox testing

c)

white box testing

d)

regression testing

76.

Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

a)

severity

b)

priority

c)

fix ability

d)

traceability

77.

Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been made

a)

full regression testing

b)

unit regression

c)

regional regression

d)

retesting

78.

SPICE means

a)

software process improvement and capability determination

b)

software process improvement and compatibility determination

c)

software process invention and compatibility determination

d)

software process improvement and control determination

79.

Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution, Bug Reporting and Maintenance. This life cycle comes under

a)

sdlc

b)

stlc

c)

sqlc

d)

blc

80.

It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their testing processes.

a)

tim (testing improving model)

b)

tmm (testing maturity model)

c)

tqm (total quality management)

81.

Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is called

a)

confirmation management

b)

confederation management

c)

configuration management

d)

compatibility management

82.

This type of test includes how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system

a)

usability testing

b)

user acceptance testing

c)

alpha testing

d)

beta testing

83.

Defects generally fall into the following categories

a)

wrong

b)

missing

c)

extra

d)

all the above

84.

What is correct Software Process Cycle

a)

plan(p) —> check(c) —> act(a) —> do(d)

b)

plan(p) —> do(d) —> check(c) —> act(a)

c)

plan(p) —> do(d) —> act(a) —> check(c)

85.

Beta testing will be done by

a)

developer

b)

user

c)

tester

86.

Integration, it will come under

a)

cmm level 1

b)

cmm level 3

c)

cmm level 2

d)

none

87.

Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start testing activities when starting development activities itself

a)

water falls model

b)

spiral model

c)

v-model

d)

linear model

88.

A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods, techniques and tools employed in developing, implementing and maintaining the software system is called

a)

process metric

b)

product metric

c)

test metrics

89.

How severely the bug is affecting the application is called

a)

severity

b)

priority

c)

fix ability

d)

traceability

90.

The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not affected by new changes

a)

recursive testing

b)

whitebox testing

c)

unit testing

d)

regression testing

91.

Management and Measurement, it will come under

a)

cmm level 1

b)

cmm level 3

c)

cmm level 4

d)

cmm level 2

92.

AdHoc testing is a part of

a)

unit testing

b)

regression testing

c)

exploratory testing

d)

performance testing

93.

——— means under what test environment (hardware, software set up) the application will run smoothly

a)

test bed

b)

checkpoint

c)

code walk through

d)

checklist

94.

Optimization, defect prevention, and quality control. It comes under the

a)

cmm level 2

b)

cmm level 3

c)

cmm level 4

d)

cmm level 5

95.

What is the primary goal of performance testing?

a)

to check usability

b)

to verify security

c)

to ensure functionality

d)

to identify bottlenecks

96.

Which of the following is a common type of non-functional testing?

a)

system testing

b)

integration testing

c)

unit testing

d)

load testing

97.

What does the term 'test coverage' refer to?

a)

the time taken for testing

b)

the variety of testing methods used

c)

the percentage of code tested

d)

the number of test cases executed

98.

Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?

a)

performance testing

b)

integration testing

c)

system testing

d)

unit testing

99.

What is the primary goal of regression testing?

a)

to test new features

b)

to validate performance

c)

to ensure existing functionality is not broken

d)

to check security vulnerabilities

100.

Which of the following best describes exploratory testing?

a)

testing based on requirements

b)

testing without a formal test plan

c)

automated testing of scripts

d)

testing with predefined test cases